Stuff to know Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the steps of protein synthesis

A

1) An mRNA copy of the DNA is made in the nucleus via transcription

2) Proteins are synthesised in ribosomes on the RER via translation

3) Proteins undergo modification at the Golgi apparatus, where lipids or carbohydrates may be added

4) Some proteins are secreted from the cell membrane when transport vesicles fuse with cell surface membrane, some proteins work within the cell

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2
Q

what ribosomes do prokaryotes have?

A

70s

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3
Q

what ribosomes do eukaryotes have?

A

80s

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4
Q

Does a SEM have a lower resolution than TEM?

A

Yes

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5
Q

What is the resolution of a light microscope?

A

0.2 micrometres

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6
Q

what is the magnification of a light microscope?

A

X 1500

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7
Q

micrometers to centimetres?

A

/ 10,000

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8
Q

centimetres to millimetres?

A

X 10

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9
Q

micrometres to millimetres?

A

/ 1000

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10
Q

micrometres to nanometres?

A

X 1000

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11
Q

how do you calculate magnification?

A

image size/ actual object size

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12
Q

What are the advantages of cell staining?

A
  • Makes the cell easier to see
  • Increases the contrast
  • Allows you to recognise the different parts of a cell
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13
Q

Describes the roles of the cytoskeleton

A
  • Maintaining the shape of the cell
  • The movement of the cillia
  • Changing the shape of the cell (exocytosis, phagocytosis, pseudopodia)
  • Movement of vesicles to plasma membrane
  • The formation of the spindle fibres during mitosis
  • Holding organelles in place
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14
Q

What are the roles of membranes within cells?

A
  • compartmentalisation
  • Isolation of the contents of the organelle i.e the hydrolytic enzymes.
  • Site for the attachment of enzymes
  • Controls what enters and leaves an organelle
  • Creates concentration gradients
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15
Q

What is the secondary structure ?

A

-Hydrogen bonds form between the amino acids all along the polypeptide chain (this is due to the polarity of the CO and the NH groups).

-These hydrogen bonds cause the polypeptide chains to twist and fold into shapes .

-The twisted 3d shape formed can either be an alpha helix cylindrical shape or a beta pleated sheet .

-Both these structures are maintained by hydrogen bonds

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16
Q

What are globular proteins?

A

Proteins that have a roughly spherical shape

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17
Q

What are glucose and fructose?

A

Monosaccharides

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18
Q

What 2 polysaccharides are starch molecules made up of?

A

Amylose and amylopectin

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19
Q

What are examples of monosaccharides?

A

Glucose, galactose, fructose, ribose, deoxyribose, glyceraldehyde

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20
Q

What type of bond forms when monosaccharides like glucose bond?

A

Glycosidic bond

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21
Q

What make up maltose?

A

Alpha glucose + alpha glucose

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22
Q

What forms sucrose?

A

Alpha glucose + fructose

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23
Q

What is the molecular formula of sucrose?

A

C12 H22 O11

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24
Q

What forms lactose?

A

Alpha glucose + galactose

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25
Q

What does sucrose and sucrase make?

A

Alpha glucose + fructose

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26
Q

Is amylose a monosaccharide or a polysaccharide?

A

Is amylose a monosaccharide or a polysaccharide?

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27
Q

Is amylopectin a monosaccharide or a polysaccharide?

A

A polysaccharide

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28
Q

What is amylose?

A

A polymer of glucose joined by a -1,4- glycosidic bonds. Amylose is unbranched and helical

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29
Q

What is amylopectin?

A

polymers of glucose joined by -1,4- glycosidic bonds but with branches of 1,6 glycosidic bonds. This causes the molecule to be branched rather than helical

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30
Q

What is glycogen made up of?

A

Alpha glucose molecules with much shorter 1,4 chains and many more branches of alpha 1,6 glycosidic bonds than amylopectin

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31
Q

What reactions form the ester linkage?

A

Condensation reactions

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32
Q

What are the roles of lipids?

A

-Energy storage
-Insulation(electrical and thermal)
-Buoyancy(floating)
-Waterproofing
-Protection
-Membranes
-Source of water- from respiration
-Aids absorption

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33
Q

What is a difference between lipids from animals and those from plants?

A

Lipids from animals are saturated, whereas lipids from plants are unsaturated

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34
Q

what can the hydrophilic hydroxyl group on the cholesterol molecule interact with?

A

the head groups of phospholipids. the rest of the cholesterol molecule can interact with the hydrophobic fatty acid tails

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35
Q

what are the functions of cholesterol?

A
  • producing steroid-based hormones.
  • making vitamin D, this process takes place in the skin in response to ultraviolet light.
  • producing bile in the liver.
  • fluidity and permeability of cell membranes
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36
Q

What prosthetic group does haemoglobin have?

A

Haem, which binds to oxygen

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37
Q

What is a protein with a prosthetic group called

A

A conjugated protein

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38
Q

What are disulfide bonds?

A

strong covalent bonds that form between two cysteine R groups (as this is the only amino acid with a sulphur atom)

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39
Q

What is the strongest protein bond?

A

The disulfide bond

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40
Q

In which proteins are disulfide bonds common in?

A

proteins secreted from cells eg. insulin

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41
Q

Where do Ionic bonds form in a protein?

A

Ionic bonds form between positively charged (amine group -NH3+) and negatively charged (carboxylic acid -COO-) R groups

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42
Q

Where do hydrophobic interactions form?

A

between the non-polar (hydrophobic) R groups within the interior of proteins

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43
Q

What is a good way of distinguishing between fibrous and globular proteins?

A

SAFES (Shape, Amino acid sequence, Function, Examples and Solubility).

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44
Q

How do you calculate Rf values?

A

Rf value = distance travelled by sample / distance travelled by solvent

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45
Q

what type of covalent bond is present in proteins?

A

peptide

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46
Q

what type of covalent bond is present in lipids?

A

ester

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47
Q

what type of covalent bond is present in nucleic acids?

A

phosphodiester

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48
Q

what do reducing sugars do?

A

donate electrons and they reduce the soluble copper sulphate to insoluble brick-red copper oxide

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49
Q

what do non-reducing sugars do?

A

they cannot donate electrons, therefore they cannot be oxidised

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50
Q

summarise the test for proteins

A

1) Add sodium
hydroxide solution.

2) Add copper (II)
sulphate solution.

Colour change should be from blue to purple

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51
Q

summarise the test for starch

A

1) Add iodine in
potassium iodide
solution.

Colour change from
brown-orange to
blue-black.

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52
Q

summarise the test for lipids

A

1) Add ethanol.
2) Pour solution into
water.
A cloudy emulsion forms

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53
Q

summarise the test for reducing sugars

A

1) Add Benedict’s
reagent to a sample and
heat in a water bath
that’s brought to a boil.
Sample goes from blue to
green to yellow to orange
to brick red precipitate,
depending on the
concentration

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54
Q

summarise the test for non reducing sugars

A

1) Add dilute HCl.

2) Put in a water bath
brought to a boil.

3) Neutralise with
sodium hydrogen
carbonate.

4) Do Benedict’s Test
for reducing sugars.

Sample goes from blue to
green to yellow to orange
to brick red precipitate,
depending on the
concentration

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55
Q

summarise the test for glucose

A

1) Dip test strip in
solution.
Colour change will occur
if glucose is present.
Compare to chart of
known colour changes to
check for concentration.

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56
Q

What are the functions of hydrogen ions?

A

-hydrogen bonding

-ATP formation

-control of blood pH

-transport of carbon dioxide

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57
Q

What are the functions of calcium ions?

A

-bone and enamel structure

-cofactor in blood clotting

-synaptic transmission of nerve impulses

-muscle contraption

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58
Q

What are the functions of iron ions?

A

-transport of oxygen via haemoglobin

-transfer of electrons

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59
Q

What are the functions of sodium ions?

A

-electrolyte

-nerve transmission

-reabsorption of water into the kidneys

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60
Q

What are the functions of potassium ions?

A

-electrolyte

-nerve transmission

-reabsorption of water into the kidneys

-opening of the stomata

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61
Q

What are the functions of ammonium ions?

A

deamination of proteins

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62
Q

What are the functions of nitrate ions?

A

source of nitrogen for plants

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63
Q

What are the functions of hydrogen carbonate ions?

A

carbon dioxide transport in the blood

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64
Q

What are the functions of chloride ions?

A

maintaining pH balance during carbon dioxide transport

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65
Q

What are the functions of phosphate ions?

A

-component of the cell membrane(phospholipids)

-component of bones (calcium phosphate)

-component of ATP and nucleic acids

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66
Q

What are the functions of hydroxide ions?

A

bonding between biochemical molecules

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67
Q

What is the structure of collagen?

A

-Peptide bonds between amino acids

-Secondary structure is alpha helix

-Has high proportions of glycine

-3 polypeptide chains and hydrogen bonds between them

-No hydrophilic R groups on the outside of the molecules

-Adjacent molecules joined by crosslinks

-Crosslinks form fibrils

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68
Q

What is the structure of heamoglobin?

A

-Peptide bonds between amino acids

-Secondary structure is alpha helix, with small regions of beta pleated sheets.

-Hydrophilic R groups on the outside of the molecule

-4 polypeptide chains, 2 alpha, 2 beta

-4 haem groups per molecule

-Made up of a wider range of amino acids

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69
Q

Describe the ways in which the structure of collagen is similar to the structure of haemoglobin?

A

-Both have an acid amino chain

-Both have amino acids joined by peptides

-Both helical

-Both have a quaternary structure

-Both have more than 1 subunit

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70
Q

How does heamoglobin differ from collagen?

A

-Haemoglobin is globular, whereas collagen is fibrous.

-Haemoglobin has hydrophilic R groups on the outside, whereas collagen doesn’t.

-Haemoglobin has 4 polypeptide chains, whereas collagen has only 3.

-Haemoglobin has a high wider range of amino acids- not predominantly glycine like collagen is

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71
Q

What are the differences between glycogen and cellulose?

A

-Glycogen doesn’t have hydrogen bonding, whereas cellulose does.

-Glycogen has a- 1,4 bonds and a-1,6 bonds; whereas cellulose only has a-1,4 bonds.

-Glycogen is branched, whereas cellulose is helical.

-Glycogen doesn’t have fibrils, whereas cellulose does have fibrils.

-Glycogen has granules, whereas cellulose does not have granules.

-All glucose units in glycogen are in the same orientation, whereas adjacent glucose units in cellulose are in opposite orientation.

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72
Q

Why does glycogen make a good storage molecule?

A
  • Glycogen is insoluble, so it doesn’t affect the water potential of the cell.
  • Can be broken down easily.
  • Has many branches for enzymes to attach to.
  • It’s compact and so stores a lot of energy
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73
Q

What does methylene blue do?

A

stains the nuclei in animal cells to give contrast(stains blue)

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74
Q

What does crystal violet do?

A

It stains cell walls purple

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75
Q

What is the magnification?

A

How much bigger an image is than the specimen

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76
Q

What is the resolution?

A

The ability to clearly distinguish 2 points that are next to each other

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77
Q

What is specific heat capacity?

A

The amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 1Kg of liquid by 1oC.

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78
Q

Why does it take a lot of energy to raise the temperature of water?

A

Because water has a very high specific heat capacity. This allows water to provide a very thermally stable environment for organisms to live in.

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79
Q

What is the specific heat capacity of water?

A

4200 J/Kg degrees Celsius

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80
Q

what is cohesion?

A

a force where water molecules stick together.

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81
Q

What is adhesion?

A

The attraction between non alike molecules

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82
Q

Why is the ability of water to act as a solvent important for the survival of organisms?

A
  • Allows for metabolic reactions to occur
  • Allows for transport in transport systems, such as the xylem, to occur.
  • Allows for the dilution of toxic substances
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83
Q

Water has a high specific heat capacity so….

A
  • A large amount of energy is needed to change the temperature of water.
  • So, a thermally stable environment is provided for aquatic organisms because their internal body temperature will only change slowly, so metabolism will function correctly
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84
Q

What is the latent heat of vaportisation?

A
  • the amount of heat energy required to vaporise a liquid
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85
Q

Water has a high latent heat of vaporisation so…

A
  • a large amount of energy is required to change water from a liquid to a gas.
  • this allows for evaporation to be an efficient cooling mechanism i.e sweating can cool organisms down.
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86
Q

Ice is less dense than water so….

A
  • The surface of ice provides habitats for organisms like polar bears.
  • The water beneath ice doesn’t freeze so aquatic organisms can swim beneath the ice
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87
Q

Water is an effective solvent so..

A

it is a medium for metabolic reactions

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88
Q

Water has high surface tension so….

A

it is a habitat for insects

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89
Q

water has a high density so…

A

this allows for certain organisms to float on water’s surface

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90
Q

What are the components of nucleotides?

A

A pentose sugar , either ribose or deoxyribose, a nitrogenous base, and a negatively charged phosphate group

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91
Q

What structure do purines have?

A

A double ring structure

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92
Q

Give some examples of purines

A

Adenine and guanine

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93
Q

What is the structure of a pyrimidine?

A

A single ring structure

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94
Q

What are some examples of pyrimidines?

A

Thymine and cytosine and uracil

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95
Q

What are the bases found in RNA?

A

Adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine

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96
Q

What base replaces thymine in RNA?

A

Uracil

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97
Q

What bond forms between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the hydroxyl group on the carbon 3 of the other nucleotide?

A

A phosphodiester bond

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98
Q

what does guanine pair with?

A

cytosine

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99
Q

what does adenine pair with?

A

thymine

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100
Q

what do purines pair with?

A

pyrimidines

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101
Q

how many hydrogen bonds do guanine and cytosine form?

A

3

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102
Q

how many hydrogen bonds do adenine and thymine form?

A

2

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103
Q

What are the steps or DNA replication?

A

-The enzyme DNA helicase attaches to the DNA molecule. DNA helicase causes the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases to break. This causes the 2 polynucleotide strands to separate from each other.

-Free nucleotides line up with their complementary bases on the DNA strands. At this stage, the free nucleotides are only held in place by hydrogen bonds between complementary bases, not phosphodiester bonds. The nucleotides are called activated nucleotides, as they have 3 phosphate groups.

-The second enzyme, DNA polymerase, moves up and down the polynucleotides and catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the activated nucleotides. This is a condensation reaction. When the phosphodiester bonds form, the activated nucleotides lose their extra 2 phosphate groups and this provides the energy for the reaction.

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104
Q

Why is DNA replication an example of semi-conservative replication?

A

because each DNA molecule contains one strand from the original DNA molecule and one strand which is brand new

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105
Q

what is conservative replication?

A

where a DNA double helix is formed containing 2 new strands. The DNA molecule contains more of the original DNA

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106
Q

What is the most common isotope of nitrogen

A

Nitrogen-14

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107
Q

which isotope of nitrogen is heavier, nitrogen-14 or nitrogen-15?

A

nitrogen-15

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108
Q

What does the position of the DNA band determine?

A

How heavy the DNA is

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109
Q

Is the DNA in prokaryotes circular or linear?

A

Circular with no free ends

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110
Q

Is the DNA in eukaryotes circular or linear?

A

Linear with 2 free ends

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111
Q

What are the 2 main steps of protein synthesis?

A

Transcription and translation

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112
Q

Describe all the steps of DNA transcription

A

1) DNA helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds between the 2 polynucleotide strands of DNA.

2) Complementary nucleotides move into place and form hydrogen bonds with the bases on the exposed nucleotides of one of the DNA strands.

3) RNA polymerase then joins the RNA nucleotides by forming phosphodiester bonds.

4) A strand of mRNA is now produced

5) Now that the mRNA has been synthesised, the RNA polymerase detaches from the DNA and the DNA goes back to its normal double helix structure.

6) The mRNA now moves out of the nucleus through a nuclear pore.

7) Once in the cytoplasm, the mRNA can now undertake translation

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113
Q

Because of the fact that most amino acids have more than one triplet that codes for them, what do scientists call the genetic code?

A

The “degenerate code”

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114
Q

What is meant by the fact that the genetic code is non-overlapping?

A

No base is read more than once

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115
Q

What is meant by the fact the genetic code is universal?

A

The same base triplets encode the same amino acid in the vast majority of living organisms.

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116
Q

Describe the stages of protein translation

A

1) The small subunit of a ribosome binds with the mRNA at the start codon.

2) a tRNA molecule with an anticodon complementary to the start codon attaches. This is held in place by hydrogen bonds between the complementary base pairs on the mRNA and tRNA

3)Now, a second tRNA molecule moves into place. The anticodon on this tRNA is complementary to the second codon on the mRNA.

4)Now, a peptide bond forms between the 2 amino acids produced. This forming of the peptide bond is catalysed by the enzyme peptidyl transferase. The formation of the peptide bond requires energy provided by ATP

5)Now, the ribosome moves to the next codon and forms a peptide bond with the next amino acid. The first tRNA molecule is now released (TRNA molecules that have been released are later attached to their amino acids by enzymes in the cytoplasm)

6) The ribosome continues moving down the mRNA, forming the polypeptide

7)When the ribosome comes to a stop codon, it detaches and the protein is released.

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117
Q

Why is ATP a nucleotide?

A

Because it contains 3 phosphate groups, a ribose sugar and the base adenine

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118
Q

What is the reaction that involves adding a phosphate back onto ADP called?

A

A phosphorylation reaction

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119
Q

What are anabolic reactions ?

A

Reactions that build larger molecules from smaller molecules

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120
Q

How many different codons (triplets) are possible?

A

64 (there’s 4 bases)

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121
Q

Does semi Conservative replication occur in preparation for mitosis?

A

Yes

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122
Q

Does the degenerate nature of the genetic code limit the amount of mutations possible?

A

Yes

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123
Q

What are the advantages of Complementary Base Pairing?

A

-Allows for identical copies of DNA to be produced.

-Prevents mutations.

-Allows DNA to be replicated without error.

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124
Q

Why does the fluid mosaic model describe cell membranes as fluids?

A

because…
-The phospholipids and proteins can move around via diffusion

-The phospholipids mainly move sideways, within their own layers

-The many different types of proteins interspersed throughout the bilayer move about within it (a bit like icebergs in the sea) although some may be fixed in position

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125
Q

how can phospholipids be chemically modified to act as signalling molecules?

A

by….
-Moving within the bilayer to activate other molecules (eg. enzymes)

-Being hydrolysed, which releases smaller water-soluble molecules that bind to specific receptors in the cytoplasm

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126
Q

describe intrinsic proteins

A

they’re fully embedded in the membrane from one side to the other. Because they pass right through the bilayer, intrinsic proteins have hydrophobic amino acids on the outside surface of the protein. These can interact with the hydrophobic fatty acid tails in the phospholipid bilayer.

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127
Q

what are 2 types of intrinsic protein?

A

carrier proteins and protein channels

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128
Q

describe protein channels

A

they run through the centre of the phospholipid bilayer. This channel is lined with hydrophilic amino acids and is filled with water molecules. They allow water -soluble molecules and ions to diffuse through (hydrophilic substances)

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129
Q

describe carrier proteins

A

they have a binding site for certain chemicals . When that chemical binds, it causes the tertiary structure of the carrier protein to change. This change in tertiary structure brings the chemical across the membrane where the chemical is now released

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130
Q

describe extrinsic proteins

A

they don’t span the membrane and are found on one side of the membrane or the other. They can sometimes be attached to intrinsic proteins

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131
Q

describe the functions of extrinsic proteins

A
  • some play a structural role within the membrane.
  • some act as enzymes
  • some are receptors for other molecules, such as hormones
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132
Q

what are glycoproteins?

A

membrane proteins attached to a carbohydrate molecule

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133
Q

what are the functions of glycoproteins?

A
  • allowing cells to attach to each other to form tissues such as nervous tissues
  • presenting antigens to T cells
  • acting as receptors for hormones
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134
Q

what are glycolipids?

A

carbohydrates attached to phospholipid molecules

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135
Q

what are glycolipids used for?

A
  • contacting other cells. the glycolipids of one cell can be recognised by another cell and this can determine whether cells come into contact .
  • they act as antigens e.g in determining blood groups
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136
Q

what 2 factors affect the permeability of the cell membrane?

A

temperature and solvent concentration

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137
Q

what happens to the lipids when the temperature of the phospholipid bilayer increases?

A
  • The lipids become more fluid and so the cell membrane becomes a less effective barrier to polar molecules and so they can easily pass through.
  • Diffusion takes place at a higher speed due to increased kinetic energy. So, more molecules pass through
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138
Q

what happens to the proteins in the cell membrane at really high temperatures (temperatures exceeding 40 degrees)?

A

the proteins in the cell membrane denature, which means that it can no longer form an effective barrier and so substances can freely pass through the disrupted membrane

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139
Q

why do organic solvents increase membrane permeability?

A

because they dissolve the lipids in the membrane, causing the membrane to lose its structure

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140
Q

why does membrane permeability also increase below 0 degrees Celsius?

A

-Increased permeability can be caused by channel or carrier proteins deforming at these low temperatures

-Ice crystals that form can also pierce the cell membrane, making it highly permeable

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141
Q

what is diffusion?

A

The net movement, as a result of the random motion of its molecules or ions, of a substance from a region of its higher concentration to a region of its lower concentration.

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142
Q

what factors is the rate of diffusion dependant on?

A
  • concentration gradient
  • surface area
  • diffusion distance
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143
Q

how does the steepness of the concentration gradient affect the rate of diffusion?

A

The greater the difference in concentration between 2 areas, the greater the rate of diffusion

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144
Q

what does Fick’s Law state?

A

‘the rate of diffusion is proportional to both the surface area and concentration difference and the rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to the thickness of the membrane’.

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145
Q

what is the formula for the rate of diffusion?

A

rate of diffusion = surface area X difference in concentration / length of the diffusion path

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146
Q

what can increase the surface area of cell membranes?

A

folding e.g microvilli in the intestines or cristae in mitochondria

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147
Q

what 2 proteins enable facilitated diffusion?

A

Channel proteins
Carrier proteins

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148
Q

is facilitated diffusion a passive process?

A

yes

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149
Q

what is osmosis?

A

the movement of water molecules from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential through a partially permeable membrane

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150
Q

what is the unit of water potential?

A

kilopascals

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151
Q

what type of water has the highest water potential?

A

pure water

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152
Q
A
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153
Q

what is the water potential of pure water?

A

0kPa

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154
Q

What is the water potential of solutions besides pure water?

A

less than 0

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155
Q

do more concentrated solutions have higher or lower water potential than a less concentrated solution?

A

lower water potential

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156
Q

isotonic meaning?

A

the concentration of solutes is the same inside and outside of the cell, meaning the water potential is equal. water will diffuse equally between locations

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157
Q

hypertonic meaning?

A

the solution has a higher solute concentration than the cell, meaning the water potential is lower outside the cell. Water will diffuse out of the cell

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158
Q

hypotonic meaning

A

the solution has a lower solute concentration than the cell, meaning the water potential is lower inside the cell. water will diffuse into the cell

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159
Q

describe the visking tubing diffusion practical

A

-Fill a section of Visking tubing with a mixture of starch and glucose solutions

-Suspend the tubing in a boiling tube of water for a set period of time

-Test the water outside of the visking tube at regular intervals for the presence of starch and glucose to monitor whether the diffusion of either substance out of the tubing has occurred

-the results should indicate that glucose, but not starch, diffuses out of the tubing

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160
Q

what happens if an animal cell is placed in a solution with a lower water potential than the cell (such as a concentrated sucrose solution)?

A
  • Water will leave the cell through its partially permeable cell surface membrane by osmosis.
  • The volume of the cell will decrease.
  • The cell will consequently shrink/shrivel up.
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161
Q
A
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162
Q

what happens when an animal cell is placed in a solution with a higher water potential?

A

water will enter the animal cell through its partially permeable cell membrane by osmosis. The volume of the cell will increase. The animal cell has no cell wall to withstand the increased pressure created. The cell membrane will stretch out too far and will eventually burst.

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163
Q
A
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164
Q

what happens to animal cells in an isotonic environment?

A

The movement of water molecules into and out of the cell occurs at the same rate (no net movement of water) and there is no change to the cells

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165
Q

why is the loss and gain of water less severe in plant cells?

A

because plant cells have a supporting cell wall

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166
Q

what happens if a plant cell is put in a solution with a lower water potential than the plant cell?

A
  • water leaves the cell through the partially permeable membrane by osmosis.
  • The volume of the plant will decrease.
  • The protoplast will shrink and pull away from the cell wall. The cell is now plasmolysed
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167
Q

what happens if a plant cell is put in a solution with a higher water potential than the plant cell?

A
  • water will enter the plant cell through the partially permeable membrane by osmosis.
  • The volume of the plant cell will increase.
  • The protoplast will expand and push against the cell wall.
  • The cell wall withstands the increased pressure created. The pressure increases until the cell is rigid and firm (turgid). The cell becomes fully inflated with water and no more can enter
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168
Q

what is it called when a plant cell is fully inflated with water and has become rigid and firm?

A

it is called turgid

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169
Q

why is turgidity important for plants?

A

as the effect of all the cells in a plant being firm is to provide support and strength for the plant – making the plant stand upright with its leaves held out to catch sunlight

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170
Q

what happens if plants do not receive enough water?

A

the cells cannot remain rigid and firm (turgid) and the plant wilts

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171
Q

What is active transport?

A

The movement of molecules/ions from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. Active transport requires energy in the form of ATP

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172
Q

Describe the steps of active transport in a cell

A

1)Ions bind to receptors on the carrier protein.

2) A molecule of ATP binds to the carrier protein.

3) The ATP undergoes hydrolysis, producing phosphate and a molecule of ADP.

4) The phosphate now attaches to the carrier protein and causes it to change shape.

5)This shape change causes the carrier protein to transport the molecule or ion to the other side of the membrane where it is released.

6)The phosphate now unbinds from the carrier protein, causing the carrier protein to return to its original shape.

7) The ADP and phosphate will later reform ATP during respiration.

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173
Q

What is active transport important in?

A
  • The reabsorption of useful molecules or ions into the blood after filtration into the kidney tubules.
  • The absorption of some products or digestion from the digestive tract
  • The loading of sugar from the photosynthesising cells of leaves into the phloem tissue for transport around the plant.
  • The loading of inorganic ions from the soil into root hairs
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174
Q

What are the 2 forms of bulk transport?

A

Endocytosis and exocytosis

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175
Q

What is bulk transport?

A

The use of active transport to move larger molecules and whole cells that cannot move through channel proteins

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176
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

The process by which the cell surface membrane engulfs material, forming an endocytic vacuole around it.

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177
Q

What are the 2 types of endocytosis?

A

Phagocytosis and pinocytosis

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178
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

When material is taken into a cell in solid form

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179
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

When material is taken into a cell in liquid form

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180
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

When materials are removed from or transported out of the cell in vesicles, which fuse with the cell membrane and release the materials out of the cell out of the cell

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181
Q

What is the role of the ileum in the small intestine?

A

To absorb the molecules produced by digestion. This includes glucose

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182
Q

How does the fact that the membrane of the microvilli is folded into a large number of microvilli help with the rate of diffusion and the rate of active transport?

A

This increases the surface area of the membrane, providing more space for the membranes needed for facilitated diffusion and active transport. So, both of their rates are increased.

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183
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Biological catalysts that increase the rate of reactions in living organisms

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184
Q

What reaction does catalase catalyse?

A

The breakdown of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen

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185
Q

What reaction does amylase catalyse?

A

The breakdown of starch into maltose

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186
Q

What reaction does trypsin catalyse?

A

The breakdown of proteins into peptides and amino acids

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187
Q

What is the induced fit model?

A

The idea that the tertiary structure of the active site actually changes as the substrate molecule binds with the enzyme. As the substrate starts to form bonds with the amino acids in the active site, the tertiary structure of the enzyme adjusts so that the active site moulds itself tightly around the substrate. This change in the tertiary structure of the enzyme ensures that the active site fits perfectly into the substrate.

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188
Q

What is Q10?

A

The temperature coefficient

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189
Q

What is the equation for the temperature coefficient?

A

Temperature coefficient= rate of reaction at temperature X at 10 degrees / rate of reaction at temperature X

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190
Q

What does the pH of a solution depend on?

A

The concentration of hydrogen ions (H+)

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191
Q

How do you workout the pH on a calculator?

A

pH = - log[H+]

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192
Q

How does a competitive inhibitor reduce the rate of reaction?

A

-The competitive inhibitor prevents the actual substrate from colliding with the active site.

-This reduces the frequency of successful collisions between the substrate and the active site.

-So less ESC’s are made and the reaction rate is lower.

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193
Q

What is succinate the substrate for?

A

An enzyme involved in respiration

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194
Q

What competitive inhibitor has a similar structure to succinate?

A

Malonate

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195
Q

What does malonate slow down the rate of?

A

Respiration

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196
Q

What is the name of a molecule that competes with substrate molecules for the active site?

A

A competitive inhibitor

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197
Q

Give 2 examples of competitive inhibitors

A

Methotrexate, which is a reversible competitive inhibitor used to treat certain cancers

Penicillin, which is an irreversible competitive inhibitor used to treat bacterial infections

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198
Q

Where do non competitive inhibitors bind?

A

To the allosteric site

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199
Q

What happens to the enzyme when the non competitive inhibitor bonds to the allosteric site?

A

The tertiary structure of the enzyme changes. This results in the shape of the active site changing and so the active site is no longer complementary to the substrate

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200
Q

Why do non competitive inhibitors reduce the rate of reaction?

A

Because they change the shape of the active site and so the substrate can no longer bond to the active site and form an ESC.

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201
Q

what is important in regulating metabolic pathways in cells?

A

End product inhibition

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202
Q

What is a metabolic pathway?

A

A series of reactions, all catalysed by enzymes

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203
Q

What type of cell division occurs in yeast?

A

Budding

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204
Q

What types of cells are found in the phloem?

A
  • Sieve plates
  • Companion cell
  • Parenchyma
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205
Q

Discuss the ways in which genetic variation is produced, including the role of nuclear division

A
  • Independent assortment of homologous chromosomes in metaphase 1, which allows for homologous chromosomes to have different alleles.
  • Crossing over in Prophase 1, so that chromatids will have a new combination of alleles.
  • Mutations, as they allow for changes in the DNA when DNA checks don’t recognise the damage.
  • Fertilisation produces a large number of allele combinations as gametes aren’t genetically identical.
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206
Q

When does independent assortment occur in meiosis?

A
  • Metaphase I
  • Metaphase II
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207
Q

why does meiosis need to have twice as many stages as mitosis?

A
  • because the chromosome number needs to be halved from 46 to 23.
  • because the homologous pairs of chromosomes and sister chromatids need to be separated.
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208
Q

What feature of the DNA molecule is changed as a result of a mutation?

A

The sequence of bases

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209
Q

what are the effects a mutation can have on the structure and the function of a protein?

A
  • can change the primary, secondary or tertiary structure of a protein.
  • The protein could be shorter due to a deletion or longer due to an insertion.
  • The protein could also remain unchanged due to a silent mutation.
  • The function of the protein could either be worse or better than before.
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210
Q

Describe how the cells in a multicellular organism are organised

A
  • Cells undergo differentiation and become specialised.
  • A group of cells work together to form a tissue.
  • A group of tissues work together to form an organ.
  • A group of organs work together to form an organ system.
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211
Q

Why must the genetic material replicate before the division of the nucleus of the cell?

A

So that the daughter cells have all the identical genetic material.

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212
Q

What is a homologous pair of chromosomes?

A
  • They have the same genes.
  • The centromere is in the same position.
  • They pair up in meiosis to form a bivalent.
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213
Q

What is a tissue?

A

A group of specialised cells working together to perform a particular function.

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214
Q

Whay cells are xylem made up of?

A

Vessel cells

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215
Q

What type of cells are phloem made up of?

A

Sieve tube elements, companion cells

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216
Q

How are the products of meiosis different from the peoducts of mitosis?

A
  • In meiosis the cells produced aren’t genetically identical .
  • In meiosis, haploid cells are produced ans they only contain 23 chromosomes.
  • Meiosis produces gametes.
  • Meiosis produces 4 cells
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217
Q

What happens during interphase?

A
  • Genetic material is copied.
  • DNA is checked for errors.
  • Protein synthesis.
  • Synthesis of more organelles.
  • ATP production.
  • Cell increases in size.
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218
Q

How is cell division in plants different to cell division in animals?

A
  • In plants, cell plate forms between 2 new cells.
  • in plants, cytokinesis starts from the middle of the cell.
  • in plants, cell division only occurs in the merristem.
  • no centrioles involved in the cell division of plant cells.
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219
Q

Describe the process of budding yeast

A
  • Mitosis occurs.
  • The cell bulges.
  • The nucleus moves into the bulge
  • Cytokinesis occurs and a new cell wall forms
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220
Q
A
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221
Q

State two other roles of mitosis in multicellular organisms.

A
  • asexual reproduction
  • growth and repair of tissues
  • development of body plan
  • proliferation of white blood cells
  • producing gametes from haploid cells
  • production of new stem cells.
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222
Q

Is the nucleolus visible in prophase?

A

No

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223
Q

what do opsonins do?

A

they bind to the antigen on a pathogen and make it easier for a phagocyte to bind.

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224
Q

are adult stem cells multipotent?

A

Yes

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225
Q

how thick are squamous epithelial cells?

A

one cell thick

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226
Q

2

A
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227
Q

Mitotic index = ?

A

Mitotic index = (the number of cells in mitosis/ the total number of cells) X 100

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228
Q

How does the crossing over of chromatids ensure genetic variation?

A
  • The chromosomes of homologous pairs come together.
  • In Prophase 1, the chromatids cross over.
  • One chromosome from each homologous pair ends up in each cell.
  • Each cell has a different chromatid and therefore a different set of alleles, which increases the genetic variation in the offspring.
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229
Q

How does the independent assortment of chromosomes ensure genetic variation?

A
  • Each homologous pair of chromosomes is made up of a maternal and paternal chromosome.
  • When the homologous pairs line up on the equator in Metaphase I and are separated in Anaphase I, it’s completely random which chromosome from each pair ends up in which daughter cell.
  • So, the 4 daughter cells produced by meiosis have completely different combinations of those maternal and paternal chromosomes.
  • This is called independent assortment (separation) of the chromosomes.
  • This ‘shuffling’ of chromosomes leads to genetic variation in any potential offspring.
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230
Q

Where does crossing over occur in meiois?

A

prophase 1

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231
Q

Where does independent assortment occur in meiosis?

A

metaphase 1 and 2

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232
Q

do small organisms have a low or high surface area to volume ratio?

A

A high surface area to volume ratio

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233
Q

what is the surface of an insect covered with?

A

An exoskeleton

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234
Q

What is an insects exoskeleton make out of?

A

The polysaccharide chitin

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235
Q

Why do insects need spiracles on their exoskeleton?

A

So that gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide can diffuse into the insect

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236
Q

What do the spiracles lead to ?

A

The trachea

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237
Q

What are walls of the trachea in insects made up of?

A

Chitin

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238
Q

What are walls of the trachea in animals made up of?

A

cartilage

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239
Q

Why is there a short diffusion distance between the tracheoles and the insects cells?

A

-because tracheoles have a narrow diameter

-because tracheoles are extremely close to cells

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240
Q

Why does water from the tracheal fluid move into the insect cells during intense activity?

A

-Because during intense activity, cells around the tracheoles
undergo anaerobic respiration and this produces lactic acid.

-This lowers the water potential of the cells and causes water to move from the tracheoles into the cells by osmosis.

-This reduces the volume of the tracheal fluid, drawing air down into the tracheoles

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241
Q

what is a significant problem faced by insects?

A

Water loss

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242
Q

What is each spiracle surrounded by ?

A

A muscular sphincter

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243
Q

how are the gill lamellae adapted for the efficient diffusion of gases?

A
  • they have a massive surface area for diffusion to occur
  • there’s a very short diffusion distance between the walls of the lamellae and the bloodstream
  • gill lamellae have an extensive network of capillaries
  • The counter current exchange system
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244
Q

Describe the counter current exchange system

A
  • Water and blood move in opposite directions
  • Blood with a low concentration of oxygen passes into the capillaries of the gill lamellae
  • As the blood passes through the gill lamellae, oxygen diffuses from the water into the blood
  • Oxygenated blood passes out of the gill lamellae and leaves the gills
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245
Q

what is the major advantage of the counter current exchange system?

A

A steep concentration gradient is always maintained

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246
Q

Describe how bony fish maintain constant water flow through the gas exchange system

A
  • A bony fish opens its mouth and water flows into the buccal cavity (the mouth space)
  • The floor of the buccal cavity lowers and increases the volume available for water
  • The fish then shuts the operculum and this increases the volume of the opercular cavity
  • Due to the increased volume, the pressure in the opercular cavity falls and the floor of the buccal cavity moves upwards.
  • This increases the pressure of water and so the water moves down a pressure gradient and flows over the gills in the opercular cavity.
  • Now, the fish closes its mouth and opens the operculum.
  • The sides of the opercular cavity squeeze inwards on the water.
  • This increases the pressure of water and forces it out of the operculum
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247
Q

What are the 2 main adaptations of the trachea?

A
  • The walls of the trachea contain cartilage. This prevents the walls of the trachea from collapsing when we inhale
  • The trachea walls are lined with ciliated epithelia and goblet cells
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248
Q

what do the elastic fibres between the alveoli do during breathing?

A

they stretch and recoil

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249
Q

What happens during inhalation?

A
  • The intercostal muscles contract
  • The diaphragm contracts and flattens
  • The volume of the thorax increases
  • Air pressure in the lungs decreases
  • Because air pressure in the lungs is now less than atmospheric pressure, air is drawn into the lungs
  • Air consequently moves into the alveoli
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250
Q

What happens during exhalation?

A
  • The intercostal muscles relax
  • The diaphragm relaxes and becomes domed
  • The volume of the thorax decreases
  • Now, the air pressure in the lungs is greater than atmospheric pressure and so air is pushed out of the lungs
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251
Q

What is mass transport?

A

When molecules are carried in a transport medium, such as blood, through a circulatory system

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252
Q

Describe a single circulatory system

A

Blood only passes through the heart once in a single circuit

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253
Q

What’s a major problem with a single circulatory system?

A

Oxygen is delivered to the body cells a lot slower

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254
Q

Describe a double circulatory system

A

Blood passes through the heart twice in a single circuit. This ensures that blood moves to the body tissues rapidly and under high pressure

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255
Q

What is a closed circulatory system?

A

Where the blood is contained in blood vessels

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256
Q

What are the advantages of a closed circulatory system?

A
  • The blood can move rapidly
  • Oxygen can be delivered to respiring tissues quicker and carbon dioxide can be removed from the body quicker
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257
Q

Do insects have an open or closed circulatory system?

A

They have an open circulatory system

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258
Q

What do insects contain instead of blood?

A

A fluid called haemolymph

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259
Q

What does haemolymph carry?

A

Nutrients such as sugars, but not oxygen

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260
Q

Is the blood in the left side of the heart oxygenated or deoxygenated?

A

Oxygenated

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261
Q

Is the blood in the right side of the heart oxygenated or deoxygenated?

A

Deoxygenated

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262
Q

Describe the structure of an artery

A
  • Very thick walls to allow the artery to withstand high pressure
  • Collagen rich outer layer , which strengthens the artery wall against the pressure of the blood
  • Smooth muscle layer. When this layer contracts, the diameter of the artery narrows and this allows the body to control how much blood flows to different organs
  • elastic layer that is rich in elastic fibres. This allows the artery to recoil and stretch
  • Lumen is lined with endothelial cells which allows for a very smooth surface and reduces friction
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263
Q

Describe the structure of an arteriole

A

-Collagen layer and the elastin layer are thinner than that of the arteries

-Thicker smooth muscle later than arteries because they control blood flow into the capillaries

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264
Q

Describe the structure of the capillaries

A

-Have a wall that is one cell thick allowing greater time for the diffusion of molecules to occur

-Capillary lumen is only slight bigger than the lumen of the red blood cells. This means that red blood cells can move slowly and in single file through the capillaries, allowing for more time for the diffusion of molecules to occur

-Capillaries have pores in their walls. These gaps allow tissue fluid to pass out of the blood. They also allow the white blood cells to leave the bloodstream

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265
Q

Describe the structure of veins

A

-Have thin walls because veins don’t have to withstand high pressure

-Large lumen to carry a great volume of blood

-Thinner elastic fibre layer because blood is under low pressure so veins don’t need to stretch and recoil

-Lumen has an internal lining of endothelial cells to create a smooth surface that reduces the friction between the blood and the wall of the vein

-Valves to ensure that there’s no backflow and that blood moves in the right direction

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266
Q

Describe the movement of fluid in and out of the capillary

A
  • at the arterial end of the capillaries, hydrostatic pressure was greater than oncotic pressure, so fluid moves out of the capillary
  • At the venous end of the capillary, hydrostatic pressure was lower than oncotic pressure , so fluid moves into the capillaries by osmosis
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267
Q

What happens to tissue fluid that isn’t reabsorbed back into the blood?

A

This fluid drains into lymph capillaries and becomes lymph fluid

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268
Q

Do lymph vessels have valves?

A

Yes

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269
Q

What adaptations do red blood cells have for transporting oxygen?

A

-Biconcave shape, to give a large surface area to carry the maximum amount of oxygen possible.

-Contains lots of haemoglobin.

-No nucleus to give more space for haemoglobin

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270
Q

How many polypeptide chains does haemoglobin have?

A

4

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271
Q

What is each of the 4 polypeptide chains in haemoglobin bound to?

A

A prosthetic group called haem

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272
Q

Which iron ion does haem contain?

A

Fe2+

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273
Q

How many molecules of oxygen can one haemoglobin molecule bind to?

A

1 and as oxygen is diatomic, haemoglobin binds to 8 oxygen atoms altogether

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274
Q

What is on the y axis of the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

The percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen

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275
Q

What is on the x axis of the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

The partial pressure of oxygen (Kpa)

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276
Q

At low partial pressures of oxygen…

A

Haemoglobin will have a low affinity for oxygen

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277
Q

Why does the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen increase after one oxygen molecule has bound?

A

Because as one oxygen molecule binds , the polypeptide chain opens, exposing the other 3 haem groups. The affinity of the haem groups for oxygen therefore increases

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278
Q

The partial pressure of oxygen is high in the lungs so..

A

Oxygen readily combines with haemoglobin

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279
Q

The partial pressure of oxygen is low in the tissues so….

A

Oxygen is readily released by haem

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280
Q

What happens when the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is high?

A

Haemoglobin releases oxygen more readily and it’s affinity for oxygen decreases

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281
Q

Is the oxygen dissociation curve shifted to the left or to the right when there’s a high partial pressure of carbon dioxide?

A

The right

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282
Q

What is the Bohr effect?

A

Where a high partial pressure of carbon dioxide causes haemoglobins affinity for oxygen to decrease

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283
Q

Describe the carriage of carbon dioxide in the blood

A
  • The carbon dioxide produced in respiring tissues diffuses into the blood where most of it enters the red blood cells.
  • In the red blood cells, the enzyme carbonic anhydrase catalyses the reaction between carbon dioxide and water.
  • Carbonic acid is produced. Carbonic acid is a weak acid and so dissociate into hydrogen ions and hydrogen carbonate ions.
  • The hydrogen ions can combine with haemoglobin to produce haemoglobinic acid.
  • Hydrogen ions act as a pH Buffer and when haemoglobinic acid is formed, the haemoglobin is forced to drop some of the oxygen it’s carrying
  • Some of the carbon dioxide that enters the red blood cells doesn’t undergo the process described above and instead combines directly with haemoglobin to form carbaminohaemoglobin
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284
Q

How is fetal haemoglobin different to adult haemoglobin?

A

Fetal haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin . This increases the oxygen transfer across the placenta from the mother to the baby

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285
Q

Does carbon dioxide from the foetus diffuse into the maternal blood?

A

Yes. This carbon dioxide lowers the oxygen affinity of the maternal haemoglobin

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286
Q

In which 3 ways is carbon dioxide transported around the body?

A

-Dissolved in the blood plasma

-Carried as carbaminohaemoglobin in red blood cells

-as hydrogen carbonate ions in the blood plasma

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287
Q

Do the ventricles have thicker muscular walls than the atria?

A

Yes

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288
Q

What are the atria separated from the ventricles by?

A

The atrioventricular valves (AV valves)

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289
Q

What is the left AV valve called?

A
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290
Q

What is the right AV valve called?

A

The tricuspid valve

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291
Q

What does the septum do?

A

It prevents any blood from passing directly between the 2 sides of the heart

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292
Q

What does the superior vena cava?

A

Brings blood from the head and other parts of the body back to the heart

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293
Q

What does the inferior Vena Cava do?

A

It brings deoxygenated blood back to the heart from lower parts of the body

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294
Q

why is the heart myogenic?

A

Because it triggers its own heartbeat- no external factors come to play

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295
Q

What is another name for the pacemaker?

A

The SAN

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296
Q

What is another name for the SAN?

A

The pacemaker

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297
Q

What happens when the cells in the SAN become electrically excited?

A

A wave of electrical excitement spreads across the atria and this causes the atria to contract

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298
Q

What is the contraction of the atria called?

A

Atria systole.

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299
Q

What is the AVN connected to?

A

Conducting fibres called Purkyne fibres

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300
Q

What is the Bundle of His?

A

Where the Purkyne fibres are bundled together

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301
Q

Where do the Purkyne fibres run down to ?

A

The apex

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302
Q

What happens after the AVN detects the electrical excitation passing over the atria?

A

The AVN then transmits the electrical excitation down to the Purkyne fibres. This electrical excitation causes the ventricles to contract

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303
Q

In which direction do the ventricles contract?

A

From the apex upwards

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304
Q

Why do the ventricles contract from the apex upwards?

A

To ensure that the maximum volume of blood is pumped out of the ventricles

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305
Q

Why is there a slight delay before the AVN triggers a wave of excitation down the Purkyne fibres?

A

To ensure that the ventricles contract after the atria have contracted

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306
Q

Describe the initiation and cooordinatiion of the action of the heart

A

1) A wave of electrical excitation spreads out from the SAN across both the atria. As a result, the atria contract and atrial systole occurs.

2) The electrical wave is stoppepd from passing through to the ventricles by the non consucting atriventricular septum.

3) The AVN picks up the electrical wave and after a short delay, sends an impulse down the bundle of His.

4) The electrical signal is down the bundle of His to the Apex. From the apex, the electrical signal branches into smaller Purkyne fibres,

5) Both ventricles contract from the ventricles upwards. This is ventricular systole.

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307
Q

What is the cardiac cycle?

A

The different steps involved in producing a single heartbeat

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308
Q

What does systole mean?

A

Contracting

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309
Q

What does diastole mean?

A

Relaxing

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310
Q

Describe the cardiac cycle

A

1) Blood flows into the atria through the vena cava and the pulmonary vein. This causes the pressure in the atria to rise.

2) At a certain point, the pressure in the atria is greater than the pressure in the ventricles.

3) This causes the Atrioventricular valves to open, allowing blood to flow down the atria and into the ventricles.

4) The atria then contract and atrial systole takes place. This pushes the remaining blood from the atria and to the ventricles

5) The ventricles then contract and enter ventricular systole. The pressure in the ventricles now rises rapidly and because the ventricular pressure is now greater than the atrial pressure, the atrioventricular valves close.

6) This prevents any blood from moving back into the atria from the ventricles

7) The semilunar valves in the aorta and pulmonary artery are also open. So blood is pumped from the ventricles and out of the heart .

8) Finally, the ventricles relax and enter ventricular diastole

9) At some point, the pressure in the ventricles falls below the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta. This causes the semilunar valves to shut and this prevents blood from flowing back into the ventricles.

10) The heart is now ready to enter the next cardiac cycle

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311
Q

What does ECG stand for?

A

Electrocardiogram

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312
Q

What does the P wave on an ECG trace show?

A

The contraction of the atria/ atrial systole

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313
Q

What does the QRS wave on an ECG trace show?

A

The contraction of the ventricles/ ventricular systole

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314
Q

What does the T wave on an ECG trace show?

A

the relaxation of the ventricles/ ventricular disastole

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315
Q

What is the heart rate?

A

Heart beats per minute

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316
Q

What is an ectopic heartbeat?

A

When it feels as though the herat has missed a beat

317
Q

What is the cardiac output?

A

The volume of blood pumped into the circulatory system in one minute

318
Q

What is the stroke volume?

A

The volume of blood pumped out of a ventricle during each contraction

319
Q

What is a typical stroke volume?

A

Around 70cm^3

320
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output?

A

Cardiac output (cm^3/min) = heart rate(bom) X stroke volume (cm^3)

321
Q

What is the tidal volume?

A

The volume of air inhaled/exhaled during regular breathing

322
Q

Q

What is the vital capacity?

A

The maximum volume of air inhaled/exhaled in 1 breath

323
Q

Why is there always resdiual volume left behind in the lungs?

A

Because the lungs can’t be completely compressed

324
Q

What does the smooth muscle do?

A

It constricts the airway and controls the flow of air

325
Q

What do the elastic fibres do?

A

They stretch and recoil

326
Q

How do you use a spirometer to measure the rate of oxygen uptake?

A
  • You measure the volume of oxygen used in a given time
  • You draw a line along the tips of peaks/troughs
  • Divide volume by time taken
327
Q

Why is a nose clip used when using a spirometer?

A

To ensure all the air breathed comes from the air chamber

328
Q

What effect might tachycardia have on the heart?

A

-Less blood will leave the heart because ventricles won’t have time to fill before contracting

329
Q

Why doesn’t tissue fluid contain erythrocytes?

A

because the erythrocytes are too big too fit through the pores in the capillary walls

330
Q

Describe the role of haemoglobin in transporting oxygen around the body

A
  • Haemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen
  • Oxygen binds to haemoglobin in the lungs.This forms oxyhaemoglobin
  • The oxygen is released in respiring tissues
331
Q
A
332
Q

Describe the pressure changes in the blood as it flows through the circulatory system from the aorta to the veins?

A

-The pressure drops as the distance from the heart increases

  • The greatest pressure drop is while the blood is in the arteries
  • The pressure remains constant in the veins
333
Q

What causes the overall changes in pressure as blood flows from the aorta to the arteries and from the arteries to the capillaries?

A
  • blood flows into a larger number of vessels
  • the total cross-sectional area of the arteries is greater than the aorta
  • the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the arteries
334
Q
A
335
Q
A
336
Q
A
337
Q

Explain why it’s important that the pressure changes as blood flows from the aorta to the capillaries?

A

Because the capillary wall is thin and it can’t withstand the high pressure

338
Q

do multicellular plants have a high or low surface area to volume ratio?

A

They have a low surface area to volume ratio

339
Q

Why can’t multicellular organisms rely on diffusion alone for the transport of molecules?

A

Because they have a low surface area to volume ratio

340
Q

What are the products of photosynthesis?

A

Oxygen and glucose

341
Q

What are the reactants used in aerobic respiration?

A

Oxygen and glucose

342
Q

How can the metabolic rate of an organism be measured?What different apparatus can be used to measure the metabolic rate in organisms?

A

-Oxygen consumption
-Carbon dioxide production
-Heat production

343
Q

What different apparatus can be used to measure the metabolic rate in organisms?

A

-Respirometers
-Oxygen/carbon dioxide probes
-Calorimeters

344
Q

What 4 things do effective exchange surfaces have?

A

-A large surface area
-Short diffusion distance
-Good blood supply
-Ventilation mechanism

345
Q

What are the 2 mass transport systems in plants?

A

The xylem and the phloem

346
Q

What is the embryonic seed in leaves called?

A

Cotyledon

347
Q

What happens to the cotyledon when a seed germinates?

A

The cotyledon unfurls, allowing the seed to carry out photosynthesis

348
Q

What is an example of a plant that only has one cotyledon?

A

Grass

349
Q

What are plants with only one cotyledon called?

A

monocotyledonous

350
Q

What are plants with 2 cotyledons called?

A

dicotyledonous

351
Q

What is an example of a plant that has 2 cotyledons?

A

Trees

352
Q

Are trees and shrubs examples of woody dicotyledonous plants?

A

Yes

353
Q

describe woody dicotyledonous plants?

A

They’re long-lived and have a woody stem

354
Q

Describe herbaceous plants

A

they’re often fast growing and can be short-lived. unlike woody plants, they don’t have a woody stem

355
Q

What are the 2 different transport systems in plants?

A

The xylem and the phloem

356
Q

What does the xylem do?

A

it carries water and mineral ions from the roots of the plant up the stem to the leaves

357
Q

what does the phloem do ?

A

The phloem transports organic molecules around a plant , from the source to the sink

358
Q

are the xylem vessels and phloem vessels grouped together in vascular bundles?

A

Yes

359
Q

is the arrangement of the vascular bundles the same in the roots, stem and leaves, or different?

A

Different

360
Q

What is the centre of the root called?

A

The stele

361
Q

In the roots where can the vascular bundle be found?

A

In the centre of the root (the stele)

362
Q

where do the root hair cells in a root grow from?

A

A layer of external tissue called the epidermis

363
Q

What does the cortex contain?

A

parenchyma cells

364
Q

What is the vascular bundle in the root surrounded by?

A

A layer of cells called the endodermis

365
Q

In the vascular bundle in the root, are the xylem vessels or phloem vessels in the centre of the root?

A

The xylem vessels are in the centre of the vascular bundle. (The phloem vessels surround the xylem)

366
Q

how does the fact that xylem vessels are mechanically strong help the plant (in the root) ?

A

The xylem vessels are grouped together in the centre of the root and this prevents the root from being pulled out of the soil by strong winds

367
Q

are xylem vessels mechanically strong?

A

Yes

368
Q

how is the vascular bundle arranged in the stem?

A

The vascular bundles are arranged in a ring around the edge of the stem

369
Q

What is the centre of the plant stem called?

A

The pith, which consists of parenchyma cells

370
Q

What does the pith consist of?

A

parenchyma cells

371
Q

What’s around the edge of the stem?

A

The epidermis and the cortex

372
Q

in the vascular bundle in the stem, where is the phloem found?

A

around the edge of the stem

373
Q

in the vascular bundle in the stem, where is the xylem found?

A

closer to the centre of the stem

374
Q

What does the vascular bundle being closer to the edge of the stem help with?

A

helps the stem to withstand bending due to the wind

375
Q

where in a leaf is the vascular bundle found?

A

In the midrib. This helps with transport in the leaf and helps support the leaf

376
Q

is the leaf also supported by smaller vascular bundles connected to the main one?

A

Yes

377
Q

in the vascular bundle of a leaf, where is the xylem found?

A

at the upper part of the vascular bundle

378
Q

in the vascular bundle of a leaf, where is the phloem found?

A

at the lower part of the vascular bundle

379
Q

Where in the leaf does photosynthesis take place?

A

In the palisade mesophyll, which is in the upper half of the leaf

380
Q

what cells does the xylem consist of?

A

Tracheids and xylem vessel elements,which are both types of water- conducting cells

381
Q

what is the function of lignified cell walls in the xylem vessel elements (mature cells)?

A

Adds strength to withstand the hydrostatic pressure so that the vessels don’t collapse

382
Q

what is the point of xylem vessel elements having no end plates?

A

Because this allows the mass flow of water and dissolved solutes as cohesive (between water molecules) and adhesive forces (between water molecules and the walls) aren’t impeded.

383
Q

what is the point of the xylem vessel elements having no protoplasm?(with organelles)

A

The organelles don’t get in the way of the mass flow of water and dissolved solutes (the transpiration stream )

384
Q

what is the point of xylem vessel elements having pits in their walls?

A

This allows for the continual flow of water, in the case of air bubbles forming in the vessels

385
Q

are xylem vessels living tissue or non living tissue?

A

Non-living tissue

386
Q

Can organic substances(glucose) be transported both up and down the phloem ?

A

Yes

387
Q

What is the fluid moving in the phloem referred to as?

A

Phloem sap

388
Q

Is phloem made up of living or dead tissue?

A

Living

389
Q

What 2 different cells does the phloem consist of?

A

Sieve tube elements and companion cells (also parenchyma for storage and strengthening fibres)

390
Q

How are the sieve tube elements in the phloem arranged?

A

They consist of a long line of cells arranged end to end

391
Q

What do the insides of sieve tube elements look like?

A

Almost all of the organelles have been lost , including the nucleus and the vacuole

392
Q

Why do sieve tube elements have almost no organelles?

A

So that they have enough space to transport phloem sap and assimilates

393
Q

Why are the end walls of sieve tube elements modified to contain large pores called the sieve plate?

A

to allow for the continuous movement of organic molecules

394
Q

Why can’t sieve tube elements produce large amounts of essential molecules such as ATP?

A

because they’ve lost almost all of their organelles

395
Q

what organelles do companion cells contain?

A

A nucleus and large amounts of mitochondria

396
Q

why do companion cells have a large amount of mitochondria?

A

To provide ATP for the active transport of assimilates into or out of companion cells

397
Q

What links the companion cell to the sieve tube elements?

A

The plasmodesmata

398
Q

What is the role of the companion cells?

A

to provide essential molecules to the sieve tube elements cells.

399
Q

why do companion cells have transport proteins in their plasma membrane?

A

To move assimilates in and out of the sieve tube elements

400
Q

where on the root hair cell do root hairs grow?

A

from the epidermis of the root hair cell (the outer layer)

401
Q

does water move into the root hairs via osmosis or via active transport?

A

Osmosis

402
Q

Where does water move after it has entered the roots?

A
  • From the root hair cells
  • through the root cortex
  • and to the xylem
403
Q

Which 2 pathways can water move through the cortex?

A

the symplast pathway and the apoplast pathway

404
Q

Describe the symplast path way in the roots

A

water moves from the cytoplasm of one cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell. To do this, water moves through the plasmodesmata that links the adjacent cells. (osmosis )

405
Q

What is the plasmodesmata?

A

Microscopic channels through the cell wall that connects the cytoplasm of cells

406
Q

What is the symplast pathway drive by?

A

the water potential gradient between the root hair cells and the xylem

407
Q

is the water potential of the root hair cells greater than the water potential of the cortex cells?

A

yes

408
Q

is the symplast pathway quick or slow?

A

relatively slow

409
Q

why is the symplast pathway relatively slow?

A

because the pathway for water in the cytoplasm is obscured by the organelles

410
Q

describe the apoplast pathway in the roots

A

water moves between cell walls and the spaces between the cells by diffusion

411
Q

what is the idea that water molecules are attracted to each other called?

A

Attraction cohesion

412
Q

Why does attraction cohesion occur?

A

Because water molecules can form hydrogen bonds with each other and as water moves into the xylem and is carried away, more water moves along the apoplast pathway due to cohesion

413
Q

which offers the least resistance to water flow- the symplast system or the apolast system?

A

The apoplast system

414
Q

what runs around the cell wall of the endodermis of the root?

A

The casparian strip

415
Q

What is the casparian strip?

A

waterproof and prevents water from moving through the apoplast pathway. Instead the water moves through the symplast pathway. This allows the cell membrane to control which substances can enter the xylem

416
Q

What do cells in the endodermis of the root hair cell use to pump mineral ions into the xylem?

A

active transport

417
Q

What happens when cells in the endodermis of the root hair cell pump mineral ions into the xylem?

A

the water potential of the xylem is lowered and water is triggered to move into the xylem by osmosis

418
Q

Is root pressure an active or passive process?

A

It’s an active process, requiring energy from respiration

419
Q

what happens to root pressure when you inhibit respiration using a metabolic poison such as cyanide OR when you prevent aerobic respiration by excluding oxygen?

A

Root pressure stops

420
Q

What does the waxy cuticle do?

A

It reduces water loss from the surface of the leaf by evaporation

421
Q

what is the pulling effect of water on xylem vessels called?

A

Tension

422
Q

what is the transpiration stream?

A

The movement of water from the roots, up the xylem and out of the leaf

423
Q

Can water form hydrogen bonds with molecules in the xylem vessel walls such as carbohydrates?

A

Yes and this attraction is called adhesion

424
Q

What can be used to measure the rate of water uptake into a plant?

A

A potometer

425
Q

What does a potometer consist of?

A

A fine capillary tube which is filled with water. The tube is connected to a plant which has been cut at the stem. The capillary tube is also connected to a syringe filled with water.

426
Q

How can you measure the rate of water uptake by a plant using a potometer?

A

By measuring how far the air bubble moves in a given time

427
Q

What are the 2 key features of guard cells?

A

-the cellulose cell wall on the inner side of the guard cell is thicker than on the rest of the cell

-some of the cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall are arranged in ring shapes

428
Q

what do light conditions trigger to move into the guard cells?

A

solutes such as the potassium ion K +. This lowers the water potential of the interior of the guard cells.

429
Q

What happens after light triggers solutes to move into the guard cell?

A

Because the water potential of the guard cell has been lowered, water now moves into the guard cells by osmosis and this causes the guard cells to swell. The guard cells are now turgid

430
Q

What prevents the guard cells from expanding width-wise when water enters?

A

The rings of cellulose. So the guard cells expand lengthwise instead

431
Q

does increasing humidity of the air outside of a leaf increase or reduce the rate of transpiration?

A

Decreases the rate of transpiration because there’s a smaller concentration gradient and so there’s no net loss of water vapour from the leaves

432
Q

why does increasing the temperature increase the rate of transpiration?

A

Because at higher temperatures, water molecules have more kinetic energy. So, molecules will move faster out of the leaf

433
Q

why does air movement, such as wind, increase the rate of transpiration?

A

because air movements increase the concentration gradient of water vapour

434
Q

Why can the rate of transpiration also be affected by the level of water in the soil?

A

Because in drought conditions, the root of a plant produces a hormone. This hormone triggers the stomata to close . this reduces the rate of transpiration and reduces water lost by a plant

435
Q

what are xerophytes

A

plants which are adapted to hot, dry conditions

436
Q

What are 2 examples of xerophytes?

A

Cacti and marram grass

437
Q

why do cacti have spines?

A

-because this reduces the surface area to volume ratio of the cactus and so reduces the rate of diffusion of water from the plant.

  • The spines also trap moist air near the cactus, reducing the humidity and the rate of transpiration
438
Q

what does sunken stomata help with?

A

This traps a layer of moist air around the stomata, increasing humidity, decreasing water potential gradient, and decreasing rate of transpiration

439
Q

why do cacti have extensive shallow roots?

A

this allows the cacti to absorb water from lower levels of the soil

440
Q

what are plants that can store water in their stem called?

A

Succulents

441
Q

where are the stomata in maram grass found?

A

In sunken pits, with fine hairs projecting inwards towards the centre, ensures that moist air is trapped around the stomata, reduces conc gradient

442
Q

which is more reactive- glucose or sucrose?

A

Glucose

443
Q

what are molecules such as sucrose that are made as a result of photosynthesis called ?

A

Assimilates

444
Q

what is the transport of assimilates around a plant called?

A

Translocation

445
Q

assimilates are transported from sources to what?

A

Sinks

446
Q

What are sources?

A

Where the assimilates are produced

447
Q

what are examples of sources?

A

Photosynthesising leaves and storage organs e.g tubers

448
Q

what are sinks?

A

Regions where assimilates are required

449
Q

What is an example of a sink?

A

The roots and shoots

450
Q

Why are the roots an example of a sink?

A

Because the roots carry out active transport and require the assimilate glucose for respiration

451
Q

When can storage organs act as sinks?

A

When they’re refilling their carbohydrate stores

452
Q

Describe translocation

A
  • Proton pumps actively transport hydrogen ions out of the companion cell using active transport.
  • This increases the proton concentration outside the companion cells.
  • This creates a concentration gradient of hydrogen ions and so the hydrogen ions now diffuse through a co transporter protein, down the concentration gradient, and back into the cell. Whilst sucrose diffuses into the companion cell through the cotransporter protein.
  • The sucrose now diffuses through the plasmodesmata from the companion cells and into the sieve tube element cells.
  • This reduces the water potential of the sieve tube element cells. So, water moves into the sieve tube element by osmosis from nearby tissues such as the xylem.
  • This increases the hydrostatic pressure inside the sieve tube element, so the phloem sap now moves down the sieve tube element and towards the sink.
  • This bulk movement of phloem sap is called mass flow .
  • At the sink, the sucrose moves out of the sieve tube element and is converted to glucose for use in respiration. Or, converted to starch.
453
Q

xylem…

Where is the xylem located in the roots?

A

In the centre

454
Q

Where is the phloem located in the roots?

A

surrounding the outside of the xylem

455
Q

Where in the stems is the xylem located?

A

closer to the middle

456
Q

Where in the stem is the phloem located?

A

outside the xylem

457
Q

Where in the leaf is the xylem located?

A

on the

458
Q

Where in the leaf is the phloem located?

A

on the inside

459
Q
A
460
Q
A
461
Q
A
462
Q
A
463
Q

What’s happening at the P wave?

A

The atria are contracting

464
Q

What’s happening at the QRS wave?

A

the ventricles are contracting (depolarising)

465
Q

What’s happening at the T wave?

A

The ventricles are relaxing

466
Q

Suggest why a bunch of flowers may survive longer if the ends of the stems are removed
immediately before the flowers are placed in water.

A
  • Because air bubbles will be removed.
  • This prevents there being a blockage in the xylem and the continuous column of water in the xylem will be restored
467
Q

Describe and explain how water moves from the roots to the xylem to the leaves

A
  • Water lost from the leaf by transpiration is replaced via the apoplast, symplast and vacuolar pathways.
  • Lost water is replaced by water from the xylem.
  • A pressure gradient is created in the xylem, with there being low hydrostatic pressure at the top of the xylem.
  • Water moves down a pressure gradient and the water is under tension.
  • Cohesion between water molecules and adhesion between water molecules and xylem walls helps water to move up the xylem by mass flow.
  • Water moves up the xylem in a column of water.
468
Q

6

What steps should be taken when setting up a potometer to ensure that the apparatus works correctly?

A
  • Make sure that the shoot is healthy.
  • Assemble the apparatus under water.
  • Cut the end off of the shoot.
  • Check that there are no air bubbles in the apparatus.
  • Make sure that the apparatus is airtight and has no leaks.
  • Make sure that the leaves are dry
469
Q

State the adaptations of xerophytes

A
  • Hairy leaves, to trap water vapour, decrease water potential gradient, and decrease transpiration rate.
  • Stomata in sunken pits, to trap water vapour.
  • Rolled leaves, trap water vapour.
  • Thicker cuticle, is waterproof
  • Fewer stomata, reduces the diffusion of water vapour.
  • Stomata close during the day, to reduce the diffusion of water vapour.
  • Most stomata are on the lower surface of the leaf, so that they experience a lesser exposure to the sun, so stomata will open less for gas exchange.
470
Q

Define a parasite

A
  • Lives on a host
  • Obtains food from the host
  • Harms the host
471
Q

Why is malaria much more common in tropical areas than in other parts of the world?

A

Because the climate is warm enough and suitable for mosquitoes to survive in.

472
Q

What are the differences between globular and fibrous prtoeins?

A
  • Globular proteins are spherical, whilst fibrous proteins are linear.
  • Globular proteins have hydrophilic R groups on the outside, whereas fibrous proteins have hydrophobic R groups on the outside.
  • Globular proteins form hydrogen bonds with water and so are soluble in water, whereas fibrous proteins don’t.
  • Globular prtoeins have a physiological role, whereas fibrous prtoeins have a structural role.
473
Q

Describe how the structure of antibodies allows them to perform their function.

A
  • Have 4 polypeptide chains that are held together by disulfide bridges.
  • Have variable region, which have receptors that are specific and complemetnary in shape to antigens. This allows antibody to bind to complimentary antigens.
  • Have more than one variable region. This allows antibody to attach to more than one antigen, also allows for agglutination to occur.
  • Has constant region, which allows antibody to bind to the phagocyte.
  • Has hinge region, which allows for flexibility of the antibody.

-

474
Q

What is neutralisation?

A
  • Where antibodies bind to toxins and prevent them from binding to the host cell.
475
Q

What is agglutination?

A
  • Where antibodies bind to many pathogens, making them too large to enter the host cell. This increases the likelihood of the pathogens being consumed by the phagocyte.
476
Q

Why are phagocytes described as a secondary defence against pathogens?

A

because they engulf many different pathogens and because they do not have antigen-specific receptors

477
Q

How are phagocytes able to pass from the blood to the tissue fluid?

A
  • Phagocytes have a lobed nucleus and can also change shape. So, they can squeeze through the pores in the capillaries.
478
Q

What can a pathogen be hydrolysed to?

A

amino acids and sugars. These products can then be absorbed into the cytoplasm.

479
Q

What invective agent causes Tuberculosis?

A

M. bovis

480
Q

How does a mosquito trasmit the malarial parasite to a human?

A
  • Mosquito is a vector and so carries the parasite.
  • Plasmodium is present in a mosquitoes salivary gland.
  • The infected mosquito bites a human and plasmodium then passes from the saliva to the blood.
481
Q

Why does the influenza vaccine have to be changed each year?

A

because the virus mutates each year and the antibodies will not match the antigens of the new strain of influenza.

482
Q

What are some differences between the primary and secondary immune response?

A
  • The primary response has a longer delay before the response.
  • The primary response is slower than the secondary response.
  • The primary response produces fewer antibodies than the secondary response.
483
Q

Why aren’t antibiotis used to treat viruses?

A

Because antibiotics are not effective against viruses. They are only effective against bacteria.

484
Q

Suggest why researchers in Nepal concentrated their research on plants that had been used
in traditional medicine.

A
  • Because the plants have already been identified to have medicinal properties and fewer side effects.
  • Because this reduces time and effort in having to find new plants.
  • Could reduce costs.
485
Q

What infective agent causes AIDS?

A

HIV

486
Q

What is meant by the term health?

A

When someone is free from disease and has good nutrition.

487
Q

How does bacteria cause food shortage?

A
  • Bacteria divide and increase in number.
  • Bactera secrete enzymes which digest food. Proteins are broken down into amino acids.
  • Bacteria release toxins which change the taste and smell of the food.
488
Q
A
489
Q

Why does food spoil at higher temperatures?

A
  • Bacteria reproduce faster at higher temperatures, so more bacteria is present at higher temperatures.
  • More toxins will be relased and more enzymes will be secreted.
  • Enzymes work faster at higher temperatures, as they have more kinetic energy and so more ESC’s can be formed, and more food can be broken down.
490
Q

How does salting work as a method of food preservation?

A

It results in there being a lack of water due to osmosis

491
Q

How does sugar work as a method of food preservation?

A

It results in there being a lack of water due to osmosis

492
Q

How does freeze-drying work as a method of food preservation?

A

prevents enzymes from mobilising and impairs intracellular transport

493
Q

How does pickling work as a method of food preservation?

A

the low ph denatures enzymes

494
Q

How does cooking work as a method of food preservation?

A

high temperatures denatures enzymes

495
Q

How does ionising radiation work as a method of food preservation?

A

damages genetic material

496
Q

How does smoking work as a method of food preservation?

A

food becomes exposed to antibacterial chemicals.

497
Q

How does vacuum packing work as a method of food preservation?

A

prevents microorganisms from respiring aerobically

498
Q

How does food being kept in low temperatures in a freezer or a fridge work as a method of food preservation?

A

denatures enzymes

499
Q

Identify the type of immunity provided by antibodies in breast milk.

A

natural passive

500
Q

what is the vector for the malarial parasite?

A

female Anopheles

501
Q

Which human cells does the malarial parasite reproduce in?

A

liver cells and red blood cells

502
Q

Suggest why adults who have survived malaria may lose their immunity when they leave a
malarial area

A
  • They don’t have any further exposure to the parasite so they lose immunological memory
503
Q

How does fossil evidence support the idea that evolution has taken place?

A
  • Fossils show that organisms have changed over time
  • Fossils can be dated.
  • Fossils show intermediate forms
504
Q

What causes variation?

A
  • Mutation
  • The environment
505
Q

What are the characteristics of continuous variation?

A
  • No defined categories.
  • Intermediate values
  • Influenced by environment
  • Quantitative and so has to be measured.
506
Q

Explain why it may become increasingly difficult to discover new drugs in the future.

A

because new drugs often come from plants and biodiversity is redeucing due to destruction of habiatas .

507
Q

-What is the respiratory quotient?

A

The ratio of the volume of Carbon dioxide given out in respiration to the amount of oxygen used in unit time.

508
Q

At what levels can gene expression be controlled at?

A
  • The transcriptional level
  • The post transcriptional level
  • The post-translational level
509
Q

What controls gene expression at the transcriptional level?

A

Transcription factors

510
Q

What are transcription factors?

A

Proteins that bind to DNA and switch genes on or off by increasing or decreasing the rate of transcription.

511
Q

What are the 2 types of transcription factors?

A
  • Activators
  • Repressors
512
Q

What do activators do?

A

they increase the rate of trasncription

513
Q

What do repressors do?

A

They decrease the rate of transcription

514
Q

What determines whether a transcription factor can bind to DNA or not?

A

The shape of the transcription factor

515
Q

In eukaryotes, where do transcription factors bind?

A

They bind to specific DNA sites near the start of their target genes.

516
Q

In prokaryotes, where do transcription factors bind?

A

To operons

517
Q

What is an operon?

A

A cluster of structural genes that are transcribed together, and also control elements and sometimes a regulatory gene.

518
Q
A
519
Q

What do the control elements include?

A
  • A promoter
  • An operator
520
Q

What is a promoter?

A

A DNA sequence located before the structural genes that RNA polymerase binds to

521
Q

What is an operator?

A

A DNA sequence that transcription factors bind to

522
Q
A
523
Q

What does the bacteria E.coli typically respire?

A

Glucose

524
Q

What can the bacteria E.coli respire if glucose isn’t available?

A

Lactose

525
Q

Where are the genes that produce the enzymes needed to respire lactose found?

A

On an operon called the Lac Operon.

526
Q

What 3 structural genes does the lac operon have?

A
  • lac Z
  • lac Y
  • lac A
527
Q

What happens when lactose isn’t present?

A
  • The regulatory gene produces the lac repressor.
  • The lac repressor is a transcription factor that binds to the operator site when there’s no lactose present.
  • This blocks transcription because RNA polymerase can’t bind to the promoter .
528
Q

What happens when lactose is present?

A
  • Lactose binds to the repressor.
  • This changes the repressor’s shape so that the repressor can no longer bind to the operator site.
  • RNA polymerase can now begin the transcription of the structural genes.
529
Q

what structural detail of a polypeptide is altered by gene mutations?

A

the base sequence

530
Q

how is it possible for a mutation to have no effect on the protein produced from that gene?

A
  • Some triplets code for the same amino acid, so the amino acid sequence isn’t altered.
  • Some alternative amino acids will not alter the shape of the protein.
  • The mutation may occur in the intron.
531
Q

How could a mutation alter the protein so that it no longer performs its correct function in the cell?

A
  • An insertion or deletion may result in a frameshift mutation.
  • All triplets downstream will be different.
  • The protein will have a different sequence of amino acids.
  • The tertiary structure of the protein will be different.
532
Q

Describe and explain how a tiger with striped fur may have evolved from a non-striped ancestor.

A
  • This may have occurred by natural selection.
  • There may have been a selection pressure of prey availability.
  • So the adaptation of striped fur may have helped tigers to camoflage and hide from prey.
  • So striped tigers would have had a greater survival probability and so were more likely to reproduce.
  • Advantageous alleles would have been passed on to the next generation.
  • the allele frequency for the
    relevant genes would have
    increased with each generation
    and after many generations, all tigers within a population were striped.
533
Q

What do regulatory genes do?

A

code for proteins that control the expression of structural genes.

534
Q

What do the structural genes do?

A

codes for a protein that has a function within a cell

535
Q

How can transcription be controlled in eukaryotes?

A
  • Hormone enters a cell and binds to a transcription factor.
  • The transcription factor will then be activated and will bind to a promoter.
  • This will allow RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter.
536
Q

How can gene expression be regulated after transcription?

A
  • The primary mRNA is modified.
  • Introns are removed to make mature mRNA.
  • Alternative splicing can produce different versions of mRNA.
537
Q

Why are fruit flies chosen for research into genes controlling the development of the body plan?

A
  • There’s less ethical concerns
  • Low cost
  • Rapid reproduction rate
  • The genetics of fruit flies is well understood.
  • They have a simple body plan

-

538
Q

Why are mice usually used or research into genes controlling the development of the body plan, despite there being some ethical concerns?

A
  • low cost
  • share some genes with humans
  • more than one species is needed to demonstrate the conservation of base sequences.
539
Q

do species that have diverged recently share a similar base sequence?

A

Yes

540
Q

Why do non-coding regions of DNA show more variation?

A
  • Because they are not selected against
541
Q

Do homeobox genes enable proteins to work as transcription factors?

A

Yes

542
Q

WHat does RNA polymerase do?

A
  • makes RNA via transcription
543
Q

What does DNA polymerase do?

A
  • Allows for DNA replicatio, where 2 polypeptide strands are produced.
544
Q

What is programmed cell death?

A

Apoptosis

545
Q

What do hox genes do?

A

They determine the identity of embryonic body regions along the anterior-posterior axis (i.e. the head-tail axis)

546
Q

What is a homeobox gene?

A

A homeotic gene that initiates transcription and controls the development of the body plan.

547
Q

Why has there been little change by mutation in homeobox genes?

A

Because these genes are very important so any mutations are likely to be lethal

548
Q

Which animal kingdoms have similar homeobox genes?

A

Animals, fungi, plants

549
Q

What feature of the DNA molecule is changed as a result of mutation?

A

The order of bases

550
Q

What are the purposes of plant collection in a modern botanic garden?

A
  • Saving endangered plants
  • A gene bank
  • Education
  • Aesthetic value
551
Q

What is the role of PCR?

A

To amplify copies of DNA, at a range of different lenghts

552
Q

What is the role of electropheresis?

A

To put Dna pieces in size order, and to read the order of bases

553
Q

What is the role of the digestion of DNA by restriction enzymes?

A
  • To cut DNA into smaller fragments.
  • To cut vectors
554
Q

Why does a genome have to be fragmented before sequencing?

A
  • Because the genome is too big
  • Fragmenting genomes allows for better accuracy when sequencing, and allows the job to be divided over different labs
555
Q

What is a regulatory gene?

A

A gene that makes transcription factors

556
Q

What is a structural gene?

A

A gene that makes a protein, such as an enzymes

557
Q

What is the relationship between regulatory genes and structural genes?

A

Regualatory genes control the expression of structural genes

558
Q

How is gene expression regulated at the post-translational level?

A
  • Certain molecules, like hormones, bind to cell membranes and trigger the production of cAMP inside the cell.
  • cAMP then activates proteins inside the cell by altering their 3D structure.
  • Altering the 3D structure can change the active site of an active site, making it more or less active.
559
Q

How does cAMP activate PKA?

A
  • cAMP binds to PKA and causes the shape of the enzymes 3D structure to change, releasing the active subunits.
  • PKA is now active
560
Q

Substtitution. Insertion. Deletion

Beneficial. Neutral. Harmful

A
561
Q

What are the 3 main ways a mutation can occur?

A
  • Substitution
  • Insertion
  • Deletion
562
Q

What can form frameshift mutation?

A

Insertion and deletion

563
Q

What is a function of the cerebellum?

A
  • Coordination of posture
564
Q

What is a function of the medulla oblongata?

A
  • control of heart rate
565
Q

What is a function of the hypothalmus?

A
  • control of temperature regulation
566
Q

What is a function of the cerebrum?

A
  • control of speech
567
Q

Somatic nervous system

A
  • voluntary
  • output to skeletal muscles
568
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A
  • involuntary
  • output to smooth muscles and glands
569
Q

Sympatheitc motor system

A
  • ‘fight or flight
  • neurotransmitter = noradrenaline
  • adrenergic system
570
Q

Parasympathetic motor system

A
  • relaxing
  • neurotransmitter = acetycholine
  • cholinergic
571
Q

Good

A

luck!

572
Q

What do exocrine glands do?

A

They secrete substances into a duct

573
Q

What do endocrine glands do?

A

They secrete hormones into the blood

574
Q

What is adenyl cyclase?

A

An enzyme located on the inside of the cell surface membrane

575
Q

Where is adrenaline released from?

A

Adrenal medulla

576
Q

What is a first messenger?

A

A hormone that transmits a signal around the body

577
Q

What does a secondary messenger do?

A

It transmits a signal inside the cell i.e cAMP

578
Q

What cells secrete glucagon?

A

Alpha cells

579
Q

What cells secrete insulin?

A

Beta cells

580
Q

What does thyroxine do?

A

Accelerates metabolism

581
Q

What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

A
  • In type 1 diabetes, insufficient insulin is produced
  • In type 2 diabetes, the body becomes resistant to insulin.
582
Q

What is the difference between hormonal and neuronal communication?

A
  • hormonal: chemical response, slow response, effect lasts longer
  • neuronal: electrical impulse, fast response, effect lasts for a shorter period of time
583
Q

What is the apical bud?

A

The shoot tip at the top of a flowering plant

584
Q

What does auxin do?

A

It stimulates the growth of the apical bud and inhibits the growth of side shoots from lateral buds

585
Q

Where is auxin produced?

A

In the tips and shoots of flowering plants

586
Q

What is auxin used in?

A
  • Weed killers
  • Rooting powders
587
Q

What are the functions of abscisic acid?

A
  • Induced dormancy in some seeds
  • Closes stomata during water shortage
  • Helps defend against the attack of insects
  • Inhibits stem growth in response to water stress
  • Causes the synthesis of some storage proteins in seeds
588
Q

What does ethene do?

A
  • Causes leaves to drop off
  • Speeds up ripening
  • Controls cell division during plant growth
589
Q

What inhibits giberellins ?

A

Abscisic acid

590
Q

What are the uses of giberellins?

A
  • seed germination
  • promotes flowering in long-day plants
  • prevents leaf abscission
  • promotes the activity of amylase
591
Q

What are the functions of cytokinins?

A
  • Induces cell division
  • Causes the growth of lateral buds
  • Causes leaf expansion
  • Delays leaf senescence
  • Promotes cholroplast development in leaves

-

592
Q

What are the uses of cytokinins?

A
  • Used by farmers to increase the yield of crops
593
Q

What is the function of a syringe in a respirometer?

A

To reset the respirometer

594
Q

What is the respiratory quotient?

A

The ratio of the volume of CO2 given out in respiration to the volume of oxygen used in respiration

595
Q

Is cystic fibrosis a mutation?

A

Yes

596
Q

How does cyctic fibrosis affect the phenotype?

A

Cystic fibrosis causes there to be thick mucous in the lungs, and people with cyctic fibrosis are often small in size and have poor digestion

597
Q

why is it important for mammals to be able to detect changes in their internal environment

A
  • To allow for homeostasis to occur
  • ## So that enzymes work efficiently
598
Q

What receptors detect chemicals?

A

Chemoreceptors

599
Q

What receptors detect pressure?

A

Mechanoreceptors (Pacinian corpuscle)

600
Q

What receptors detect blood pressure changes?

A

Baroreceptors

601
Q

What receptors detect changes in blood water potential?

A

Osmoreceptors

602
Q

Describe the sampling techniques that biologists could use to show how the distribution and abundance of organisms change across a habitat

A
  • They could identify the species present and use keys to do so.
  • They could use a quadrat and place it randomly along a belt transect.
  • They could use an abundance scale
  • They could use capture recapture for animals.
  • They could repeat the experiment and calculate a mean.
603
Q

What is the importance of sampling in measuring the biodiversity of a habitat?

A
  • It is impossible to count every individual, so sampling provides an estimate of the number of individuals in a species.
  • And the sample will be representative of the whole area.
604
Q

Outline the significance of a low value of Simpson’s Index of Diversity.

A
  • The habitat is dominated by one species.
  • The habitat is less likely to cope with change
605
Q

Why it is sometimes necessary to conserve a plant species, such as N. thermarum,
outside its natural habitat (ex situ)?

A
  • The natural habitat may be destroyed by deforestation.
  • The population in the natural habitat may be very low.
  • In the wild, sexual reproduction if difficult if the numbers are very low.
  • Breeding ex situ can maintain the gene pool.
  • Breeding ex situ allows protection from herbivores or grazers.
  • Protects the plant species from disease
606
Q

Outline an unbiased sampling method that can be used to measure the biodiversity of plant species in grassland.

A
  • Use a random number generator to randomly generate coordinates.
  • Use a quadrat and place the quadrat at the random coordinates.
  • Count the number of different species in each quadrat.
  • Use an identification key in order to identify the different species present in each quadrat.
  • Use ACFOR to determine the abundance of each species.
  • Repeat 2 more times in order to calculate a running mean.
  • Sample at different times of the year.
607
Q
A
608
Q
A
609
Q

What is the role of a gene?

A

a gene codes for a polypeptide

610
Q

Suggest three ways that farmers can maximise the efficiency of the transfer of energy up food chains from primary consumers to humans

A
  • keep animals, warm / indoors
  • feed animals high, protein / energy, food
  • selective breeding for improved animals
  • slaughter animals just befoe they’re full size
611
Q

What is excretion?

A

The removal of the waste products of metabolism from the body

612
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A

-The removal of excess amino acids
- The removal of harmful substances from the body
- Stores glycogen

613
Q

How are excess amino acids broken down by the liver?

A
  • The amino groups (NH2) are removed from proteins, forming ammonia and organic acids. This process is called deamination.
  • Ammonia is then binded with CO2 in the ornithine cycle to create urea.
  • The urea is then released from the liver into the blood . The kidneys then filter the blood and remove the urea as urine. The urine is then excreted from the body.
614
Q

What harmful substances, other than urea, does the liver break down?

A
  • Alcohol
  • Drugs
  • Unwanted hormones
615
Q

Describe how the liver breaks down alcohol (ethanol)?

A
  • Ethanol is a toxic substance that can damage our body cells
  • The liver breaks down ethanol into ethanal.
  • Ethanal is consequently broken down into a much less harmful substance called acetic acid, which is excreted from the body
616
Q

What happens to us if there’s excess alcohol in the body?

A
  • This can lead to cirrhosis of the liver.
  • This is where the cells of the liver die and scar tissue blocks the blood flow
617
Q

Why is paracetamol broken down by the liver?

A

Because excess paracetamol in the blood can lead to liver and kidney failure

618
Q

What are the main veins, arteries, and ducts of the liver?

A
  • The hepatic artery
  • The hepatic vein
  • The hepatic portal vein
  • The bile duct
619
Q

What does the hepatic artery do?

A

It supplies the liver with oxygenated blood from the heart, so the liver has a good supply of oxygen for respiration.

620
Q

What does the hepatic vein do?

A

It takes deoxygenated blood away from the liver

621
Q

What does the hepatic portal vein do?

A
  • Brings blood from the small intestine rich in the products of digestion to the liver.
  • This allows for any ingested harmful substances to be filtered out and broken down by the liver straight away.
622
Q

What does the bile duct do?

A

It takes bile to the gallbladder to be stored

623
Q

Is the hepatic artery narrower than the hepatic vein?

A

Yes, because it is transporting high pressure oxygenated blood from the heart to the liver

624
Q

What is the liver made up of?

A
  • Lobules.
  • These are cylindrical structures made up of hepatocyte cells that are arranged in rows radiating from the centre
625
Q

What does each lobule have in the middle?

A

A central vein that connects to the hepatic vein.

626
Q

What are the hepatic artery and the hepatic portal vein connected to the central vein by?

A

Veins called sinusoids

627
Q

How does blood run through the sinusoids?

A
  • Past the hepatocytes that remove harmful substances and oxygen from the blood
  • These harmful substances are broken down into less harmful substances by the hepatocytes and they then reenter the blood.
  • The blood runs to the central vein and the central veins from all lobules conect up to form the hepatic vein
628
Q

What are kupffer cells attached to ?

A

The walls of the sinusoids

629
Q

What do kupffer cells do?

A

Remove bacteria and break down old red blood cells

630
Q

Which cells in the liver produce bile?

A

The hepatocytes

631
Q

What is a nickname for the kupffer cells?

A

The macrophages of the liver

632
Q

Bile from hepatocytes->

A

Into canaliculi -> into bile ducts -> into gall bladder

633
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys?

A

-to excrete waste products

634
Q

Give an overview of how the kidney excretes waste products

A
  • Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery and then passes through the capillaries in the cortex of the kidneys.
  • As the blood passes through the capillaries, substances are filtered out of the blood and into long tubules that surround the kidneys. This process is known as ultrafiltration.
  • Useful substances, like glucose, are reabsorbed back into the blood from the tubules in the medulla and the cortex. This is called selective reabsorption
  • The remaining unwanted substances pass along the tubules, then along the ureter to the bladder, where they’re passed out as urine.
  • The filtered blood passes out of the kidneys through the renal vein
635
Q

What are nephrons?

A

the long tubules along with the bundle of capillaries where the blood is filtered out

636
Q

Describe the process of filtration in the nephrons?

A
  • Blood from the renal artery enters smaller arterioles in the cortex.
  • Each arteriole splits into a structure called a glomerulus, a bundle of capillaries looped inside a hollow balled called the Bowman’s capsule.
  • The glomerulus is where ultrafiltration takes place.
  • The arteriole that takes blood in blood into each glomerulus is called the afferent arteriole, ad the arteriole that takes the filtered blood away is called the efferent arteriole.
  • The efferent arteriole is smaller in diameter than the afferent arteriole, so the blood in the glomerulus is under high pressure.
  • The high pressure in the glomerulus forces liquid and small molecules in the blood out of the glomerulus and into the bowman’s capsule.
  • The liquid and small molecules pass through 3 layers to get into the Bowman’s capsule and enter the nephron tubule: the basement membrane and the epithelium of the bowman’s capsule.
  • The liquid and small molecules, now called filtrate, pass along the rest of the nephron and useful substances are reabsorbed along the way.
  • Finally, the filtrate flows through the collecting duct and passes out of the kidney along the ureter.
637
Q

Where does selective reabsorption take place?

A

as the filtrate flows along the proximal convulated tubule (PCT), through the loop of Henle, and along the distal convulated tubule

638
Q

is it true that useful substances leave the tubules of the nephrons and enter the capillary network that’s wrapped around them?

A

yes

639
Q

why is the epithelium of the wall of the proximal convulated tubule covered in microvilli?

A

to provide a large surface area for the reabsorption of useful materials from the filtrate into the blood

640
Q

what useful substances are reabsorbed along the proximal convulated tubule?

A

glucose, amino acids, vitamins, and some salts

641
Q

why does water enter the blood surrounding the proximal convulated tubule by osmosis?

A

because the water potential of the blood is lower than that of the filtrate

642
Q

Where does selective reabsorption take place?

A

As the filtrate flows along the proximal convulated tubule, through the loop of henle and along the distal convulated tubule

643
Q

Why does the epithelium of the wall of the proximal convulated tubule have microvilli?

A

To provide a large surface area for the reabsorption of useful materials from the filtrate into the blood

644
Q

What happens if the water potential of the blood is too low?

A

More water is reabsorbed by osmosis into the blood from the tubules of the nephrons. This results in the urine being more concentrated and less water being lost during excretion

645
Q

What happened if the water potential of the blood is too high?

A

Less water is reabsorbed by osmosis into the blood from the tubules of the nephrons. This means that the urine is more dilute, so more water is lost during excretion

646
Q

What 2 limbs is the loop of henle made up of?

A

The descending limb and the ascending limb. They have a mechanism called the countercurrent multiplier mechanism. This mechanism helps to reabsorbed water back into the blood

647
Q

Describe the process of the countercurrent multiplier mechanism in the loop of henle

A

1) Near the top of the ascending limb, sodium and chloride ions are actively pumped out of the loop of henle and into the medulla.

The ascending limb is impermeable to water, so the water stays inside the tubule.

This creates a low water potential in the medulla because there’s a high concentration of ions in the medulla.

2) Because there’s a lower water potential in the medulla than in the descending limb, water moves out of the descending limb and into the medulla by osmosis.

As a result, the filtrate becomes more concentrated and the water in the medulla is reabsorbed into the blood through the capillary network

3) Near the bottom of the ascending limb, sodium and chloride ions diffuse out into the medulla

4) Hence, the ion concentration in the medulla massively increases and its water potential lowers.

This causes water to move out of the collecting duct by osmosis

The water in the medulla is reabsorbed into the blood through the capillary network

648
Q

What type of receptors does the hypothalmus have?

A

osmoreceptors

649
Q

When are hormones secreted?

A

When an endocrine gland is stiimulated

650
Q

How can an endocrine gland be stimulated?

A
  • By another hormone
  • By electrical impulses
651
Q

Is a hormone a first messenger?

A

Yes

652
Q

Outline how the hormone adrenaline acts as a first messenger

A
  • Adrenaline binds to specific receptors in the cell membrane of many cells.
  • When adrenaline binds, it activates an enzyme in the cell membranae called adenyl cyclase.
  • Activated adenyl cyclase catalyses the production of a second messenger called cAMP from ATP.
  • cAMP then activates a cascade.
653
Q

Where are the adrenal glands found?

A

Just above the kidneys

654
Q

What is the outer part of the adrenal gland called?

A

The cortex

655
Q

What is the inner part of the adrenal gland called?

A

The medulla

656
Q

What does the cortex of the adrenal glands do?

A

the cortex secretes steroid hormones when you’re stressed e.g. cortisol, aldosterone

657
Q

What are some examples of steroid hormones?

A
  • Cortisol
  • Adrenaline
658
Q

Can the effects of steroid hormones be both short term and long term?

A

Yes

659
Q

What are the functions of steroid hormones?

A
  • Breakdown of proteins and fats into glucose. This increases the amount of energy available so that the brain and the muscles can respond to the situation.
  • Increases the blood volume and pressure by increasing the uptake of sodium ions and water by the kidneys.
  • Suppresses the immune system.
660
Q

What does the medulla of the adrenal glands do?

A
  • Secretes catecholamine hormones when you’re stressed, i.e adrenaline and noradrenaline.
661
Q

What are examples of catecholamine hormones?

A
  • Adrenaline
  • Noradrenaline
662
Q

What are the functions of catecholamine hormones?

A
  • Increasing the heart rate and the breathing rate.
  • Causing cells to break down glycogen into glucose.
  • Constricting some blood vessels, so that blood is diverted to the brain and the muscles.
663
Q

Is the pancreas and endocrine gland?

A

Yes

664
Q

What is the area of the pancreas that contains endocrine tissue?

A

The islets of langerhan

665
Q

Where are the islets of langerhan found?

A

In the pancreas

666
Q

Is it true that the islets of langerhan are found in clusters around blood capillaries and so they secrete hormones directly into the blood?

A

Yes

667
Q

What types of cells are found in the islets of langerhan?

A

Alpha cell and beta cells

668
Q

What do alpha cells do?

A

They secrete a hormone called glucagon.

669
Q

What do beta cells do?

A

They secrete a hormone called insulin

670
Q

Should beta cells be stained darker or lighter?

A

Darker

671
Q

Can ectotherm scontrol their body temperature internally?

A

No, so they change their behaviour

672
Q

What is a behaviour carried out by ectotherms to increase their body temperature?

A

Basking in the sun

673
Q

Is it true that ectotherms have a variable metabolic rate and that they generate very little heat themselves?

A

Yes

674
Q

Is it true that endotherms constantly have a very high metabolic rate and that they generate a lot of heat from metabolic reactions?

A

Yes

675
Q

What are mechanisms carried out by endothems to reduce the internal body temperature?

A
  • Sweating. The water in sweat evaporates from the skin’s surface and takes heat from the body. This cools the skin.
  • Hairs lie flat. This prevents a layer of hot air being trapped on the skin’s surface.
  • Vasodilation occurs. Arterioles near the skin’s surface dilate, so more blood flows closer to the skin’s surface, and so more heat is lost.
676
Q

What are mechanisms carried out by endothems to increase the internal body temperature?

A
  • Shivering. Muscle contraction produces more heat by respiration.
  • Less sweating. Less water evaporates from the skin’s surface.
  • Hairs stand up. This traps more hot air and prevents heat loss.
  • Vasoconstriction. Arterioles near the skin’s surface constrict, so less blood flows through the capillaries that are close to the skin’s surface. This reduces heat loss.
  • Hormones such as adrenaline and thyroxine are produced. These hormones increase metabolism and result in more heat being produced.
677
Q

What controls the internal body temperature?

A

The hypothalmus in the brain, which has thermorecepetors

678
Q

What happens when the body temperature is too high?

A
  • Thermoreceptors detect that the body temperature is too high.
  • The hypothalmus sends signals to the effectors.
  • A response is carried out in the form of vasodilation etc
  • More heat is lost and less heat is produced by the body.
  • Body temperature returns to 37 degrees celcius.
679
Q

What happens when the body temperature is too low?

A
  • Thermoreceptors detect that the body temperature is too low.
  • The hypothalmus sends signals to the effectors.
  • Response is carried out in the form of vasoconstriction etc
  • More heat is produced.
  • The body temperature returns to 37 degrees celcius.
680
Q

What happens when the blood glucose concentration is too high?

A
  • The pancreas detects that the blood glucose concentration is too high.
  • Beta cells secrete insulin.
  • Insulin binds to receptors on the liver and muscle cells.
  • Cells take up more glucose; glucose is converted to glycogen ; cells respire more glucose.
  • There is now less glucose in the blood.
681
Q

What happens when the blood glucose concentration is too low?

A
  • The pancreas detects that the blood glucose concentration is too low.
  • Alpha cells secrete glucagon.
  • Glucagon binds to receptors on liver cells.
  • Glycogen is converted back to glucose; glucaneogenesis is activated; cells respire less glucose.
  • Liver cells release glucose into the blood
682
Q
A
683
Q

When do beta cells secrete insulin?

A

When they detect high blood glucose concentrations

684
Q

describe the role of beta cells in the secretion of insulin into the blood

A
  • When the blood glucose concentration is high, more glucose enters the beta cells by facilitated diffusion.
  • More glucose in a beta cell causes the rate of respiration to increase, making more ATP.
  • The rise in ATP triggers the potassium ion channels in the beta cell plasma membrane to close.
  • This means that Potassium ions can’t get through the membrane, so they build up beta inside the cell.
  • This makes the inside of the beta cell less negative, so they build up inside the cell.
  • This makes the inside of the beta cell less negative, so the plasma membrane of the beta cell is depolarised.
  • Depolarisatiom triggers Calcium ion channels in the membrane to open, so Ca²+ ions diffuse into the beta cell.
  • This causes the vesicles to fuse with the beta cell membrane, releasing insulin by exocytosis.
685
Q

Describe type 1 diabetes

A
  • No insulin is produced
  • Is genetic
686
Q

What are the treatments for type 1 diabetes?

A
  • Regular insulin injections throughout the day.
  • An insulin pump, which continuously delivers insulin into the body via a tube inserted beneath the skin.
  • Islet cell transplantation
687
Q

Describe type 2 diabetes

A
  • linked to obesity
  • the beta cells don’t produce enough insulin or the body cells don’t respond properly to insulin.
688
Q

What treatments are used for type 2 diabetes?

A
  • Metformin, sulfonylureas, thiazolidinediones
  • Insulin therapy
689
Q

Can human insulin be made from GM bacteria?

A

Yes

690
Q

What are the advantages of using insulin from GM bacteria ?

A
  • It’s cheaper than extracting insulin from animal pancreases.
  • Large quantities of insulin can be produced using GM bacteria.
  • GM insulin is less likely to cause allergic reactions.
  • Some people prefer insulin from GM bacteria for ethical or religious reasons
691
Q

Can stem cells be grown into beta cells?

A

Yes

692
Q

Describe how stem cells can be grown into beta cells

A
  • The beta cells would be implanted into the pancreas of a person with type 1 diabetes.
  • This means that the person would be able to make insulin as normal.
693
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

Maintaining a stable internal environment within narrow limits, even though the environment is changing.

694
Q

What two systems does the nervous system consist of?

A

The PNS and the CNS

695
Q

What does the PNS control?

A

The somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system

696
Q

What does the Somatic Nervous system control?

A

Conscious activities

697
Q

What does the Autonomic Nervous system control?

A

Unconscious activities

698
Q

What does the Autonomic nervous system consist of ?

A

The sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system,

699
Q

Describe the sympathetic nervous system

A
  • ‘fight or flight’
  • Releases the neurotransmitter noradrenaline
700
Q

Describe the parasympathetic nervous system

A
  • Calms down the body
  • Releases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
701
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Noradrenaline

702
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

acetylcholine

703
Q

Where is the hypothalmus located?

A

Beneath the middle part of the brain

704
Q

What is the role of the hypothalmus?

A

Maintaining body temperature

705
Q

What hormones does the hypothalmus produce?

A

Hormones that control the pituitary gland

706
Q

What part of the brain is the cerebrum?

A

The largest part of the brain

707
Q

What is the role of the cerebrum?

A

Involved in vision, hearing, learning, thinking

708
Q

Where in the brain is the pituitary gland found?

A

Beneath the hypothalmus

709
Q

What is the pituitary gland controlled by?

A

The hypothalmus

710
Q

What is the role of the hypothalmus?

A

Releases hormones and stimulates other glands to release hormones

711
Q

Where in the brain is the Medulla Oblongata found?

A

At the base of the brain, at the top of the spinal cord.

712
Q

What is the role of the Medulla Oblongata?

A

Automatically controlling the breathing rate and the heart rate

713
Q

Where is the cerebellum found?

A

Underneath the cerebrum

714
Q

What is the role of the cerbellum?

A

Muscle coordination, posture, co-ordination of balance

715
Q

Describe the blinking reflex

A
  • Sensory nerve endings in the cornea are stimulated by touch
  • A nerve impulse is passed along the sensory neurone to a relay neurone in the CNS.
  • The impulse is then passed from the relay neurone to the motor neurones.
  • The motor neurones send impulses to the effectors.
  • The orbicularis muscles that move your eyelids contract, causing your eyelids to close quickly and preventing your eye from being damaged.
716
Q

Describe the knee-jerk reflex

A
  • Stretch receptors in the quadriceps muscle detect that the muscle is being stretched.
  • A nerve impulse is passed along a sensory neurone, which communicates directly with a motor neurone in the spinal cord.
  • The motor neurone carries the nerve impulse to the effector, the quadricep muscle, causing it to contract, so that the lower leg moves forward quickly.
717
Q

Describe the fight or flight response

A
  • Nerve impulses from sensory neurones arrive at the hypothalmus, activating both the hormonal system and the sympathetic nervous system.
  • The pituitary gland is stimulated to release a hormone called ACTH. This causes the cortex of the adrenal gland to release steroidal hormones.
  • The sympathetic nervous system is activated, triggering the release of adrenaline from the medulla region of the adrenal gland.
718
Q

is it true that the rate at whoch the SAN fires is unconsciuosly controlled by a part of the brain called the medulla?

A

Yes

719
Q

What happens if a high blood pressure is detected?

A
  • Baroreceptors in the heart detect a high blood pressure.
  • Electrical impulses are sent to the medulla, which send impulses along the vagus nerve.
  • This secretes acetycholine, which binds to receptors on the SAN.
  • The heart rate then slows down to reduce blood pressure back to normal.
720
Q

What happens if a low blood pressure is detected?

A
  • Baroreceptors detect low blood pressure.
  • Impulses are sent to the medulla, which sends impulses along the accelerator nerve.
  • This secretes noradrenaline, which binds to receptors on the SAN.
  • The heart rate speeds up to increase the blood pressure back to normal.
721
Q

What is a conjugated protein?

A
  • A protein that has a non-protein prosthetic group, which is attached to the protein by covalent bonds.
722
Q

Why is a reduced heart rate sometimes seen in people who are very aerobically fit?

A
  • Because they have an increased stroke volume.
  • Because their heart muscle is stronger
723
Q

What is glycogenesis?

A

The conversion of glucose into glycogen

724
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

Creating glucose from other molecules i.e amino acids.

725
Q

What are the features of a good communication system?

A
  • Covers the whole body
  • Allows one cell to communicate with another specific cell.
  • Allows a cell to communicate with many cells.
  • Is fast
  • Allows for both long term messaging and short-term signalling.
726
Q

How is the structure of the mitochondrial membranes related to the function of a mitochondrion?

A
  • Contains an electron transport chain.
  • Location for chemiosmosis.
  • Allows for the creation of proton gradients.

-

727
Q

Do trachea have cartilage, elastic fibres, and goblet cells?

A
  • Have cartilage
  • Have elastic fibres
  • Have goblet cells
728
Q

Do bronchi have cartilage, elastic fibres, and goblet cells?

A
  • Have cartilage
  • Have elastic fibres
  • Have goblet cells
729
Q

Do bronchioles have cartilage, elastic fibres, and goblet cells?

A
  • Don’t have cartilage
  • Have elastic fibres
  • Don’t have goblet cells
730
Q

Do alveoli have cartilage, elastic fibres, and goblet cells?

A
  • Don’t have cartilage
  • Have elastic fibres
  • Don’t have goblet cells
731
Q

In sensory neurones, is the cell body in the middle ?

A

Yes

732
Q

Does the autonomic nervous system contain sensory and motor neurones?

A

Yes

733
Q

Are NAD and FAD examples of coenzymes?

A

Yes

734
Q

In a respirometer, is the rate of the movement of the liquid in the capillary tube a measure of the rate of respiration?

A

Yes

735
Q

Can water molecules pass through the casparian strip?

A

No

736
Q

Which subdivision of the peripheral nervous system supplies to the SAN?

A

The autonomic nervous system

737
Q

Why is the knee jerk reflex an example of a spinal reflex?

A

Because it only goes through the spinal cord

738
Q

Why is the blinking reflex an example of a cranial reflex?

A

Because the pathway goes through the brain

739
Q

Why are reflexes very fast?

A

Because they only involve one or two synapses, which are the slowest parts of nerve transmission

740
Q

what statistical test is used when 2 means are being compared?

A

the t-test

741
Q

What causes oncotic pressure?

A

The imbalance of large plasma proteins between the blood and tissue fluid.

742
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle?

A
  • Cardiac
  • Involuntary (smooth)
  • Voluntary
743
Q

Where is cardiac muscle found?

A

In the heart

744
Q

What is another name for involuntary musclce?

A

Smooth muscle

745
Q

Where is involuntary muscle found?

A
  • Arteries
  • Veins
  • Respiratory system
  • Digestive system
746
Q

What is another name for voluntary muscle?

A

Skeletal muscle

747
Q

Is it true that skeletal muscle attaches to the bone and causes the skeleton to move?

A

Yes

748
Q

What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum do ?

A

Stores calcium ions, which trigger muscle contraction

749
Q

What do muscle cell smake up?

A

Muscle fibres

750
Q

Is it true that muscle fibres are very long with many nuclei and mitochondria?

A

Yes

751
Q

What is the muscle cytoplasm called?

A

The sarcoplasm

752
Q

Do muscle fibres have a high number of myofibrils?

A

Yes

753
Q

What 2 types of filament are myofibrils made up of?

A
  • Myosin (thick)
  • Actin (thin)
754
Q

What repeating units are myofibrils divided up into?

A

Sarcomeres

755
Q

I- band….

A

the lightest part with only actin fibres

756
Q

A-band…

A

the darkest part with both actin and myosin fibres

757
Q

H-zone…

A

in the centre of the A-band and has myosin fibres only

758
Q

What happens to the I band during contraction?

A

It narrows

759
Q

What happens to the H-zone during contraction?

A

It narrows

760
Q

What happens to the sarcomere length during contraction?

A

It shortens

761
Q

What happens to the distance between the Z line during contraction?

A

It shortens

762
Q

What happens to the A-band during contraction?

A

It stays the same

763
Q

Do myosin filaments have a globular head?

A

yes, and this globular head faces outwards

764
Q

what are actin filaments made up of?

A

actin, tropomyosin, troponin

765
Q

Describe the sliding filament theory

A
  • An action potential arrives at the end of a motor neurone.
  • Acetycholine is released and causes an action potential in the sarcolemma.
  • The action potential is carried by invaginations of the cell membrane called T-tubules.
  • The action potential causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium ions into myofibrils.
  • Calcium ions bind to troponin on thin filmanet (actin) which changes shape. This moves tropomyosin into a groove.
  • Myosin heads bind to actin to form actomoyosin cross-bridge and the cross-bridge cycle can now take place.
  • The myosin head is temporarily bound to ATP and it swivels to a new angle, using the energy from ATP. This causes the actin filaments to slide past myosin filaments.
  • Myosin head remains attached until new ATP binds with it, this reprimes them for repeated movement as long as ATP and Ca2+ are present.
  • Ca2+ actively taken back into vesicles of sarcoplasmic reticulum until next depolarization
766
Q
A
767
Q

During anaerobic respiration, pyruvate is converted to lactate by lactate fermentation. WHat is the problem with lactate build up in the muscles?

A

Can cause muscle fatigue

768
Q

How is ATP made in muscle cells?

A

By phosphorylating ADP. The phosphate croup is taken from creatine phosphate.

769
Q

Does creatine phospahte act as a reserve of phosphate?

A

Yes

770
Q

Describe the ATP-CP system

A

it’s anaerobic and its alactic

771
Q
A
772
Q

WHEN TALKING ABOUT LIGNIN ALWAYS SAY PROVIDES SUPPORT

A
773
Q

ATP is needed to break the links
between myosin and actin so they remain attached

A
774
Q

When is primary metabolite production at its highest rate?

A

During the exponential phase

775
Q

When are most secondary metabolites produced?

A

During the stationary phase

776
Q

What is a primary metabolite?

A
  • A molecule needed for the cell’s normal growth and development, for example, glucose.
777
Q

Temperature and pH can be changed to optimum in a fermenter

A

Oxygen and nutrient concentration can be increased in a fermenter.

778
Q

what is recombinant DNA?

A

DNA combined from 2 organisms

779
Q

What is a primary metabolite?

A

A molecule needed for the cell’s normal growth and development, for example, glucose.

780
Q

What are the disadvantages of animal cloning?

A
  • There’s no genetic variation in a population, meaning that the population will be more susceptible to disease.
  • Cloned animals may have shorter life spans.
  • The cloning success rate is very poor.
  • Cloning is very labour intensive.
781
Q

What is biotechnology?

A

The large scale industrial use of living organisms

782
Q

REDUCED DOWnstream processing

A

Immobilised enzymes

783
Q

What are some disadvantages of immobilised enzymes

A
  • Higher initial costs
  • Fewer exposed active sites
  • The immobilisation method may affect the shape of the active site
784
Q
A
785
Q
A
785
Q
A
786
Q

Features of an efficient exchange system

A
  • A good blood supply to maintain the concentration gradient
  • A short diffusion pathway
787
Q
A