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Spring: OB/GYN > final > Flashcards

final Flashcards

1
Q

What are the small vessels found on the periphery of the uterus?

A

arcuate vessels

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2
Q

Endovaginal length and anteverted uterus: tell where the cervix and fundus of uterus are located.

A

cervix is seen on rt side of screen

fundus on the lt side

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3
Q

Nabothian cysts, where are they located?

A

cervix (on cervix or near endocervical canal)

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4
Q

Complications in delivery can occur if there is a fibroid located where?

A

near or over cervix

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5
Q

An acquired condition with obstruction of the cervical canal?

A

cervical stenosed

(hydrometracolpus-fluid filled, hematometracolpus-blood filled, pyometracolpus-pus filled)

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6
Q

Know about adenomyosis

A

benign growth of the endometrium that may cause heavy, painful menstrual bleeding

ectopic tissue of adenomyosis arises from stratum besalis of the endometrium and causes heavy, painful periods

endometrial tissue within myometrium

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7
Q

Know how the measurement of the endometrium should be done and what time it should be measured?

A

should be measured in long plane

hyperechoic to hyperechoic

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8
Q

What is a Gardner’s duct cyst?

A

cyst found in vagina

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9
Q

Most common adnexal mass during a pregnancy

A

corpus luteum cyst

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10
Q

Tumor with a history of endometriosis

A

endometrioma

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11
Q

Know the normal ovarian texture

A

homogeneous echotexture

may exhibit a central, more echogenic medulla

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12
Q

What’s the most common benign tumor of the ovary?

A

dermoid

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13
Q

Partial or complete rotation of the ovary leads to what?

A

torsion

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14
Q

What is PID?

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

risk factors: early sexual contact, multiple sexual partners, history of sexually transmitted disease, previous history of PID, use of ICUD, douching

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15
Q

What’s an infection of the fallopian tube?

A

salpingitis

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16
Q

Most common uterine anomaly associated with infertility

A

sepate uterus, T-shaped

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17
Q

PCOS: Know all about it

A

endocrine disorder associated with chronic anovulation

includes Stein-Leventhal(infertility, oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, obesity)

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18
Q

Progesterone, after ovulation, is secreted by what structure?

A

corpus luteum cyst

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19
Q

Caudal regression syndrome: seen most commonly in patients with what disorder?

A

diabetes

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20
Q

The development of conjoined twins: when will it take place?

A

if division occurs after 13 days

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21
Q

Seizures and coma in the 3rd trimester, what is this?

A

eclampsia

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22
Q

When fetal death occurs and the baby has not been reabsorbed, what is this called?

A

papyrcus

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23
Q

Pregnant with increase in hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. What is this?

A

pre-eclampsia

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24
Q

A condition in which ascites is present in the fetal abdomen

A

non-immune hydrops

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25
Q

What findings confirm the pressence of a diamniotic preg?

A

two amniotic sacs

(membrane that separates the fetuses)

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26
Q

Overlapping of the skull bones

A

spalding sign

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27
Q

In an Rh sensitized patient, what are the sonographic findings of fetal hydrops?

A

scalp edema, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, ascites, polyhydramnios, and thickened placenta

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28
Q

Uterine contractions resolve typically in what time period?

A

20-30min

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29
Q

What is caudal regression syndrome?

A

lack of development of the caudal spine and cord

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30
Q

Premature labor, how many weeks is that?

A

before 37 weeks

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31
Q

Mono chorionic twin preg. If one develops without a head, what is it called?

A

acardiac anomaly

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32
Q

What’s another name for poly-oli?

A

stuck twin syndrome

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33
Q

A di-di preg, what will you see?

A

two amnions

two chorions

(each will have their own placenta, chorion, and sac)

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34
Q

Know twin to twin transfusion

A

exists when there is an arteriovenous shunt within the placenta

arterial blood of one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other

one twin has less blood flow (develops oligo)

one twin has more blood flow (develops poly)

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35
Q

Amniocentesis: what is it used for?

A

first used to relieve polyhydramnios, to predict Rh isoimmunization, and document fetal lung maturity

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36
Q

Reasons to perform an amnio (why do we do them?)

A

offered to patients who are at risk for chromosomal abnormalities or biochemical disorders

performed to determine karyotype, lung maturity, and Rh condition

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37
Q

Sonographic findings that may suggest a chromosomal anomaly

A

Nuchal thickness, shortened femurs, echogenic bowel, heart defects, duodenal atresia, talipes, omphalocele, clenched hands, holoprosencephaly, cleft lip and palate, renal anomalies, polydactyly, cranial defects, facial defects, hydrops, cystic hygroma

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38
Q

Where is AFP found in the fetus?

A

produced by yolk sac in early gest and later by the fetal liver

found in fetal spine, gastrointestinal tract, liver, kidneys

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39
Q

What does the quad screen evaluate?

A

AFP, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and unconjugated estriol

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40
Q

Early noninvassive means of assessing aneuploidy?

A

NT test

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41
Q

What is the condition of increased nuchal thickening shortened femurs, cardiac anomaly, and fluid in the kidneys?

A

Trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome)

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42
Q

Cranial anomalies, choroid plexus cyst, facial anomalies, and rocker bottom feet

A

Trisomy 18 (Edward’s syndrome)

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43
Q

What disorder has holoprosencephaly and a proboscus?

A

Trisomy 13

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44
Q

Large cystic hygroma, hydrops, and coarctation of the aorta

A

Turner’s syndrome

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45
Q

Most common aneuploidy condition

A

Trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome)

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46
Q

Amniotic fluid AFP, what does it do with fetal age?

A

decreases

47
Q

Post amniocentesis: the sonographer demonstrates what?

A

fetal cardiac activity

48
Q

4D ultrasound, what is it?

A

also known as active matrix arrays

3D real time ultrasound

49
Q

Advantages of 3D ultrasound

A

Easier to demonstrate a fetal anomaly to the parents

Excellent diagnostic tool for evaluation of fetal anomalies throughout the pregnancy

Surgeons are requesting 3D/4D ultrasound to aid in the localization of a mass before surgery

50
Q

If you see a single umbilical artery, what should you look for?

A

genitourinary defect

51
Q

Most common cord entanglement

A

nuchal cord

52
Q

What is it when the cord is over the fetal haed and shoulder?

A

true knot

53
Q

Cord insertsinto the membranes before it inserts into the placenta, what is this known as?

A

velamentous (membranous)

54
Q

What leads to inadequate fetal descent?

A

short cord

55
Q

4D: x-ray mode and volume rendering

A

x-ray mode(transparent mode)- best for viewing a relatively low-contrast block of soft tissue, not very useful with obstetric imaging

method is an extension of the planar reconstruction method, because the additional image processing techniques are applied to a region of interest within the 3D volume data set

56
Q

What is ductus venosus and ductus arteriosis?

A

connects umbilical vein to the IVC and allows oxygenated blood to bypass the liver and return directly to the heart (collapses and becomes ligamentum venosum after birth)

communicating structure that carries oxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery to the descending aorta, closes after birth

57
Q

What forms the umbilical cord?

A

fusion of the omphalomesenteric (yolk stalk) and allantois ducts, during first 5 wks

58
Q

What’s the length of the umbilical cord?

A

short cord= less than 35cm

long cord= greater than 80cm

normal= 40cm to 60cm

59
Q

What is a cystic mass in the umbilical cord?

A

omphalomesenteric or allantoic in origin

60
Q

Prolapse cord

A

cord lies below the presenting part

61
Q

Acrania and anencephaly: what makes them different?

A

acrania- absence of skull

anencephaly- absence of skull and brain

62
Q

How do sonographers typically evaluate AF?

A

eyeball assessment

63
Q

Most common neck mass of a fetus

A

cystic hygroma colli

64
Q

Anomaly where a proboscis is present

A

holoprosencephaly

65
Q

cleft lips and palate

A

most common malformation of the face

most often seen in groups with: trisomies 13, 18, 21

triploidy

translocations

66
Q

Spina bifida: scanning parameters-what’s the best view?

A

coronal

67
Q

Meckel-Gruber Syndrome

A

commonly associated with cephaloceles anr encephalocele, polydactyly, polycystic kidneys

68
Q

Arnold-Chiari malformation

A

demonstrates a banana shaped cerebellum and scalloping frontal bones producing a lemon shaped head

69
Q

Ventriculomegaly

A

considered dilated when diameter is greater than 10mm

teratoma may cause dilation

common causes: spina bifida and encephaloceles

abnormalities linked with: aqueductal stenosis, arachnoid cysts, and vein of Galen aneurysms

70
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Associated with: ventriculomegaly, Dandy-Walker malformation, agenesis of the corpus callosum, lissencephaly, schizencephaly, holoprosencephaly

71
Q

Encephalocele

A

herniation of the meninges and brain through the defect

72
Q

Fetal viability: what’s the most important piece of info?

A

pulmonary development

73
Q

Chest: normal fetal thorax (all it should include)

cardiac rates

A

thoracic cavity-symmetrically bell shaped: with the ribs forming the lateral margins, clavicles forming the upper margins, and the diaphragm forming the lower margins, lungs serve as the lateral borders for the heart and lie superior to the diaphragm

normal: 120-160bpm
bradycardia: <90bpm
tachycardia: > 170bpm

74
Q

CCAM: Congenital Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation

A

Type I (macrocystic)- single or multiple large cysts 2cm in diameter, good pronosis after resection of affected lung

Type II (macrocystic w/microcystic component)- multiple small cysts <1cm in diameter, echogenic; high incident of other congenital anomalies (renal, gastrointestinal)

Type III (microcystic)- large, bulky, non cystic lesions producing mediastinal shift, poor prognosis

75
Q

Most common lung cysts

A

bronchogenic cysts

76
Q

Texture of the lungs- what should they look like?

A

homogeneous with moderate echogenicity

77
Q

Diaphragmatic hernias

A

allows the abdominal organs to enter the fetal chest

opening in the pleuroperitoneal membrane primitive diaphragm is intact by end of 8th gest wk

most common type occurs posteriorly and laterally in the diaphragm over 90% (herniation through the foramen of Bachdalek)

78
Q

Amnion rupture: what does it lead to?

A

amniotic band syndrome

79
Q

Limb-body wall complex

A

more common on left side

anomally with large cranial, facial, and body wall defects

occurs with the fusion of the amnion and chorion, amnion does not cover the umbilical cord normally, but extends as a sheet from the margin of the cord and is continuous with both the body wall and the placenta

80
Q

omphalocele

A

evisceration of bowel or a combo of liver and bowel into the base of the umbilical cord

bowel omphaloceles appear as echogenic and must be distinguished from an umbilical hernia

membrane composed of peritoneum and amnion forms the omphalocele sac encasing the herniated organs

81
Q

gastroschisis

A

consequence of atrophy of the rt umbilical vein, or a disruption of the omphalomesenteric artery

visceration of bowel to the right of the umbilical cord

defects are small: 2-4mm

located next to normal cord insert

82
Q

umbilical hernia

A

omphalocele with normal cord insertion

covered by skin and fat

83
Q

Abdominal wall-development of area

A

intestines return to the abdominal cavity by the 12th wk of gest

most common defects: omphalocele and gastroschisis

84
Q

Situs Inversus and partial situs inversus

A

full- right side heart axis and aorta

transposition of liver, stomach, and spleen; left side gb

partial- thoracic viscera are usually reversed

abdominal viscera may ar may not be reversed

85
Q

Haustral folds- where do we find them?

A

colon

86
Q

What other anomalies may be seen with esophageal atresia?

A

most common- anorectal atresia

others- vertebral defects, heart defects, renal and limb anomalies (VACTERL)

87
Q

What are the 5 types of conjoined twins?

A

thoracopagus- joined at thorax

omphalopagus- joined at the anterior wall

craniopagus- joined at the cranium (syncephalus-conjoined twins with one head)

pygopagus- joined at ischial region

ischiopagus- attached at the buttocks

88
Q

Know about the bladder

A

dilated bladder with keyhole appearance-posterior urethral valve obstruction

extrophy of bladder- males, 1/50,000 births; protrusion of the posterior wall of the bladder which contains the trigone and ureteric orifices; caused by the defective closure of the inferior part of abdominal wall during 4th wk gest

89
Q

Fetus has both ovarian and testicular tissue, what is it?

A

hermaphroditism

90
Q

Findings when there is renal agenesis

A

oligohydramnios

absence of fetal bladder

small thorax

91
Q

Potter’s Syndrome

A

renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, pulmonary hyperplasia, abnormal facies, and malformed hands and feet

92
Q

multicystic dysplastic kidney

A

multiple noncommunicating cysts of variable sizes

93
Q

Normal AP diameter of the renal pelvis should not exceed what at 20wks?

A

4mm

94
Q

Cystic dilatation of the ureter

A

ureterocele

95
Q

Normal amniotic fluid and renal agenesis

A

14-16wks

96
Q

Infantile polycystic kidney disease

A

enlarged fetal kidneys, echogenic, bilateral

97
Q

Terms for bone length

A

rhizomelia-shortened prox extremities

mesomelia-shortened middle extremities

micromelia-all extremities are shortened

sirenomelia-fusion of lower extremities

phocomelia-hands or feet connected to long bones (no middle bones)

amelia-absence of one or more extremities

achieropodia-symmetric absence of the hands and feet

98
Q

Ellis-Van Creveld syndrome

A

associated with the amish community

known as chondoectodermal dysplasia

limb shortening, polydactyly, heart defects (50%), narrow thorax, death up to 50%

survivors- short, normal intellect

99
Q

Thanatorphoric Dysplasia

A

cloverleaf skull, extreme micromelia, short ribs

100
Q

most common nonlethal skeletal abnormality

A

achondroplasia

101
Q

most common lethal skeletal abnormality

A

thanatorphoric dysplasia

102
Q

Robert’s syndrome

A

rare condition characterized by phocomelia and facial anomalies

103
Q

Jeune’s syndrome

A

small thorax, rhizomelia, renal dysplasia, and polydactyly

104
Q

short rib polydactyly

A

lethal skeletal dysplasia characterized by short ribs, short limbs, and polydactyly

105
Q

Abnormal displacement of the septal lead of the tricuspid valve

A

ebsteins

106
Q

most common form of cyanotic heart disease in infants and children

A

Tetralogy of Fallout

107
Q

clinodactyly

A

overlapping of digits

108
Q

VACTERL Association

A

Associated with anorectal atresia

grouping of complex anomalies

Vertebral defects-Anal atresia-Cardiac anomalies-Transesophageal fistula-Renal anomalies-Limb displaysia

109
Q

Lethal multiple pterygium

A

webbing across joint in multiple contrapers

110
Q

Pena shokeir syndrome

A

same as US characteristics of trisomy 18

111
Q

Lena Saldino syndrome (achondrogenesis type II)

A

less severe, more common, spontaneous mutation

112
Q

Arthrovrtosis multiplex congenita

A
113
Q

Omphalocele vs gastroschisis

A

membrane, card goes through defect, high percentage of chromosomal anomalies

no membrane, cord is to the left (defect is to the right)

Spring: OB/GYN (7 decks)

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