Study guide test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Caudal regression syndrome is commonly found in patients with what?

A

diabetes

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2
Q

What term defines the appearance of overlapping skull bones that indicates fetal death?

A

Spalding’s sign

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3
Q

What would fetal hydrops appear like under US and what are the sonographic findings?

A

scalp edema

pleural effusion

pericardial effusion

ascites

polyhydramnios

thickened placenta

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4
Q

If hydrops is caused by tachycardia, what would the fetal heart rate be?

A

200-240bpm

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5
Q

If a pregnant woman has a baby, and she is a patient of size, what is there an increased incidence of?

A

increased incidence of neural tube defects

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6
Q

What is caudal regression syndrome?

A

lack of development of the caudal spine and cord

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7
Q

What skeletal and central nervous system anomalies are found in infants of diabetic mothers?

A

caudal regression syndrome

neural tube defects excluding anencephaly

anencephaly with or without herniation of neural elements

microcephaly

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8
Q

When is it considered premature labor?

A

onset of labor before 37wks gest

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9
Q

Monochorionic twins, what anomaly is it when one twin develops without a heart or upper body?

A

acardiac anomaly

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10
Q

Twin to twin transfusion syndrome:

A

exists when there is an arteriovenous shunt within the placenta

arterial blood of one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other

one twin has less blood flow(develops oligo)

one twin has too much blood flow(develops poly)

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11
Q

What is poly-oli sequence?

A

diamniotic pregnancy: one sac has poly, the other has severe oligo and a smaller twin

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12
Q

What is another name for poly-oli sequence?

A

stuck twin

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13
Q

Development of conjoined twins occurs how many days after conception?

A

if division occurs after 13 days

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14
Q

Stuck twin syndrome is usually observed in what weeks?

A

usually manifests between 16-26wks gest

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15
Q

Diamniotic and dichorionic twin preg demonstrates what sonographic findings?

A

2 amnions and 2 chorions

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16
Q

What is demonstrated when one fertilized egg division occurs 4-8 days after fertilization?

A

one chorion and two amniotic sacs (monochorionic diamniotic)

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17
Q

What are the predictors of discordant in the growth of twins?

A

difference in estimated fetal weight of more than 20%

difference in BPD of 6mm

difference in AC of 20mm

difference in femur length of 5mm

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18
Q

Most frequent cause of nonimmune hydrops:

A

cardiovascular lesions

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19
Q

What are the advantages of chorionic villi samplings?

A

it is performed early in preg (10-14wks)

results are available within 1wk

earlier results allow more options for parents

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20
Q

Cordocentesis is more commonly used for what procedure?

A

guidance for transfusions to treat fetal isoimmunization

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21
Q

What is amniocentesis used for?

A

first used: to relieve polyhydramnios, Rh isoimmunization, document fetal lung maturity

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22
Q

Why do we perform amniocentesis?

A

offered to patients who are at risk for chromosomal abnormalities or biochemical disorders

23
Q

Twins that arise from two separately fertilized ova are what type of twins?

A

dizygotic

24
Q

Sonographic findings that suggest chromosomal anomalies include:

A

Tri 21: nuchal thickness, heart defects, duodenal atresia, shortened femurs, mild pyelectasis, mild ventriculomegaly, echogenic bowel

Tri 18: heart defects, choroid plexus cysts, clenched hands, micrognathia, talipes, renal anomalies, cleft lip and palate, omphalocele, CDH, cerebellar hypoplasia

Tri 13: holoprosencephaly, heart defects, cleft lip and palate, omphalocele, polydactyly, talipes, echogenic chordae tendineae, renal anomalies, meningomylocele, micrognathia

triploidy: hydatidiform placental degeneration, heart defects, renal anomalies, omphalocele, cranial defects, facial defects

Turner’s syndrome: cystic hygroma, heart defects, hydrops, renal anomalies

25
Q

AFP is found in what fetal structures?

A

major protein in fetal serum, produced by yolk sac in early gest and later by the fetal liver

found in fetal spine, gastrointestinal tract, liver, and kidneys

26
Q

High levels of AFP indicate what?

A

neural tube defects-anencephaly and open spina bifida

27
Q

What markers does the quad screen evaluate?

A

AFP, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and unconjugated estriol

28
Q

What is an abnormality of the number of chromosomes called?

A

aneuploidy

29
Q

What is an early noninvasive means of assessing the risk of aneuploidy?

A

PAPP-A, and beta hCG levels-blood test

30
Q

Following sono findings of thickening nuchal, shortened femurs, cardiac anomalies, and hydro, what do we look for?

A

Trisomy 21

31
Q

Sonographic findings of cranial anomalies, choroid plexus cyst, facial abnormalities, and rocker bottom feet?

A

Trisomy 18

32
Q

Holoprosencephaly and proboscis are found in what type of fetus?

A

Trisomy 13

33
Q

Secondary to pregnancy include hypertension, coma, seizure in 2nd and 3rd tri represent what?

A

eclampsia

34
Q

Large cystic hygroma, hydrops, coartation (arch/ascending, split, b/c of trauma) of the aorta may be seen in a fetus with what condition?

A

Turner’s syndrome

35
Q

Pregnancy associated with PAPP-A levels, what do they do?

A

increase throughout preg

decrease in preg affected by aneuploidy

36
Q

AFP produced early in gest by what structure?

A

yolk sac

37
Q

Common reason for an elevated MSAFP is what?

A

twin pregnancy

38
Q

What is the most common aneuploidy condition?

A

Down’s syndrome (trisomy 21)

39
Q

An optimal collection site in an amniocentesis is what?

A

away from the: fetus, central portion of the placenta, and umbilical cord

near the maternal midline to avoid the maternal uterine vessels

40
Q

MSAFP levels increase with advancing gest age and peak at how many wks gest?

A

15-18wks gest

41
Q

Free beta hCG can be assessed in maternal serum in the 1rst tri to evaluate an increased risk of what condition?

A

Down syndrome

42
Q

After amnio, sonographer should document what?

A

cardiac activity

43
Q

Continuous monitoring with US during amnio is invaluable in cases of what?

A

oligohydramnios, anterior placental position, and premature rupture of membranes

44
Q

Fetal death that occurs after the fetus has reached a certain growth that is too large to reabsorb into the uterus is called what?

A

fetal papyraceus

45
Q

Low AFP levels have been found in this condition (most common)?

A

trisomy 21, 18, and 13

46
Q

What is the picture of the chromosomes called?

A

karyotyping

47
Q

Abnormal NT increases fetal risk for what?

A

tri 13, 18, 21

triploidy

Turner’s syndrome

48
Q

What is associated with Turner’s syndrome?

A

cystic hygroma

heart defects

hydrops

renal anomalies

49
Q

Which is included in 1rst tri maternal serum screening?

A

PAPP-A

free beta hCG

50
Q

Conjoined twins: 5 most common types

A

thoracopagus-joined at thorax

omphalopagus-joined at the anterior wall

craniopagus-joined at the cranium (syncephalus-conjoined twins with one head)

pygopagus-joined at the ischial region

ischiopagus-attached at the buttocks

51
Q

Autosomal dominant

A

dominant disorder, condition caused by a single defective gene

usually inherited by 1 parent who is affected

may arise as a new mutation

52
Q

Autosomal recessive

A

recessive disorder, caused by a pair of defective genes, one inherited from each parent

25% chance of having a fetus with a disorder

53
Q

Mosaic patterns

A

mosaicism:occurrence of a gene mutation or chromosomal abnormality in a portion of an individual’s cells