studystack 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Amino acid catabolism produces what toxic product?

A

Ammonia

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2
Q

When does negative nitrogen balance occur?

A
Dietary Deficiency (starvation)
Catabolic stress (ex. infection)
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3
Q

What 3 cofactors are required for amino acid synthesis?

A

Pyridoxal phosphate Tetrahydrofolate Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)

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4
Q

When pyruvate is transaminated, what does it synthesize?

A

Alanine

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5
Q

When oxaloacetate is transaminated, what does it synthesize?

A

Aspartate

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6
Q

When alpha-ketoglutarate is transaminated, what does it synthesize?

A

Glutamate

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7
Q

What forms alanine by transamination?

A

Pyruvate

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8
Q

What forms aspartate by transamination?

A

Oxaloacetate

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9
Q

What forms glutamate by transamination?

A

alpha-ketoglutarate

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10
Q

Where is arginine generated?

A

Urea cycle

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11
Q

Where does Cysteine get its S?

A

Methionine

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12
Q

What is pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) synthesized from?

A

Vitamin B6

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13
Q

What are two mechanisms through which nitrogen is removed from amino acids?

A

Transamination

Deamination

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14
Q

What enzyme is involved in the oxaloacetate –> aspartate reaction?

A

AST

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15
Q

What is the function of glutamate dehydrogenase?

A

It deaminates glutamate, resulting in alpha-ketoglutarate and ammonia.

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16
Q

Where does the deamination of glutamate by glutamate dehydrogenase take place?

A

Liver

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17
Q

What enzyme is involved in the deamination of glutamate into alpha-ketoglutarate and ammonia?

A

Glutamate dehydrogenase

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18
Q

What enzyme is involved in the conversion of glutamate + ammonium (NH4+) –> glutamine

A

Glutamine synthase

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19
Q

What conversion does glutamine synthase catalyze?

A

glutamate and ammonium –> glutamine

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20
Q

What enzyme is involved in the conversion:glutamine –> glutamate + NH4+?

A

Glutaminase

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21
Q

In the FASTED state, what do the liver and muscles contribute to amino acid metabolism?

A

Muscles = provide amino acids for metabolismLiver = uses lots of amino acids in fasted state.

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22
Q

Where does the urea cycle occur?

A

Liver

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23
Q

What is the enzyme that converts HCO3- + NH4+ –> Carbamoyl phosphate?

A

CPS1 (carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1)

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24
Q

What is the rate limiting step in the urea cycle?

A

CPS1 (carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1)

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25
Q

What is the enzyme that converts Ornithine to Citrulline?

A

OTC (ornithine transcarbomylase)

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26
Q

What is the common source of both of the N’s in urea?

A

Glutamate

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27
Q

Where do the first two steps of the urea cycle occur?

A

Mitochondria

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28
Q

In the urea cycle, after the first two steps, where do the following steps occur?

A

Cytoplasm

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29
Q

What are two products from the urea cycle?

A

Arginine fumarate

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30
Q

What is the role of NAG in the urea cycle?

A

It is synthesized by acetyl CoA and glutamate and it STIMULATES CPS1

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31
Q

Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency (OTC), the most common cause of urea cycle disorder, is what type of genetic trait?

A

x-linked

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32
Q

Beginning Product of FA synthesis

A

Citrate

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33
Q

Shuttle used in FA synthesis

A

Citrate shuttle

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34
Q

What cofactor is needed in all carboxylases?

A

Biotin

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35
Q

Location of FA synthesis

A

Hepatic cytosol

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36
Q

Where do we get NADPH?

A

Pentose Phosphate Pathway

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37
Q

Large complex of enzymes that binds growing acyl chain and malony CoA in first round.

A

Fatty Acid Synthase

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38
Q

What are the three types of macromolecular synthesis?

A

DNA replication (DNA synthesis)
Transcription (RNA synthesis)
Translation (protein synthesis)

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39
Q

What is the basic dogma of biology?

A

DNA - RNA - protein

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40
Q

Where does prokaryotic replication take place?

A

In the cytoplasm

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41
Q

Where does eukaryotic replication take place?

A

In the nucleus during S phase of the cell cycle.

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42
Q

Duplicate chromosomes, so that after mitosis each daughter cell will inherit a complete genome.

A

DNA Replication

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43
Q

Requirements for DNA replication

A

DNA polymerase, Mg2+, template, primer, and dNTPs

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44
Q

In what direction does DNA replication occur?

A

5 to 3 direction

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45
Q

Stage: Ribosomes assembled with mRNA between large and small subunits along with 1st aminoacyl tRNA (Met); tRNa bound to P site of ribosome.

A

Initiation

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46
Q

Where does B oxidation occur?

A

Mitochondria

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47
Q

What enzyme combines succinyl-CoA and glycine to start the Heme pathway?

A

ALA (aminolevulinic acid) synthetase

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48
Q

Rare enzyme deficiency in the heme pathway.

A

Porphyria

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49
Q

Genetic defect in UDP-glucuronyl Transferase.

A

Crigler-Najar syndrome

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50
Q

Maximum possible number of hydrogen atoms, single bonds only between carbon atoms, solid at room temperature.

A

Saturated fats

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51
Q

Has at least one double bond between carbon atoms because hydrogen atoms are missing. Double bond is point of unsaturation, they are unstable. Liquid at room temperature.

A

Unsaturated fats

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52
Q

An omega-6 fatty acid, precursor of Arachidonic acid.

A

Linoleic Fatty Acids

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53
Q

Enzyme responsible for catalyzing chain elongation in prokaryotes for both the leading and lagging strands.

A

DNA Polymerase III

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54
Q

Seals the gap that remains after Pol I removes the RNA primer and replaces it with DNA

A

DNA ligase

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55
Q

Some polymerases can copy an RNA template into DNA in the process known as ________

A

Reverse transcription

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56
Q

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC), one of the most common inhereted cancers has been shown a defect in this DNA system.

A

Mismatch

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57
Q

This type of enzyme recognize a misincorporated nucleotide, nicks the strand, and remove sthe misincorporated nucleotide.

A

Endonucleases

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58
Q

Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor

A

Methotrexate

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59
Q

Drug that induces Vitamin B6 deficiency

A

Isoniazid

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60
Q

Dietary insufficiency of thiamine/impaired intestinal absorption of B1; apathy, memory loss, nystagmus (eyeball motion)

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

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61
Q

In infants, present as tachycardia, vomiting, convulsions, death; adults: dry skin, irritability, disorderly thinking progressive paralysis

A

Beriberi

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62
Q

Niacin defiency causes

A

Pellagra: dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, death

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63
Q

Coenzyme in carboxylation reactions, carrier of activated CO2

A

Biotin

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64
Q

Selectively stimulates gene expression or specifically repress gene transcription, regulates plasma levels of calcium and phosphorous

A

Vitamin D

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65
Q

Post translational modification of various blood clotting factors.

A

Vitamin K

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66
Q

Active form of Vitamin E

A

a-tocopherol

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67
Q

DNA double helix that have additional twists applied to them that have coiled up upon themselves.

A

Supercoiling

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68
Q

– heterocyclic compound consisting of pyrimidine fused to a 5 member imidazole ring (adenine and guanine)

A

Purine

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69
Q

Heterocyclic compounds with nitrogen atoms at positions 1 and 3 of a 6 member ring (thymine, cytosine, uracil).

A

Pyrimidine

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70
Q

nitrogenous base (attached to 1’ C by B-N-glycosidic bond), a ribose sugar (OH at 2’ C), and a phosphate group (backbone of DNA, attached to 5’ C) – present in RNA molecules

A

Ribonucleotide

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71
Q

bond is between the 3’ OH group of the deoxyribose/ribose on the last nucleotide and the 5’-phosphate of the dNTP/NTP precurson – basically it is a bond that connects nucleotides in DNA

A

phosphodiester bond

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72
Q

Linear and single stranded, carries codon information for translation (2%)

A

mRNA

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73
Q

folded loop structures formed by intra-molecular H-bonding, carries amino acids to ribosomes (16%)

A

tRNA

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74
Q

Method: Take a single stranded DNA with gene sequence of interest with a fluorescent probe let it anneal to DNA in cell and look for fluorescence.

A

FISH

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75
Q

complex of DNA and chromosomal proteins (histones)

A

Chromatin

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76
Q

Rich in lysine and arginine, and as a result carry a positive charge. This makes it easier for negatively charged chromatin to associate.

A

Histones

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77
Q

Antibiotic drugs that interfere with DNA gyrase

A

Quinolone

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78
Q

Decondensed and transcriptionally active DNA

A

Euchromatin

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79
Q

Condensed and transcriptionally inactive DNA

A

Heterochromatin

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80
Q

Nucleotide that is an analogue of Acyclovir.

A

Guanine

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81
Q

prevent re-annealing of DNA and prevent hairpin loops from forming

A

SSB proteins

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82
Q

Drug inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase

A

Ciprofloxacin

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83
Q

Combines with certain proteins and is involved in RNA processing and gene regulation in eukaryotes

A

snRNA

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84
Q

3 stop codons

A

UGA, UAG, UAA

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85
Q

predicts the base pairing of the 5’ anticodon and 3’ codon

A

Wobble hypothesis

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86
Q

Enzyme that cleave trypsinogen to trypsin.

A

Enteropeptidase

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87
Q

Where does Urea synthesis begin and end within the cell?

A

Mitochondria to start, cytoplasm to finish

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88
Q

How much energy is required to run the urea cycle?

A

4 ATP

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89
Q

Rate limiting first enzyme for urea synthesis

A

carbamoyl phosphate

90
Q

It can enter the TCA for energy or gluconeogenesis following urea cycle.

A

Fumarate

91
Q

Molecular technique used to identify DNA.

A

Southern Blot

92
Q

Molecular technique used to identify RNA.

A

Northern Blot

93
Q

Molecular technique used to identify protein.

A

Western Blot

94
Q

technique used to amplify DNA.

A

PCR

95
Q

Sequence change with no phenotypic affect (i.e. 3rd base of wobbly codon, intron spliced out of message, spacer region o/s of expresed gene, similar AA w/ same effect on protein function, region of protein not critical for function - linker)

A

Silent mutation

96
Q

Alteration of one codon, usually due to single base pair subsitution

A

Point mutation

97
Q

Single base pair substitution altering one AA.

A

Missense mutation

98
Q

Base pair substitution producing premature stop codon, resulting in truncated polypeptide.

A

Nonsense mutation

99
Q

Insertion or deletion of sequence that is not a multiple of 3, so that codon reading frame is altered & random AA sequence is produced beyond the change.

A

Frame shift mutation

100
Q

Misplacement of DNA fragment to different location of genome (different spot on same chromosome or on different chromosome)

A

Translocation

101
Q

Deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 5

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome

102
Q

Removal of amino group from base by oxidation of keto group; A / C = will result in transition mutation during next round of replication; deamination of G not mutagenic, T does not have amino group to remove.

A

Deamination

103
Q

DNA polymerase proofreading, ligation of strand breaks, direct base repair, excision repair.

A

DNA repair mechanisms

104
Q

Product of defective UV specific endonuclease; results in extensive skin tumors after exposure to sunlight

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

105
Q

Most common conformation of DNA

A

B form

106
Q

2nd most abundant class of chromatin proteins.

A

Scaffold proteins

107
Q

Vitamin A derived from animals provide retinyl esters at are readily digested & absorbed as

A

Retinol

108
Q

First detectable sign of a vitamin A deficiency

A

Nyctalopia

109
Q

How many carbons does palmitic fatty acid have?

A

16

110
Q

How many carbons does stearic fatty acid have?

A

18

111
Q

How many carbons does oleic fatty acid have?

A

18

112
Q

What makes up a triaclglycerol?

A

A glycerol and 3 fatty acids

113
Q

genetically defective LDL receptors occur and LDL levels become extremely high

A

Familial Hypercholestemia

114
Q

There is a mutation in the nucleotide excision repair enzymes. Individuals with this genetic defect are unable to repair thymine dimers.

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

115
Q

Excess NADH in the fed state will inhibit _______ in the Kreb cycle

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase

116
Q

Inhibition of isocitrate dehydrogenase causes a build up of ____________.

A

Citrate

117
Q

FA synthesis is induced by _____________.

A

Insulin

118
Q

Inhibits carnitine trasport of fatty acyl groups into the mitochondrion.

A

Malonyl CoA

119
Q

Lipoprotein lipase synthesis and secretion is induced by ____________.

A

Insulin

120
Q

2 types of sphingolipid

A

Sphingomyelin & Glycosphingolipids

121
Q

sphingosine (18C palmitate) connected by amide (serine) linkage to long chain fatty acid

A

Sphingolipids

122
Q

Where does the 5th step of sphingolipid synthesis occur?

A

Golgi

123
Q

Where do steps 1-4 of sphingolipid synthesis occur?

A

ER

124
Q

What are the most abundant gangliosides in myelin?

A

Cerebrosides

125
Q

What lipid disease involves the lipid gal-gal-glucosylceramide (ganglioside) due to deficient enzyme alpha-galactosidase?

A

Fabry’s

126
Q

What lipid disease involves the lipid glucosylceramide (cerebroside) due to deficient enzyme beta-glucosidase?

A

Gaucher’s

127
Q

What lipid disease involves the lipid sphingomyelin (sphingolipid) due to deficient enzyme sphingomyelinase?

A

Niemann-Pick

128
Q

What lipid disease involves the lipid GM2 ganglioside (ganglioside) due to deficient enzyme hexosaminidase A?

A

Tay-Sachs

129
Q

Where are sphingolipids destroyed?

A

Lysosomes

130
Q

What kind of linkage joins the amino acid to the tRNA molecule?

A

Ester

131
Q

upstream sequence to a start codon that can base pair to 3’ end of 16S RNA

A

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

132
Q

Patient with Hepititis A has what type of elevated bilirubin levels?

A

Indirect Bilirubin

133
Q

Defect in a transporter for cysteine and basic AA that results in kidney stones

A

Cystinurea

134
Q

Catalyzes transamination

A

aminotransferases

135
Q

ApoB 100 is attached to which lipoproteins?

A

LDL, IDL and VLDL

136
Q

ApoB48 is attached to which lipoprotein

A

Chylomicrons

137
Q

Major component of membrane lipids. Analogue of plasmalogen in heart.

A

Phospatidylcholine

138
Q

Major component of membrane lipids. Analogue of plasmalogen in nerve tissue.

A

Phospatidylethanolamine

139
Q

Used to form PIP2 which is cleave by phospholipase C to DAG and IP3 in Ca2+ second messenger system.

A

Phospatidylinositol

140
Q

Glycerol from fatty acids (after fatty acid metabolism) is converted into DHAP in the liver to go back into glycolysis or gluconeogenesis

A

DHAP

141
Q

Lipase that releases fatty acids from fat (activated by PKA via adenyl cyclase).

A

Hormone Sensitive Lipase

142
Q

Soluble mixed balls of fat that are created in order to bring fat to the intestinal lining of the small intestine (enterocytes) in order for fat to be re-absorbed, and then they are reabsorbed

A

Micelles

143
Q

Pyrimidines

A

Cytosine, Thymine (DNA) and Uracil (RNA)

144
Q

Percentage of A=T and G=C

A

Chargaff’s Rules

145
Q

Where are very long chain fatty acids degraded?

A

peroxisomes

146
Q

directs circulating lipoproteins to their destinations

A

apolipoproteins

147
Q

most circulating cholesterol found

A

LDL

148
Q

acts on chylomicrons in the capillaries

A

lipoprotein lipase

149
Q

Most common familial dyslipidemia

A

Type 2a hypercholesterolemia

150
Q

Increased IDL, VLDL, chylomicrons; increased risk of atherosclerosis

A

Type 3 hyperlipoproteinemia

151
Q

Lipoprotein lipase deficiency

A

Type 1 hyperchylomicronemia

152
Q

Altered apolipoprotein C-II

A

Type 1 hyperchylomicronemia

153
Q

Pancreatitis, HSM, eruptive xanthomas, abdominal pain after fatty meals; may lead to retinal vein occlusion

A

Type 1 hyperchylomicronemia

154
Q

Increased LDL & cholesterol; increased risk of atherosclerosis

A

Type 2a hypercholesterolemia

155
Q

LDL receptor deficiency

A

Type 2a hypercholesterolemia

156
Q

Autosomal dominant; corneal arcus, tendon xanthoma, xanthelasma

A

Type 2a hypercholesterolemia

157
Q

Increased triglycerides, cholesterol, chylomicrons; no increased risk of atherosclerosis

A

Type 1 hyperchylomicronemia

158
Q

Increased VLDL & triglycerides

A

Type 4 hypertriglyceridemia

159
Q

Hepatic overproduction of VLDL; pancreatitis

A

Type 4 hypertriglyceridemia

160
Q

ApoE3/ApoE4 defect

A

Type 3 hyperlipoproteinemia

161
Q

Autosomal dominance (late onset), CAG repeats in the coding section (encoded bc of strand slippage during replication)

A

Huntington

162
Q

deficiency –> Lesch Nyan, X-linked recessive

A

HGPRT

163
Q

used in purine salvage pathway, causes SCID, ATP and dATP accumulate –> imbalnce of nucleotide pool, prevents DNA synthesis

A

Adenosine deaminase deficiency

164
Q

suicide inhibitor of xanthine OXIDASE, enzyme can’t degrade purines to urate

A

Allopurinol

165
Q

hemoglobin’s oxygen binding affinity is inversely related both to acidity and to the concentration of carbon dioxide.

A

Bohr effect

166
Q

It is an inducer, inducer presented to the cell is 1, 6 Allolactose. It has a regulator gene and structural gene

A

Lactose Operon

167
Q

elaborates mRNA referred to as imRNA which is responsible for the synthesis of a transcription factor that acts as a repressor

A

i gene

168
Q

Name 3 diseases related to CAG expansion

A

Huntington, Kennedy and SC Ataxia

169
Q

Inherited mental retardation, CGG repeat at 5’ UTR, FMR1 gene that encodes a RNA binding gene. Over 200 repeats no transcription of FMR1

A

Fragile X syndrome

170
Q

explains why the third base in a codon may differ and be recognised by the same tRNA and therefore code for the same amino acid. The wobble hypothesis states that the first and second bases must pair in the watson-crick manner but 3rd less constrained

A

wobble hypothesis

171
Q

Promoter site in prokaryotes

A

pribnow box (tataat)

172
Q

major phospholipid and surfaceactivecomponent of surfactant

A

Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC)is the major phospholipid and surfaceactivecomponent of surfactant.

173
Q

glycerophospholipid serves as a substrate for LCAT

A

Phosphatidylcholine

174
Q

What is the precursor of all glycerophospholipids?

A

Phosphatidic acid

175
Q

Severely impaired or absent glucronyltransferase activity -Uncommon -Severity depends on how much activity remains -Type I, severe defect leads to kernicterus & death if untreated -Type II, less severe defect

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome

176
Q

Mildly reduced expression of glucuronyltransferase -Very Common (estimated 3-7% of US Pop.) -Results in slightly elevated bilirubin levels but no detrimental health effects -May have increased sensitivity to certain drugs

A

Gilbert’s syndrome

177
Q

Very complex synthetic pathway where N-linked (usually to Asp) or O-linked (usually Ser or Thr) glycosidic bonds

A

Glycoproteins

178
Q

Their synthesis is very complex -Turn over by shedding from the cell surface and by endocytosis (broken down in lysozomes) -Can be extracellular or attached to the membrane

A

Proteoglycans

179
Q

a disease that results when there is a deficiency in the enzyme that phosporylates mannose residues

A

I-cell disease

-Lysosomal enzymes get secreted -lysosomes don’t have the full complement of required enzymes so proteins build up in them (inclusions) -Extremely rare

180
Q

Ceramide + UDP-Glucose

A

Glucocerebroside

181
Q

Ceramide + UDP-Galactose

A

Galactocerebrosides

182
Q

Ceramide + 2 or more UDP-sugars and N-acetylneuraminic acid (NANA)

A

Ganglioside

183
Q

deficiency of enzymes that breakdown GAG fragments, thus they accumulate in the lysosomes -can cause a variety of problems such as skeletal deformities and mental retardation

A

mucopolysaccharidoses

184
Q

a deficiency in an enzyme that results in an accumulation of sphingolipids in the lysosomes -Fabry disease is x-linked, others are autosomal recessive

A

sphingolipidosis

185
Q

What happens to acetoacetate when it remains in the blood stream?

A

converted non-enzymatically to acetone

186
Q

Alternative route for metabolism of glucose

A

Pentose Phosphate Pathway

187
Q

PPP leads to the synthesis of —– for nucleotide and nucleic acid formation

A

Ribose

188
Q

Main hexoses that are absorbed from GI tract

A

Glucose, fructose and galactose

189
Q

First enzyme of PPP

A

Glucose 6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase

190
Q

Deficiency to glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase will yield to acute hemolysis of RBC leading to

A

Hemolytic anemia

191
Q

The oxidative phase of PPP generates

A

NADPH

192
Q

ransketolase requires what coenzyme

A

Thiamine

193
Q

Reduced glutathione removes H2O2 in a reaction catalyzed by

A

Glutathione peroxidase

194
Q

An enzyme found in the liver which also functions in glycolysis in the liver by cleaving fructose 1,6 bisphosphate

A

Aldolase B

195
Q

CCA at 3’. Adaptor molecule, 2 ends are anchoring the AA at the 3’ end & at other end there is anticodon loop which interacts with mRNA. 5’ loop=di-hydrouridine. 3’ loop=T-psuedouridine C loop

A

tRNA

196
Q

Requires EF-G & GTP. 1st aminoacyl tRNA gets ejected from P site to E site.

A

Translocation

197
Q

Sequence of AA residues that is highly enriched in hydrophobic amino acid residues.

A

Signal peptide

198
Q

Site of production of chylomicron

A

Small intestines

199
Q

Transport of cholesterol from liver to tissues

A

VLDL and LDL

200
Q

Transport of cholesterol from tissues to liver (reverse transport)

A

HDL

201
Q

Transport of cholesterol from intestine to liver

A

Chylomicrons

202
Q

Toxicity: cleft palate, diarrhea, bone resorption, headache, nausea, aplopecia, hepatomegalia

A

Vit A

203
Q

Deficiency: hemorrhaging, stomach pain, bone malformation, deposits of Ca2+ in arteries

A

Vit K

204
Q

Function: Antioxidant, Radical Scavenger

A

Vit E

205
Q

What are the tissue sites for production of adrenal steroids?

A

zona glomerulosa (aldosterone)

zona fasciculata (cortisol)

zona reticularis (DHEA & androstenedione)

206
Q

What type of steroid is aldosterone?

A

mineralocorticoid

207
Q

What type of steroid is cortisol?

A

glucocorticoid

208
Q

14 subunits, nucleolus, produces rRNA precursors, resistant to inhibition by alpha-amanitin.

A

RNA polymerase I

209
Q

12 subunits, nucleus, precursor to mRNA, sensitive to alpha-amanitin

A

RNA polymerase II

210
Q

17 subunits, nucleus, synthesizes 5SrRNA, tRNA & small RNAs, moderated sensitivity to alpha-amanitin

A

RNA polymerase III

211
Q

What effect does fasting have on HMG-CoA reductase?

A

decreases activity

212
Q

What effects do insulin and thyroxin have on HMG-CoA reductase?

A

increase activity

213
Q

What is the committed step in cholesterol synthesis?

A

HMG-CoA reductase

214
Q

What receptor in the liver endocytoses chylomicrons?

A

Hepatic Apo-E receptor

215
Q

What disease boasts defective Apo-B100/E receptors?

A

familial hypercholesterolemia

216
Q

What 2 enzymes does HDL donate to maturing chylomicrons and VLDLs?

A

ApoCII and ApoE

217
Q

activates lipoprotein lipase

A

Apo CII

218
Q

What is the committed step in the synthesis of bile salts?

A

7-alpha-hydroxylase

219
Q

a rare disorder caused by defective Cys2 carrier across lysosomal membranes

A

cystinosis

220
Q

Impaired transport of neutral AAs across intestinal and renal epithelial cells

A

Hartnup disease

221
Q

lack of homogentisate oxidase involved in the catabolism of Tyr

A

Alkaptonuria