Study Notes II Flashcards

1
Q

One of HR’s strategic abilities is an awareness of external factors that can affect the organization and HR’s job. Which task reflects this ability?

A

Gathering information about technologies that could increase HR productivity

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2
Q

An HR manager meets regularly with a local education director to discuss what the educator is seeing in the system and its students. What does this activity illustrate?

A

Conducting information gathering

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3
Q

What is the most important information contained in an organization’s mission statement?

A

What the company does

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4
Q

What is the importance of the first R in the SMARTER acronym?

A

Makes sure an objective aligns with strategic goals

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5
Q

KPIs in the original balanced scorecard (developed by Robert Kaplan and David Norton) are identified under four key areas: Finance.

A

Financial KPIs may vary, but for HR they could include productivity rates and management of short-term funds. Achieving these goals is of interest to management, employees, and shareholders.

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6
Q

KPIs in the original balanced scorecard (developed by Robert Kaplan and David Norton) are identified under four key areas: Customers

A

This perspective captures the ability of the organization to provide quality goods and services and satisfy its customers. It might be measured by the number of managers using a self-service system to set up new employees, processing rates for changes in compensation or corrections in benefits, or employee satisfaction with dispute resolution services.

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7
Q

KPIs in the original balanced scorecard (developed by Robert Kaplan and David Norton) are identified under four key areas: Internal business processes.

A

This perspective focuses on the internal business results that lead to financial success and satisfied customers. For HR, key internal processes may be managing talent acquisition and retention, employee development, and providing consultation to other functions.

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8
Q

KPIs in the original balanced scorecard (developed by Robert Kaplan and David Norton) are identified under four key areas: Learning and Growth

A

This perspective looks at actions that will prepare the future organization for success—for example, by strengthening the employer brand to attract talent, making sure employees have the most current skills, or implementing knowledge management systems.

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9
Q

The acronym SMARTER is used to describe the seven qualities that characterize effective objectives.

A

Specific. Focused on a narrowly defined activity rather than a generalization.

Measurable. Capable of objective measurement. (Note that even intangibles can be measured objectively once a measurement system is established.)

Attainable. Requiring effort but within reach given effort and the right tools and support.

Relevant. Producing an outcome that is in the line of sight with the goal.

Timebound. Subject to evaluation within a reasonable and defined time frame.

Evaluated. Assessed at the designated time or interval, often continuously in the form of progress or pulse checks.
Revised. Changed to reflect what has been learned. The objective-setting process is repeated to make sure that the activities chosen are still the right activities and that the targets for results are attainable but also push performance to higher levels.

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10
Q

Why is maintaining internal communication critical during a divestiture?

A

To retain high-potential talent on both sides of the deal

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11
Q

Companies agree to share assets, such as technology or sales capabilities, to accomplish a goal. The relationship may have varying degrees of tightness and formality. Some alliances involve customers, partners, or competitors.

A

Strategic alliance

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12
Q

Two or more companies invest together in forming a new company that is jointly owned.

A

Joint venture

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13
Q

One firm acquires partial ownership through purchase of shares. The relationship may be general (sharing proportionally in control, profits, and liabilities) or limited (no managerial authority, liability limited to investment). Partnership agreements define such issues as leadership and division of profits and losses.

A

Equity partnership

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14
Q

A firm purchases the assets of a local firm outright, resulting in expanding the acquiring company’s employee base and facilities. Integration of acquired companies often involves significant cultural, systems, and management challenges. Data privacy can be a big issue.

A

Merger/acquisition

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15
Q

A trademark, product, or service is licensed for an initial fee and ongoing royalties. Often used in the fast-food industry. Similar to licensing as a low-risk entry strategy, although control over franchisee behavior is greater.

A

Franchising

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16
Q

A local firm is granted the rights to produce or sell a product. A low-risk entry strategy; avoids tariffs and quotas imposed on exports. However, there is little control of the licensee’s activities and results.

A

Licensing

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17
Q

A firm arranges for a local manufacturer to produce components or products as a means of lowering labor costs.

A

Contract manufacturing

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18
Q

Another company is brought in to manage and run the daily operations of the local business. Decisions about financing and ownership reside with the host-country owners.

A

Management contract

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19
Q

An existing facility and its operations are acquired and run by the purchaser without major changes.

A

Turnkey operation

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20
Q

A company builds a new location from the ground up. This represents a major task and a commitment to completely staff and equip the new location.

A

Greenfield operation

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21
Q

A company repurposes, through expansion or redevelopment, an abandoned, closed, or underutilized industrial or commercial property.

A

Brownfield operation

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22
Q

Growth strategies are often fueled by divestiture

A

the selective “pruning” of parts of the organization that are underperforming or that are no longer in line with the organization’s strategy.

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23
Q

Divestiture offers a number of benefits to the parent company:

A

The perceived value of a subsidiary or its opportunities may be increased. Sometimes the parent company may not have the necessary talent to take the “child company” to its next level of growth.

Investment may be recouped through the sale of a high-value subsidiary and the cash used to increase the parent’s value in other ways.

The enterprise’s activities may be refocused on new priorities, perhaps as the result of competitive threats and/or opportunities.

Risk that might derive from financial positions (such as poor cash flows or high debt load) or strategic outlooks (such as declining market growth or the possibility of a hostile takeover) can be managed.

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24
Q

The general steps for divestiture include:

A
  1. Identify the candidate for divestiture. The candidate might be a valuable but strategically unaligned business, or it might be a subsidiary competing in a market with low growth potential or competing ineffectively in the market. HR plays a role in this stage by performing due diligence as a seller: identifying potential risks connected with divesting particular candidates—for example, loss of talent, impact on employee career development opportunities or on labor contracts. HR can also participate in a SWOT analysis of the candidate.
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25
Q

The general steps for divestiture include:

A

2.Identify a target buyer. The strongest candidate will be an enterprise that needs the strengths and opportunities the divested subsidiary can provide and that can address potential weaknesses in the workforce. Some parent companies want to be sure that employees will thrive in the new company. HR can provide accurate information about the value of the workforce and can work on behalf of the employees to obtain favorable compensation and development opportunities.

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26
Q

The general steps for divestiture include:

A

3.Restructure. Even before an actual sale or spin-off, the parent company should prepare the subsidiary for its new identity by defining new leadership, board composition, and organizational structure. This will increase the value and potential of the carved-out or spun-off subsidiary. Again, HR plays an important role here. It may help identify and prepare strong leaders for the subsidiary (without harming the talent of the parent company). Leaders may be drawn from other parts of a global organization. HR will also be involved in designing incentive offers for the subsidiary’s new leaders.

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27
Q

The general steps for divestiture include:

A

Execute the deal. Transition service agreements are often established to support the new entity. Agreements might cover financial (treasury and tax), legal, IT, business processes, and HR—including such capabilities as HRIS, payroll, and benefits. HR can assemble a balanced transition team, composed of parent and subsidiary employees, to empower departing employees without ceding control over sensitive decisions.

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28
Q

What is one of the most critical tasks in preparing the HR budget?

A

Establishing a connection with the strategic plan

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29
Q

What is an HR leader’s most important concern in preparing to present strategic results to management?

A

Communicate a logical narrative with the data.

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30
Q

An organization includes short video clips on the corporate website in which employees talk about their jobs and managers discuss what they are looking for in new hires. This exemplifies

A

social media recruiting.

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31
Q

Polycentric

Subsidiary treated as own entity; local personnel manage operations; few promotions to HQ

A

Headquarters-country personnel have little impact on other countries.
Talent acquisition policies are unique to each country.
Little cross-border movement of talent and skills occurs.

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32
Q

Geocentric

Organization seen as single international enterprise; management talent comes from any location; strategic plan is global in orientation

A

Employees circulate throughout the global organization.

Talent acquisition policies maximize long-term strength of the global organization.

Talent and skills are deployed globally to achieve global goals while meeting local requirements.

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33
Q

Service specialists are given a lot of discretion when dealing with customers, and those interactions have a big effect on the organization’s sales. The difference in revenue generation and customer satisfaction between high performers and low performers is significant. What BEST describes the high performers?

A

Pivotal talent pool

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34
Q

Degrees, training, and certifications required for a position are considered

A

job specifications.

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35
Q

Job identification

A

Job title

Department or location

Date the job description was completed

Reporting

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36
Q

Position summary

A

Brief overview (four or five sentences) that summarizes the:
Purpose and objectives of the job
Expected results
Degree of freedom (for example, works independently or works under direct supervision)

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37
Q

Minimum qualifications

A

Minimum knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform the job satisfactorily

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38
Q

Duties and responsibilities

A

Primary duties and responsibilities of the job

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39
Q

Success factors

A

Personal characteristics (behaviors or proficiencies) that contribute to an individual’s ability to perform well in the job; often referred to as job competencies (Job competencies are described later in this section.)

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40
Q

Physical demands

A

The physical aspects of the job that are minimally required; typically specifies the frequency of performing these physical demands

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41
Q

Working conditions

A

The environment in which the job is performed, especially any unpleasant (or dangerous) conditions

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42
Q

Performance standards

A

Specify how the incumbent performing this job will be evaluated against goals, objectives, and organizational performance factors (e.g., quality, safety, attendance, customer service, productivity)

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43
Q

Job specifications

A

describe the minimum qualifications necessary to perform a job. A job specification should reflect what is necessary for satisfactory performance, not what the ideal candidate should have. Specifications must be written to ensure compliance with all local laws (including nondiscrimination policies).

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44
Q

Cost of hire

A

Cost of hires/number of hires

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45
Q

Cost per hire

A

Sum of internal cost + Sum of external cost/ Total number of new hires in a period.

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46
Q

The ability to compare sourcing data and hiring results is an example of a(n)

A

workforce analytic.

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47
Q

Ratio

A

the quantitative relation between two amounts showing the number of times one value contains or is contained within the other.

48
Q

An interviewer asks a candidate to describe a time when he failed to complete a task or project on time despite intending to do so. This BEST exemplifies which type of interview?

A

Competency-based

49
Q

What type of assessment tests factors such as conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, emotional stability, and openness to experience?

A

Personality

50
Q

An offer letter should be sent to a candidate immediately after

A

the hiring decision is made.

51
Q

Cognitive ability tests

A

Assess skills the candidate has already learned. Measure a variety of mental abilities, such as verbal and mathematical skills, logic, reasoning, and reading comprehension.

Typically consist of multiple-choice items that are administered via a paper-and-pencil instrument or computer.

Examples: Performance tests or work sample tests that require candidates to complete an actual work task in a controlled situation may be administered.

52
Q

Personality tests

A

Attempt to measure a person’s social interaction skills and patterns of behavior.

Report what might be described as traits, temperaments, or dispositions.

Typically administered in a paper-and-pencil or computer format.

Examples: Inventories consisting of several multiple-choice or true/false items measure personality factors such as conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, openness to experience, and emotional stability.

53
Q

Aptitude tests

A

Measure the general ability or capacity to learn or acquire a new skill.
Look at a person’s innate capacity to function.
Predict learning and training success.
Example: A test measures the natural aptitude for computers and problem solving for computer professions (e.g., systems analyst, programmer, network manager).

54
Q

Psychomotor tests

A

Require a candidate to demonstrate a minimum degree of strength, physical dexterity, and coordination in a specialized skill area.

Based on key job duties and responsibilities; they are appropriate only if the primary duties and responsibilities of the job require such abilities.
Example: A manual dexterity test is administered to a candidate for a factory assembly job.

55
Q

Assessment centers

A

Not necessarily a place but rather a method of assessing higher-level managerial and supervisory competencies.

Require candidates to complete a series of exercises that simulate actual situations, problems, and tasks they would face on the job for which they are being considered.

Usually last at least a day and up to several days.

Trained assessors observe the performance of candidates during the assessment process and evaluate them on a standardized rating.

Example: Candidates go through a battery of standardized tests and exercises such as pencil-and-paper tests, comprehensive interviews, individual and/or group role-play exercises, in-basket exercises, and work-related performance tests.

56
Q

Systems that provide resources for line managers to increase a new hire’s productivity and engagement during the first six months on a job describe

A

onboarding

57
Q

What are the components of employee engagement?

A

Personality characteristics, work environment, behaviors

58
Q

What term is used to describe an undesirable form of engagement where employees appear engaged but do not actually feel or think in an engaged way?

A

Transactional engagement

59
Q

What is the most important consideration when developing an engagement strategy?

A

Alignment with business results

60
Q

Wilmar Schaufeli and Arnold Bakker view employee engagement as the antithesis of “employee burnout,” characterized by:

A

Vigor. Employees show high levels of energy and invest effort into their work.

Dedication. Employees are involved in their work and have a sense of pride and enthusiasm about it.

Absorption. Employees are fully concentrated on and completely engrossed in their work.

61
Q

In addition to career development, compensation and benefits, and work environment, what area does SHRM recommend exploring in employee engagement surveys?

A

Relationship with management

62
Q

What does an employee engagement survey measure?

A

Employees’ commitment, motivation, sense of purpose, and passion for their work and organization

63
Q

What is a direct benefit of conducting employee surveys?

A

Early identification of workforce issues

64
Q

What is the desired primary outcome of an employee engagement survey?

A

List of employee engagement drivers

65
Q

what area does SHRM recommend exploring in employee engagement surveys?

A

Relationship with management. Some key activities identified by SHRM as being particularly important include:
Communication between employees and senior management.
Autonomy and independence to make decisions.
Management’s recognition of employee job performance (feedback, incentives, rewards).

66
Q

what area does SHRM recommend exploring in employee engagement surveys?

A

Compensation and benefits. Some key considerations related to employee engagement and compensation and benefits are:
Compensation/pay overall.
Being paid competitively with the local market.
Flexibility to balance life and work issues (alternative work arrangements, including job sharing, flexible schedules, telecommuting, etc.).
Medical benefits for employees and their families.

67
Q

what area does SHRM recommend exploring in employee engagement surveys?

A

Work environment. Examples include:
Meaningfulness of the job (understanding how the job contributes to organizational values or society as a whole).
Overall corporate culture (organization’s reputation, work ethics, values, working conditions, etc.).
Relationships with coworkers.

68
Q

Employee attitude surveys

A

attempt to determine employees’ perceptions of such topics as company culture and company image, the quality of management, the effectiveness of compensation and benefits programs, organizational communication and involvement issues, diversity, and safety and health concerns.

69
Q

Employee opinion surveys

A

tend to measure important data on specific issues. These surveys may seek to gain opinions on specific processes an employee performs, safety procedures, or some other issue the employer may be evaluating or considering.

70
Q

Employee engagement surveys

A

focus on employees’ level of job satisfaction, commitment, and morale. Survey questions or statements should explicitly link to business objectives.

71
Q

In its Q12 Engagement Survey (introduced in Section 1), Gallup examines a dozen questions that measure worker engagement and are linked to business outcomes such as retention, productivity, profitability, customer engagement, and safety:

A

Do you know what is expected of you at work?

Do you have the materials and equipment you need to do your work properly?

Do you have the opportunity to do what you do best every day?

In the past seven days, have you received recognition or praise for doing good work?

Does your supervisor, or someone at work, seem to care about you as a person?
Is there someone at work who encourages your development?

Do your opinions seem to count?

Does the mission/purpose of your company make you feel that your job is important?

Are your fellow employees committed to doing quality work?

Do you have a best friend at work?

In the past six months, has someone at work talked to you about your progress?

In the past year, have you had opportunities at work to learn and grow?

72
Q

Where can an HR professional have the most impact in shaping and driving an individual employee’s engagement?

A

At critical touchpoints in the employee life cycle

73
Q

When should an organization begin engaging employees?

A

Recruitment

74
Q

What are the two key elements of performance standards?

A

Behavior and results

75
Q

What is measured by a performance appraisal?

A

The degree to which an employee accomplishes work requirements

76
Q

What is MBO short for?

A

Management by objectives

77
Q

What is meant by “employee enablement”?

A

Setting employees up to succeed

78
Q

What is an advantage of peer-to-peer recognition programs?

A

Employees involved are better attuned to company values and feel that rewards are given out according to job performance.

79
Q

Performance standards are the expectations of management translated into two key elements that employees can deliver:

A

Behaviors. What the organization wants the employees to do.

Results. What the organization wants the employees to produce or deliver.

80
Q

The standards should be written in terms of specific measures that will be used to appraise performance. Measures of employee performance include:

A

Quality. How well the work is performed and/or how accurate or how effective the final product is.

Quantity. How much work is produced.

Timeliness. How quickly, when, or by what date the work is produced.

Cost-effectiveness. Dollar savings to the organization or working within a budget.

81
Q

The typical method of measuring employees’ adherence to performance standards and providing feedback is the performance appraisal. This process measures the degree to which an employee accomplishes work requirements.

A

Performance appraisals accomplish three purposes:

Provide feedback and counseling.

Help in allocating rewards and opportunities.

Help in determining employees’ aspirations and planning developmental needs.

82
Q

management by objectives (MBO)

A

the employees help set objectives for themselves, defining what they intend to achieve within a specified time period. The objectives are based on overall goals and objectives for the organization.

83
Q

behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)

A

The BARS method was designed to overcome the problems of category rating by describing examples of desirable and undesirable behavior. Examples are then measured against a scale of performance levels.

84
Q

The recency error occurs when an appraiser gives more weight to recent occurrences and discounts or minimizes the employee’s earlier performance during the appraisal period.

85
Q

The primacy error occurs when an appraiser gives more weight to the employee’s earlier performance and discounts or minimizes recent occurrences.

86
Q

The contrast error occurs when an employee’s rating is based on how his or her performance compares to that of another employee instead of on objective performance standards.

87
Q

Central tendency errors occur when an appraiser rates all employees within a narrow range, regardless of differences in actual performance.

A

Central tendency.

88
Q

The percentage of people who were on staff and remained there from the start to the end of a time period BEST describes

A

retention.

89
Q

Employee absent rate

A

number of days absent in a month/average number of employees per month X number of workdays in a month

90
Q

Worker’s comp incident rate

A

number of injuries/illinesses per 100 employees/Total hours worked by employees for the year X 200,000

91
Q

Monthly voluntary turnover rate

A

number of separations in a month/ average number of employees during the month 100

92
Q

Revenue per employee

A

Total revenue/ Total number of employees

93
Q

Retention Rate

A

of employees who remain employed for entire measurement period/ number of employees at the start of the measurement period X 100

94
Q

Turnover rate

A

of separations during measurement period/ average # of employees during measurement period

95
Q

What does the 70-20-10 rule indicate as the best way to structure adult learning and development?

A

70% challenging assignments, 20% developmental relationships, and 10% course­work and training

96
Q

Peter Senge’s The Fifth Discipline discusses five disciplines that interface and support one another in order to create an environment where learning can occur

A

Systems thinking (which was discussed in the HR Strategic Planning Functional Area in this People module) is a conceptual framework that makes patterns clearer and helps one see how things interrelate and how to change them.

Mental models are our deeply ingrained assumptions that influence how we understand the world and how we take action.

Personal mastery is the high level of proficiency in a subject or skill area.

Team learning is aligning and developing the capacity of a team to create the results its members desire.

Shared vision is a look into the future that fosters genuine commitment and is shared by all who need to possess it.

97
Q

For example, explicit knowledge might be shared

A

through a database or taught through a learning intervention. Because tacit knowledge is personal and experience-based, it is more challenging to quantify

98
Q

When creating knowledge retention strategies, an organization needs to consider:

A

What knowledge may be lost.

The consequences of losing that knowledge.
The actions that can be taken to retain that knowledge.

99
Q

Generally speaking, technology-based systems and “softer” systems can help to retain crucial organization knowledge.

A

Technology-based systems. These can include programs or databases that employees can access. A collaborative Wiki could be used to allow employees to add and edit information. Technology-based systems are great for retaining explicit knowledge but not as effective for tacit knowledge.

100
Q

Generally speaking, technology-based systems and “softer” systems can help to retain crucial organization knowledge.

A

Softer systems. Softer systems include meetings or other activities that take place to share knowledge and help people connect with one another. There are numerous examples of softer systems such as post-project “lessons learned,” job sharing, cross-training, mentoring, shadowing, Internet messaging, various social media applications, or communities of practice (CoPs) where groups of individuals with shared interests come together in person or virtually to tell stories, share and discuss problems and opportunities, discuss best practices, and so forth. Stay interviews, exit interviews, and alumni networks are also examples of softer systems.

101
Q

Kinesthetic learners

A

also known as tactile learners, learn best through a hands-on approach.

102
Q

A well-known and standard instructional design model that is conducive to any type of learning is called the ADDIE model. What does the letter I represent?

A

Implementation

103
Q

An advantage of blended learning over instructor-led training is that blended learning

A

is less expensive to deliver.

104
Q

ADDIE stands for:

A = Analysis (of needs)

D = Design

D = Development

I = Implementation

E = Evaluation

105
Q

The first phase of the ADDIE process is analysis or assessment, in which data is collected to identify gaps between actual and desired organizational performance.

A

When those gaps point to a lack of employee knowledge or skill, objectives are established to address training needs.

106
Q

The analysis phase is accomplished via completion of a needs assessment or needs analysis

A

A needs analysis is the process used to identify, articulate, and document the organization’s developmental needs.

107
Q

A needs analysis can be used to identify

A

The organization’s goals and its effectiveness in reaching those goals.

Gaps or discrepancies between current and desired performance.

Competency and skill gaps.

Types of programs needed.

Critical cultural influences that will affect the design and delivery of training.

Training program content based on fact rather than intuition.

108
Q

The next phase of the ADDIE process is design.

A

During this important phase, broad goals and objectives are developed and broad plans for the treatment of the content and the strategy for implementation are made. The outcome of the design phase is an architecture or rough sketch of what the final program will look like.

109
Q

The third phase of the ADDIE process is development, during which materials are created, purchased, or modified to meet the stated objectives.

A

In many cases, existing materials may, with minor modifications, be acceptable to meet specific needs. At other times, new materials must be developed. During the development phase, choices are made among the many types of learning activities, methods of training delivery, and technological tools that can be used.

110
Q

Implementation is the phase of the ADDIE process where the program is delivered to the target audience.

A

Several types of activities, including pilot programs, revisions to content, announcements and launch events, participant scheduling, and preparation of the learning environment, are done during implementation

111
Q

The final phase of the ADDIE model involves measuring the effectiveness of the training.

A

Evaluation consists of comparing the program results to the established objectives to determine whether the original needs were met. Participant reactions, retention of new information, application of new procedures, changes in behavior on the job, and changes in organizational performance are all indicators that should be considered when evaluating training results.

112
Q

Kirkpatrick’s Levels of Evaluation Methods: Level 1—Reaction

A

How participants felt about the program

113
Q

Kirkpatrick’s Levels of Evaluation Method:Level 2—Learning

A

How participants increased or otherwise changed their knowledge, skills, and attitudes

114
Q

Kirkpatrick’s Levels of Evaluation Method:Level 3

A

Behavior How participants changed their behavior on the job

115
Q

Kirkpatrick’s Levels of Evaluation Method: Results

A

How the program affected the organizational goals

116
Q

Managing Career Development