Study guide (ch 5-8) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Epidermis is the…

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dermis is the…

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypodermis is the…

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is stratum corneum composed of?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the stratum Lucidum layer?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens in the Stratum Granulosum layer?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the stratum spinosum layer contain?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Stratum Basale is the…

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the stratum basale layer contain?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the epidermal ridges and dermal papillae do?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define the keratin structure

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define keratinocytes

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define Melanocytes

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are Langerhans cells?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do melanocytes contribute to melanin?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the hypodermis composed of?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define the papillary layer

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define the reticular layer

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The most superficial layer of the epidermis is the

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how is melanin distributed to the keratinocytes?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The papillary layer of the dermis is most closely associated with which layer of the epidermis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Squamous cell carcinomas affect which cells of the epidermis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In general, the most common type of skin cancer is ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which layer of your epidermis keeps you from drying out?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In the epidermis, the dividing cells are found in the ___________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Langerhans (dendritic) cells are commonly found in the ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which layer of the epidermis contains keratohyalin granules?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Melanin is a derivative of what base molecule?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The papillary and reticular layers of the dermis are composed mainly of ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Collagen lends ________ to the skin.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What molecule, in addition to melanin, can accumulate in epidermal cells and change skin color?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In response to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system, the arrector pili ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The cuticle of hair is composed largely of ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What part of the nail contains the rapidly dividing cells which cause the nail to grow?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sebaceous glands ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is the free edge of the nail, is composed of a thickend stratum corneum, and furthest from the nail growth center?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Eccrine sweat glands ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of gland is a mammary gland?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In humans, exposure of the skin to sunlight is required for ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are common age-related changes?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 5 key functions of the skeletal system?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

most likely to be released when blood calcium levels are elevated?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

With respect to their direct effects on osseous tissue, which pair of hormones has actions that oppose each other?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In bone repair, the internal and external calli are replaced by ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following hormones are responsible for the adolescent growth spurt?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Calcium cannot be absorbed from the small intestine if ________ is lacking.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bones grow in length due to activity in the ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bones grow in diameter due to bone formation ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the correct sequence of zones in the epiphyseal plate?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

By definition, in a compound fracture, ________.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The area of a bone where the nutrient foramen passes forms what kind of bone marking?

A
44
Q

What bones is (are) formed by intramembranous ossification?

A
45
Q

What covers the outer and inner surfaces of bones, and is covered by either periosteum or endosteum?

A
45
Q

In endochondral ossification, what happens to the chondrocytes?

A
45
Q

Why are osteocytes spread out in bone tissue?

A
46
Q

What structure consists of bone cells organized around a central canal separated to by concentric lamellae?

A
47
Q

Which cells do not originate from osteogenic cells?

A
48
Q

Which of the following are incapable of undergoing mitosis?

A
49
Q

The fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of the bone is the ________.

A
50
Q

The diaphysis contains ________ in the walls of the shaft.

A
51
Q

What occurs in the spongy bone of the epiphysis?

A
52
Q

Long bones enable body movement by acting as a ________.

A
53
Q

Bones that surround the spinal cord are classified as ________ bones

A
53
Q

Which category of bone is the femur?

A
54
Q

Sesamoid bones are found embedded in ________.

A
55
Q

The skeletal system is made of ________.

A
55
Q

Most of the bones of the arms and hands are long bones; however, the bones in the wrist are categorized as ________.

A
56
Q

What can be found in areas of movement?

A
57
Q

Yellow marrow has been identified as ________.

A
58
Q

Red marrow has been identified as ________.

A
59
Q

Without red marrow, bones would not be able to ________.

A
60
Q

Bone tissue can be described as ________.

A
61
Q

Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident?

A
62
Q

The axial skeleton ________.

A
63
Q

The paranasal sinuses are ________.

A
63
Q

what is a function of the axial skeleton?

A
64
Q

The middle cranial fossa ________.

A
64
Q

The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bone to the ________.

A
64
Q

What is a bone of the brain case?

A
65
Q

Parts of the sphenoid bone include the ________.

A
66
Q

Which bony openings of the skull is completely within the occipital bone?

A
67
Q

What bone is in the orbit?

A
68
Q

The zygomatic arch is composed of extensions of what two bones?

A
69
Q

The cervical region of the vertebral column consists of ________.

A
70
Q

A curvature of the spine which causes you to bend over forward is called a

A
70
Q

The primary curvatures of the vertebral column ________.

A
71
Q

In a typical vertebra, the spinal cord passes through the ________.

A
72
Q

The first cervical vertebra is known as the______; the second cervical vertebra is known as the ______.

A
72
Q

The process which extends posteriorly on a vertebra is the

A
73
Q

A typical lumbar vertebra has ________.

A
74
Q

Which of the vertebra have a foramen in the transverse process?

A
74
Q

Embryonic development of what part of the axial skeleton involves intramembranous ossification?

A
75
Q

A fontanelle ________.

A
76
Q

The tubercle of a rib ________.

A
77
Q

True ribs are ________.

A
78
Q

The sternal angle is the ________.

A
79
Q

What is at the center of an intervertebral disc?

A
80
Q

The sternum is composed of what parts?

A
81
Q

What ligament connects the cervical region of the vertebral column to the base of the skull?

A
82
Q

The clavicle ________.

A
83
Q

Which event takes place during the fourth week of development?

A
84
Q

What is the total number of bones found in the foot and toes?

A
85
Q

Which tarsal bone articulates with both the tibia and fibula?

A
86
Q

What structure contributes to the most medial part of the knee joint?

A
87
Q

What angle is a measure of the amount of lateral deviation of the femur from the vertical link of the tibia?

A
88
Q

Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments?

A
89
Q

The female pelvis differs from the male pelvis in that ________.

A
90
Q

Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone?

A
90
Q

The ischial spine is found between which of the following structures?

A
91
Q

what supports body weight when sitting?

A
92
Q

How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone?

A
93
Q

What is a distal fracture of the radius called?

A
94
Q

What connective tissue band forms the palmar boundary of the carpal tunnel?

A
95
Q

Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row?

A
96
Q

How many phalanges do the four non thumb fingers have? How many phalanges does the thumb have?

A
97
Q

The radius bone ________.

A

has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna

97
Q

Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus?

A

greater tubercle

98
Q

What part of the ulna fits into the trochlea of the humerus?

A

olecranon

99
Q

Which region of the humerus articulates with the radius as part of the elbow joint?

A

capitulum

100
Q

Name the short, hook-like bony process of the scapula that projects anteriorly.

A

coracoid process

101
Q

What structure is an extension of the spine of the scapula?

A

acromion

102
Q

Which feature lies between the spine and superior border of the scapula?

A

suprascapular notch

102
Q

What part of the scapula does the clavicle articulate with?

A

acromiun

102
Q

A shoulder separation results from injury to the ________.

A

glenohumeral joint

102
Q

Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium?

A

sternal end