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Spinal Anatomy II > Study Guide Questions Exam 1 > Flashcards

Study Guide Questions Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which mammals do no have seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three toed sloth

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2
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

ontogenetic variation

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3
Q

Which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?

A

gender variation or sexual dimorphism, ontogenetic variation, geographic or population based variation, and idiosyncratic variation

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4
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

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5
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

about 12 cm or 5 in

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6
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?

A

about 28 cm or 11 in

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7
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

A

about 58 cm or 23 in

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8
Q

Distinguish between motion and locomotion

A

motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site/location

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9
Q

What organ(s) are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

The eye and the vestibular apparatus to the inner ear

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10
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical=rectangular
Thoracic= triangular
lumbar=reniform

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11
Q

What is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate

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12
Q

What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at eh superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

A

ages 7-9 years, appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
age 12 years, formation of the epiphyseal ring
age 15 years, formation of the epiphyseal rim

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13
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical=posterolateral
thoracic=posterior, slight lateral
lumbar=posterior

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14
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

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15
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray?

A

shingling

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16
Q

What is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical-articular pillar

thoracic and lumbar-pars interarticularis

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17
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical=anterolateral
thoracic=posterolateral
lumbar=lateral

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18
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

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19
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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20
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed by the articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

The zygapophysis

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21
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervetebral foramen?

A

The inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/ pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

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22
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervetebral foramen?

A

The inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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23
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervetebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

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24
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

imbrication

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25
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical- slight angle inferiorly
thoracic- noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar- no inferior angle

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26
Q

What is the name given to the union of all vertebral foramina into an apparent vertical cylinder?

A

The vertebral canal or spinal canal

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27
Q

What neural structres will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A

The spinal cord/spinal medulla/ medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges

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28
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

cervical- triangular
thoracic- oval
lumbar- triangular
sacrum- triangular

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29
Q

Identify the meninges of teh spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each.

A

dura mater-tough mother
arachnoid mater- spider mother
pia mater-tender or delicate mother

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30
Q

Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord spinal medulla/medulla spinalis

A

epidural space- between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
subdural space-between the dural mater and the arachnoid mater
subarachnoid space- between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

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31
Q

Whic of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
posterior longitudinal ligament
hoffmann ligaments

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32
Q

What are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder arteries, posterior medullary feeder arteries, neural artery

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33
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

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34
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets?

A

posterior distal radicular artery

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35
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

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36
Q

The continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris is called?

A

filum terminale internum

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37
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargment locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement;

T9-T12, the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement

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38
Q

What is a generic cord level of origin-vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra
L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra
L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

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39
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically S4, S5, and Co1

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40
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of teh meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

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41
Q

What is the name given to the condition where the cons medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

Tethered cord syndrome

42
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

The spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple.
the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4, rib 4 joints with this same vertebral couple

43
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is grater than anterior height by a few millimeters

44
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

45
Q

What is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?

A

amphiarthrosis syndesmosis

46
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified diarthrosis sellar

47
Q

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-lateral articulation?

A

amphiarthrosis symphysis

48
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

10

49
Q

Wat is the ame given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

50
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

the longus colli muscle

51
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

Posterolateral, 45 degrees

52
Q

What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?

A

ligamentum flavum

53
Q

The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6

54
Q

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

55
Q

What muscle will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransverse muscle

56
Q

What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

middle scalene and posterior intertransverse muscles

57
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)

58
Q

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

the vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

59
Q

What muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?

A

The longissimus capitis, longissiumus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators

60
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle

61
Q

What muscles will attach to typical cervical articular processes?

A

The longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators

62
Q

What muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses?

A

The semispinalis capitis, multifidis and rotator longus

63
Q

The greates range of flexion-extension among the typical cervical vertebrae occurs at which vertebral couple?

A

Typically C5/C6

64
Q

What motions are coupled in the cervical spine?

A

Lateral bending and axial rotation

65
Q

Ranges of coupled motion among the typical cervical vertebrae will begin to decrease at what cervical vertebral couple?

A

the C5/C6 vertebral couple

66
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

67
Q

What is the name given to the patter of ossification in messenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

68
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

69
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

70
Q

What are examples of short bone?

A

most of the bones in the carpus and tarsus

71
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

72
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

73
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous crest elevation?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

74
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramina?

A

An ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

75
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

76
Q

What is the definition of an osseous meatus?

A

a blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone

77
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of adjacent bones

78
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

79
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

The neurocranium, the splanchocranium or fiacial skeleton and the auditory ossicles

80
Q

Wha are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

81
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs

82
Q

What are the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints?

A

suture, gomphosis, schindylesis and syndesmosis

83
Q

What are the sutura vera?

A

true sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembraneous ossification

84
Q

What are the sutura notha?

A

false sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surface; typically formed by endochondral ossification

85
Q

What are examples of a permanent amphiarthrosis synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

86
Q

What are the characteristics of an amphiarthrosis symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

87
Q

Which example of an amphiarthrosis symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

88
Q

What are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

89
Q

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

they resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

90
Q

what are the characteristic of type III articular receptors?

A

resembles Golgi tendon organs, are present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

91
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

synovial villi, articular fat pads or Haversian glands and synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

92
Q

What are the three classifications of synovial membrane?

A

articular, vaginal and bursal synovial membrane

93
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

94
Q

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

A

water, cells, collagen type II fibers and a proteoglycan gel

95
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycoaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

96
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

97
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

98
Q

Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication

A

weeping theory implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film

Boosted theory implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid

Boundary theory implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed

99
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

100
Q

What are the classifications of diarthroses based on the number of articulating surfaces?

A

simple, compound, and complex synovial joints

101
Q

What is a complex diarthrosis?

A

the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

Spinal Anatomy II (7 decks)

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