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ICND2 (CCNA) > Study Guide > Flashcards

Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

The Cisco platform that can verify ACLs is which of the following?

a. Cisco Firewall
b. Cisco Router
c. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
d. Cisco APIC

A

d. Cisco APIC

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2
Q

The Cisco SDN has centralized management, which component is responsible for this?

a. Cisco ACI
b. Cisco EM
c. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
d. Cisco SDN

A

a. Cisco ACI

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3
Q

Stub routing is supported on the following routing protocols (Choose 2):

a. RIP
b. OSPF
c. EIGRP
d. Static
e. IGRP

A

b. OSPF

c. EIGRP

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4
Q

TACACS+ supports separate authentication.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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5
Q

When viewing a routing table and IPv6 routes are populated, what is indicates?

a. IPv4 is working
b. IPv6 static or routing protocols are in use
c. IPv6 is tunneling is working.
d. IPv6 OSPF autonomous systems are all set to 3.

A

b. IPv6 static or routing protocols are in use

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6
Q

OSPF timers are normally what by default?

a. 10 second hello, 30 second dead, 30 second wait
b. 40 second hello, 10 second dead, 10 second wait
c. 10 second hello, 40 second dead, 40 second wait
d. 10 second hello, 10 second dead, 40 second wait.

A

c. 10 second hello, 40 second dead, 40 second wait

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7
Q

OSPFv3 has the following upgrades over V2.
(Choose 2):

a. No need for network statements
b. Applied to the interface
c. Router-ID generated automatically
d. No need for a DR or BDR as all networks no longer need to be in the same subnet.

A

a. No need for network statements

b. Applied to the interface

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8
Q

Which of the following are true statements in regards to HSRP?
(Choose 3)

a. The virtual IP and MAC are active on all routers.
b. The virtual IP and MAC are active on the master router
c. The timers are 10 second hello and 3 second dead
d. The timers are 3 second hello and 10 second dead
e. There is a 255 group limit per interface for load balancing
f. There is a 255 group limit for the entire router for load balancing.

A

b. The virtual IP and MAC are active on the master router
d. The timers are 3 second hello and 10 second dead
e. There is a 255 group limit per interface for load balancing

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9
Q

Implementing DNS for cloud computing has which of the following benefits?

a. Redirecting user requests to locations that use less network resources
b. Enabling DNS to be accessible from anywhere
c. Enabling DNS to be load balanced locally.
d. Redirecting user requests to the google machine.

A

a. Redirecting user requests to locations that use less network resources

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10
Q

Named ACLs are:

a. The same as numbered ACLs in that they support standard and expanded.
b. The same as numbered ACLs in that they support standard and extended.
c. The same as numbered ACLs in that they only support extended ACLs.
d. The same as numbered ACLs in that you can remove a single line with the “no” command.
e. The same as numbered ACLs in that they only support standard ACLs.

A

b. The same as numbered ACLs in that they support standard and extended.

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11
Q

RSTP has the following states: (Choose 3)

a. Discarding
b. Blocking
c. Listening
d. Learning
e. Forwarding
f. Disabling

A

a. Discarding
d. Learning
e. Forwarding

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12
Q

How can you disable DTP on a switchport?

a. Set it to trunking
b. Set it to access
c. Set it to dynamic
d. Set it to dot1q

A

b. Set it to access

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13
Q

What is the object called that is sent between switches that is used to elect the root bridge?

a. BDU
b. BPU
c. BDPU
d. BPDU

A

d. BPDU

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14
Q

How can you put a port into a forwarding state immediately with spanning tree?

a. DTP
b. Port fast
c. BPDU Guard
d. Fast Port

A

b. Port fast

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15
Q

DTP sends all information over which VLAN by default on a switch?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 1000
d. 1001
e. 1002
f. 1003

A

a. 1

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16
Q

Which protocol is used to authenticate users on a port before permitting them to use the LAN?

a. 802.3
b. 802.2w
c. 802.1x
d. 802.3d
e. 802.11g

A

c. 802.1x

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17
Q

On a switch, which VLAN is the default on an access port?

a. 9
b. 2
c. 1000
d. 1001
e. 1002
f. 1

A

f. 1

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18
Q

When using SNMP queries, which item can you configure to restrict SNMP queries to an OID?

a. A record
b. AAA record
c. View record
d. Traps
e. Alerts
f. MIB

A

c. View record

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19
Q

How can you identify a neighbor in BGP? (Choose 2)

a. The remote autonomous system
b. The neighbor RID
c. The network command
d. The neighbor IP address

A

a. The remote autonomous system

d. The neighbor IP address

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20
Q

What occurs when there are multiple routes to a destination in the routing table?

a. They are used based on the best metric.
b. One is removed as you can only have one route to a destination at a time.
c. They are load balanced.
d. One is put into the topology database.

A

c. They are load balanced.

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21
Q

What are the two items that make up a BPDU and determine STP topology? (Choose 2)

a. Priority
b. MAC Address
c. Cost
d. Port numbers

A

a. Priority

b. MAC Address

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22
Q

Proxy ARP can induce issues on the network, which of the following are possible problems?

a. ICMP timeouts
b. MAC Address table instability
c. ARP cache poisoning
d. DDoS attacks

A

d. DDoS attacks

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23
Q

Traffic policing…

a. Shapes traffic to a specified data rate
b. Uses a bit bucket to allow traffic
c. Permits traffic if it meats a specified QoS marking
d. Drops traffic exceeding the CIR.

A

d. Drops traffic exceeding the CIR.

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24
Q

Which interface negotiates an IP for a PPPoE client?

a. Dialer-pool
b. Physical interface
c. Sub-interface
d. Dialer

A

d. Dialer

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25
Q

Which PPPoE server configuration provides a client an IP address?

a. Dialer Interface
b. Dialer-Pool
c. Virtual-Template
d. Sub-Interface

A

c. Virtual-Template

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26
Q

With QoS, as data approaches the public internet edge, what happens?

a. Marked packets are untagged.
b. Marked packets are retagged
c. Marked packets are tagged
d. Marked packets are maintained.

A

a. Marked packets are untagged.

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27
Q

What is the default DTP mode on a switch?

a. Desirable
b. Trunk
c. Static Access
d. Auto

A

d. Auto

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28
Q

What determines a VLAN and the encapsulation method on a sub-interface?

a. Encapsulation dot1q 58
b. Dot1q Encapsulation 58
c. 58 Encapsulation dot1q
d. Dot1q 58 Encapsulation

A

a. Encapsulation dot1q 58

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29
Q

What is used to monitor traffic on switchports by duplicating frames on either a port, group of ports, or the entire VLAN?

a. STP
b. SPAN
c. VTP
d. LLDP
e. CDP
f. ICMP

A

b. SPAN

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30
Q

When communicating over a serial line, routers use what types of connections to communicate? (Choose 2)

a. DCE
b. DSC
c. DEC
d. DTE
e. DET

A

a. DCE

d. DTE

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31
Q

What is a valid number for an extended ACL?

a. 1
b. 99
c. 1699
d. 105

A

d. 105

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32
Q

DMVPNs require the following topology:

a. Spokes
b. Hubs
c. Bus
d. Star
e. Ring
f. Hub and Spoke

A

f. Hub and Spoke

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33
Q

EIGRPv6 is different from EIGRPv4 in that it only needs: (Choose 2)

a. A network command
b. A router-ID
c. Passive-interfaces
d. Configuration on the interface itself

A

b. A router-ID

d. Configuration on the interface itself

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34
Q

Stacking switches gives us:

a. Redundancy
b. Higher port density
c. More VLANs
d. More STP instances

A

b. Higher port density

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35
Q

Encryption in SNMPv3 is provided by the:

a. Auth
b. Nopriv
c. Priv
d. authPriv

A

c. Priv

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36
Q

What does the “load” field mean in the show interface port-channel 10 etherchannel command?

a. The number of source-destination pairs on the link
b. The number of destinations
c. The number of links available
d. The number of ports in port channel

A

a. The number of source-destination pairs on the link

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37
Q

You need to find the link-local addresses of all neighbors currently connected to your EIGRPv6 router, what command do you issue?

a. Show ipv6 neighbors
b. Show run
c. Show ipv6 route
d. Show ipv6 interface brief
e. Show ipv6 eigrp neighbors

A

e. Show ipv6 eigrp neighbors

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38
Q

What is the first thing needed when configuring an SNMPv3 user?

a. Configure the user
b. Configure the server group
c. Configure the privileges
d. Configure the credentials

A

b. Configure the server group

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39
Q

What are two things that can cause collision domain problems on a VLAN? (Choose 2)

a. Duplex mismatches
b. Speed mismatches
c. Port mismatches
d. Inband Congestion

A

a. Duplex mismatches

d. Inband Congestion

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40
Q

EIGRP cannot form a neighbor with another router. What are possible issues? (Choose 3)

a. Timer mismatches
b. Authentication mismatches
c. K-Value mismatches
d. Network command mismatches

A

b. Authentication mismatches
c. K-Value mismatches
d. Network command

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41
Q

What are HSRP states? (Choose 4)

a. Listen
b. Learning
c. Speak
d. Active
e. Passive
f. Standby

A

a. Listen
c. Speak
d. Active
f. Standby

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42
Q

What is the default STP priority on any switch?

a. 32768
b. 16484
c. 4096
d. 8192

A

a. 32768

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43
Q

Which spanning tree feature puts a port into disabled mode immediately when a BPDU is detected?

a. Portfast
b. BPDU root
c. Fastport
d. BPDU guard
e. Watch dog

A

d. BPDU guard

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44
Q

Used to ensure EIGRP information is between neighbors.

A

RTP - Reliable Transport Protocol

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45
Q

These values must match between 2 routers in the same autonomous system.

A

K-Values

46
Q

EIGRP is considered this kind of routing protocol?

A

Hybrid

47
Q

A T1 line is considered this type of connection?

A

Leased Line

48
Q

This is a WAN design that enables spokes to communicate directly to each other after first using the HUB.

A

DMVPN

49
Q

The Cisco only protocol that balances gateways based on user.

A

GLBP

50
Q

This protocol uses a virtual IP that can be the same as the interface on which it resides.

A

VRRP

51
Q

The hello timer of HSRP?

A

3 sec

52
Q

This ensures that a priority check is done.

A

Preempt on Active router

53
Q

EIGRP uses these two values to determine the best path.

A

Bandwidth

Delay

54
Q

This value is assigned to K1.

A

Bandwidth

55
Q

This command disables dynamic trunking protocols on a port?

A

Switchport nonegotiate

56
Q

This is used when needing to adjust load balancing with a router.

A

Maximum paths

57
Q

255.240.0.0 is represented as this wildcard mask.

A

0.15.255.255

58
Q

This routing protocol uses 20 as an administrative distance?

A

eBGP

59
Q

The log command on an ACL performs this?

A

Records hits made against your ACL.

60
Q

OSPFv3 improves over OSPFv2 by removing these?

A

Network commands

61
Q

This can be used to secure a VPN?

A

IPSEC

62
Q

Every ACL requires this within its configuration to be effective.

A

At least 1 permit statement

63
Q

This is the range of standard ACLs.

A

1-99

64
Q

This verifies ACLs through a software interface.

A

Path Trace Analysis Tool on APIC-EM

65
Q

2 trunk ports are not working because of this mismatched command.

A

Mismatched Encapsulation

66
Q

This WAN protocol is Cisco only.

A

HDLC

67
Q

This VLAN carries untagged traffic by default.

A

Native VLAN

68
Q

This uses analog lines to enable a WAN connection and must use a multiplexer.

A

DSL - Digital Subscribe Link

69
Q

This VLAN is used to carry STP messages.

A

VLAN 1

70
Q

This is the default status on a swithport.

A

Dynamic Auto

71
Q

This WAN protocol supports CHAP over serial.

A

PPP

72
Q

Syslog & SNMP belong to this plane.

A

Management Plane

73
Q

These routing protocols have stub sites.

A

OSPF & EIGRP

74
Q

This interface receives an IP in PPPoE.

A

Dialer

75
Q

IPv6 access control lists are configured in which of the following ways?

a. Using ACL numbers 2300–2499
b. Using ACL numbers 3000–3999
c. Using ACL names to uniquely identify each ACL
d. Using subinterfaces on the physical router’s interface descriptor block

A

c. Using ACL names to uniquely identify each ACL

76
Q

Which of the following statements is true about IPv6 ACLs?

a. Cisco router interfaces can only have one IPv4 or one IPv6 ACLs applied in only one direction.
b. Cisco router interfaces can have either an IPv4 or IPv6 ACL applied, but in both directions.
c. Cisco router interfaces can have both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs applied inbound and outbound on a single interface.
d. Cisco router interfaces can have either an IPv4 or an IPv6 ACL applied, but only in one direction.

A

c. Cisco router interfaces can have both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs applied inbound and outbound on a single interface.

77
Q

Which of the following IPv6 ACL entries would match and permit IPv6 packets coming from the Internet destined for the 2001:0db8:1111:0001:0000:0000:0000:0000 prefix with a 64-bit prefix length?

a. permit ipv6 any 2001:db8:1111:1::1
b. permit ipv6 2001:db8:1111:1::/64 any
c. permit ipv6 any 2001:db8:1111:1::1/128
d. permit ipv6 any 2001:db8:1111:1::/64

A

d. permit ipv6 any 2001:db8:1111:1::/64

78
Q

Which of the following packet header fields can be filtered using IPv6 extended access control lists?

a. TCP source and destination port number
b. ICMPv6 type and code values
c. IPv6 extension header numbers
d. IPv6 flow label values
e. All of the other answers are correct.

A

e. All of the other answers are correct.

79
Q

The implicit rules at the bottom of IPv6 ACLs are there to permit which of the following packets?

a. Router Solicitation (RS) and Router Advertisement (RA) messages
b. Neighbor Solicitation (NS) and Neighbor Advertisement (NA) messages
c. All ICMPv6 messages on a LAN interface
d. All IPv6 multicast packets on a LAN interface

A

b. Neighbor Solicitation (NS) and Neighbor Advertisement (NA) messages

80
Q

On a 2960 switch, which of the following commands change the value of the bridge ID? (Choose two answers.)

a. spanning-tree bridge-id value
b. spanning-tree vlan vlan-number root {primary | secondary}
c. spanning-tree vlan vlan-number priority value
d. set spanning-tree priority value

A

b. spanning-tree vlan vlan-number root {primary | secondary}

c. spanning-tree vlan vlan-number priority value

81
Q

Examine the following extract from the show spanning-tree command on a Cisco switch:

Bridge ID Priority 32771 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 3)
Address 0019.e86a.6f80

Which of the following answers is true about the switch on which this command output was gathered?

a. The information is about the STP instance for VLAN 1.
b. The information is about the STP instance for VLAN 3.
c. The command output confirms that this switch cannot possibly be the root switch.
d. The command output confirms that this switch is currently the root switch.

A

b. The information is about the STP instance for VLAN 3.

82
Q

A switch’s G0/1 interface, a trunk that supports VLANs 1–10, has autonegotiated a speed of 100 Mbps. The switch currently has all default settings for STP. Which of the following actions results in the switch using an STP cost of 19 for that interface in VLAN 3? (Choose two answers.)

a. spanning-tree cost 19
b. spanning-tree port-cost 19
c. spanning-tree vlan 3 port-cost 19
d. Adding no configuration

A

a. spanning-tree cost 19

d. Adding no configuration

83
Q

An engineer configures a switch to put interfaces G0/1 and G0/2 into the same Layer 2 EtherChannel. Which of the following terms is used in the configuration commands?

a. EtherChannel
b. PortChannel
c. Ethernet-Channel
d. Channel-group

A

d. Channel-group

84
Q

Examine the following first seven lines of output from the show spanning-tree command on a Cisco switch:

SW1# show spanning-tree vlan 5

VLAN0005
  Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp
  Root ID    Priority    32773
  Address     1833.9d7b.0e80
             Cost        15
             Port        25 (GigabitEthernet0/1)                                                              Hello Time   2 sec  Max Age 20 sec  Forward Delay 15 sec

Which of the following answers is true about the switch on which this command output was gathered? (Choose two answers.)

a. The root switch’s MAC address is 1833.9d7b.0e80 and the local switch is the root.
b. The local switch’s MAC address is 1833.9d7b.0e80 and it is not the root.
c. This switch uses STP and not RSTP.
d. This switch uses RSTP.

A

a. The root switch’s MAC address is 1833.9d7b.0e80 and the local switch is the root.
d. This switch uses RSTP.

85
Q

The following output shows the last lines of output of a show spanning-tree command extracted from a Cisco switch running IOS:

SW1# show spanning-tree vlan 10
! lines omitted

Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type
——————- —- — ——— ——– ———————–
Fa0/1 Desg FWD 100 128.1 P2p Edge
Fa0/2 Desg FWD 19 128.2 Shr
Gi0/1 Desg FWD 4 128.25 P2p
Gi0/2 Root FWD 4 128.26 P2p

The answers all mention an interface and the state listed in the Type column of the output, along with a reason why that port should be listed as that type of STP port. Which answers list what could be a correct reason for the interface to be listed as that type of STP port? (Choose two answers.)

a. Fa0/1 is P2p Edge because of the spanning-tree rstp edge interface subcommand.
b. Fa0/2 is Shr because Fa0/2 uses half duplex.
c. Gi0/1 is P2p because it is a VLAN trunk.
d. Gi0/2 is P2p because the switch had no reason to make it Shr or P2p Edge.

A

b. Fa0/2 is Shr because Fa0/2 uses half duplex.

d. Gi0/2 is P2p because the switch had no reason to make it Shr or P2p Edge

86
Q

Which of the following VTP modes allow VLANs to be configured on a switch? (Choose two answers.)

a. Client
b. Server
c. Transparent
d. Dynamic

A

b. Server

c. Transparent

87
Q

An engineer plans to connect three switches (SW1, SW2, and SW3) in a lab. Before connecting the switches, he starts by configuring all three switches as VTP servers, with matching VTP domain name and password. He then configures some VLANs on each switch so that switch SW3 has a revision number of 10, switch SW2 has a revision number of 6, and switch SW1 has a revision number of 8. Only then does the engineer connect the switches with trunks: first SW1 to SW2, then SW2 to SW3, and then SW3 to SW1. Switch SW1 is elected the STP root switch in VLAN 1. Which answer most accurately states which VLAN configuration database is used, and why?

a. All use switch SW1’s database because it has the highest revision number between the first two connected switches.
b. All use switch SW1’s database because VTP uses the same election logic as STP.
c. All use SW3’s database because SW3 has the highest revision number.
d. All use SW2’s database because SW2 has the lowest revision number.

A

c. All use SW3’s database because SW3 has the highest revision number.

88
Q

An engineer compares the output of the show vtp status command on two neighboring switches. One switch, SW1, acts as VTP server, while the other, SW2, acts as a VTP client. What items in the command output confirm that synchronization has completed? (Choose two answers.)

a. Both list the same “last updater” IP address and timestamp.
b. Both list the neighbor’s MAC address and the word “synchronized.”
c. SW2 (the client) lists the phrase “synchronized with server.”
d. Both list the same configuration revision number.

A

a. Both list the same “last updater” IP address and timestamp.
d. Both list the same configuration revision number.

89
Q

Switches SW1, SW2, SW3, and SW4 are configured as VTP server, client, transparent, and off, respectively, all using VTP version 1. A junior engineer has been told to try to configure the following two commands on each switch directly from the CLI: vlan 200 and vlan 2000. Which answers correctly state which commands will be rejected, on which switch? (Choose two answers.)

a. vlan 2000 will be rejected on SW1 (VTP server).
b. vlan 200 will be rejected on SW2 (VTP client).
c. vlan 200 will be rejected on SW3 (VTP transparent).
d. vlan 200 will be rejected on SW1 (VTP server).

A

a. vlan 2000 will be rejected on SW1 (VTP server).

b. vlan 200 will be rejected on SW2 (VTP client).

90
Q

Two neighboring LAN switches are connected with an operational 802.1Q trunk. Switch SW1 has been configured with the vtp mode client, vtp domain fred, and vtp version 2 commands. SW1 has no other VTP configuration commands configured. Which answer lists a possible reason why switch SW2, on the other end of the trunk, is not synchronizing its VLAN database with switch SW1? (Choose two answers.)

a. SW2 has a vtp version 1 command configured.
b. SW2 has a vtp password G0BeeZ command configured.
c. SW2 has a vtp domain Fred command configured.
d. SW2 has a vtp mode client command configured.

A

b. SW2 has a vtp password G0BeeZ command configured.

c. SW2 has a vtp domain Fred command configured.

91
Q

Switches SW1 and SW2 connect through an operational trunk. The engineer wants to use VTP to communicate VLAN configuration changes. The engineer configures a new VLAN on SW1, VLAN 44, but SW2 does not learn about the new VLAN. Which of the following configuration settings on SW1 and SW2 would be a potential root cause why SW2 does not learn about VLAN 44? (Choose two answers.)

a. VTP domain names of larry and LARRY, respectively
b. VTP passwords of bob and BOB, respectively
c. VTP pruning enabled and disabled, respectively
d. VTP modes of server and client, respectively

A

a. VTP domain names of larry and LARRY, respectively

b. VTP passwords of bob and BOB, respectively

92
Q

With IEEE 802.1x, which role does a LAN switch typically play?

a. Authentication server
b. Supplicant
c. Translator
d. Authenticator

A

d. Authenticator

93
Q

Which of the following answers is true of TACACS+ but not true of RADIUS?

a. The protocol encrypts the password for transmission.
b. Uses UDP as the transport protocol.
c. Supports ability to authorize different users to use different subsets of CLI commands.
d. Defined by an RFC.

A

c. Supports ability to authorize different users to use different subsets of CLI commands.

94
Q

An engineer hears about DHCP snooping and decides to implement it. The network includes devices that act primarily as Layer 2 switches, multilayer switches (that is, they perform both Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching), and routers. Which of the following are the devices on which DHCP snooping could be implemented? (Choose two answers.)

a. Layer 2 switches
b. Routers
c. Multilayer switches
d. A LAN hub

A

a. Layer 2 switches

c. Multilayer switches

95
Q

Layer 2 switch SW2 connects to several devices: a Layer 2 switch (SW1), a router, a DHCP server, and three PCs (PC1, PC2, and PC3). All PCs are expected to use DHCP to lease their IP addresses. A network engineer implements DHCP snooping on switch SW2. Unknown to the engineer, a malicious attacker is using PC3. Which of the following is the most likely DHCP snooping trust state configuration on SW2 for the ports connected to the listed devices? (Choose two answers.)

a. The port connected to the router is untrusted.
b. The port connected to switch SW1 is trusted.
c. The port connected to PC1 is untrusted.
d. The port connected to PC3 is trusted.

A

b. The port connected to switch SW1 is trusted.

c. The port connected to PC1 is untrusted.

96
Q

A network engineer takes four 2960-X switches and creates a switch stack using either FlexStack or FlexStack-Plus stacking from Cisco. Now consider data plane functions, such as frame forwarding; control plane functions, such as STP and VTP; and management plane functions, such as Telnet and SSH support. Once the stack is cabled and working, which of the following is true about how the stack of four switches works?

a. The stack acts as one switch for data plane functions, and separate switches for control and management plane functions.
b. The stack acts as one switch for data plane and control plane functions, and separate switches for management plane functions.
c. The stack acts as one switch for data plane, control plane, and management plane functions.
d. The stack does not act as one switch for data, control, or management plane functions, instead providing backup uplinks if all of one switch’s uplinks fail.

A

c. The stack acts as one switch for data plane, control plane, and management plane functions.

97
Q

Which of the following routing protocols is considered to use link-state logic?

a. RIPv1
b. RIPv2
c. EIGRP
d. OSPF

A

d. OSPF

98
Q

Which of the following routing protocols use a metric that is, by default, at least partially affected by link bandwidth? (Choose two answers.)

a. RIPv1
b. RIPv2
c. EIGRP
d. OSPF

A

c. EIGRP

d. OSPF

99
Q

Which of the following network commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1?

a. network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
b. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0
c. network 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.255 area 0
d. network 10.0.0.1 0.0.255.255 area 0

A

b. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

100
Q

Which of the following network commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1?

a. network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
b. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0
c. network 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.255 area 0
d. network 10.0.0.1 0.0.255.255 area 0

A

a. network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

101
Q

Which of the following commands list the OSPF neighbors off interface serial 0/0? (Choose two answers.)

a. show ip ospf neighbor
b. show ip ospf interface brief
c. show ip neighbor
d. show ip interface
e. show ip ospf neighbor serial 0/0

A

a. show ip ospf neighbor

e. show ip ospf neighbor serial 0/0

102
Q

Routers R1, R2, and R3 are internal routers in areas 1, 2, and 3, respectively. Router R4 is an ABR connected to the backbone area (0) and to areas 1, 2, and 3. Which of the following answers describes the configuration on Router R4, which is different from the other three routers, that makes it an ABR?

a. The abr enable router subcommand.
b. The network router subcommands refer to a single nonbackbone area.
c. The network router subcommands refer to multiple areas, including the backbone.
d. The router has an interface in area 0, whereas an OSPF neighbor’s interface sits in a different area.

A

c. The network router subcommands refer to multiple areas, including the backbone.

103
Q

An engineer connects to Router R1 and issues a show ip ospf neighbor command. The status of neighbor 2.2.2.2 lists FULL/BDR. What does the BDR mean?

a. R1 is an Area Border Router.
b. R1 is a backup designated router.
c. Router 2.2.2.2 is an Area Border Router.
d. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router.

A

d. Router 2.2.2.2 is a backup designated router.

104
Q

An engineer migrates from a more traditional OSPFv2 configuration that uses network commands in OSPF configuration mode to instead use OSPFv2 interface configuration. Which of the following commands configures the area number assigned to an interface in this new configuration?

a. The area command in interface configuration mode
b. The ip ospf command in interface configuration mode
c. The router ospf command in interface configuration mode
d. The network command in interface configuration mode

A

b. The ip ospf command in interface configuration mode

105
Q

Which of the following configuration settings on a router does not influence which IPv4 route a router chooses to add to its IPv4 routing table when using OSPFv2?

a. auto-cost reference-bandwidth
b. delay
c. bandwidth
d. ip ospf cost

A

b. delay

106
Q

Which of the following distance vector features prevents routing loops by causing the routing protocol to advertise only a subset of known routes, as opposed to the full routing table, under normal stable conditions?

a. Route poisoning
b. Poison reverse
c. DUAL
d. Split horizon

A

d. Split horizon

107
Q

Which of the following distance vector features prevents routing loops by advertising an infinite metric route when a route fails?

a. Dijkstra SPF
b. DUAL
c. Split horizon
d. Route poisoning

A

d. Route poisoning

108
Q

Routers A and B use EIGRP. How does router A watch for the status of router B so that router A can react if router B fails?

a. By using EIGRP Hello messages, with A needing to receive periodic Hello messages to believe B is still working.
b. By using EIGRP update messages, with A needing to receive periodic update messages to believe B is still working.
c. Using a periodic ping of B’s IP address based on the EIGRP neighbor timer.
d. None of the other answers are correct.

A

a. By using EIGRP Hello messages, with A needing to receive periodic Hello messages to believe B is still working.

109
Q

Which of the following affect the calculation of EIGRP metrics when all possible default values are used? (Choose two answers.)

a. Bandwidth
b. Delay
c. Load
d. Reliability
e. MTU
f. Hop count

A

a. Bandwidth

b. Delay

110
Q

Which of the following is true about the concept of EIGRP feasible distance?

a. A route’s feasible distance is the calculated metric of a feasible successor route.
b. A route’s feasible distance is the calculated metric of the successor route.
c. The feasible distance is the metric of a route from a neighboring router’s perspective.
d. The feasible distance is the EIGRP metric associated with each possible route to reach a subnet.

A

b. A route’s feasible distance is the calculated metric of the successor route.

111
Q

Which of the following is true about the concept of EIGRP reported distance?

a. A route’s reported distance is the calculated metric of a feasible successor route.
b. A route’s reported distance is the calculated metric of the successor route.
c. A route’s reported distance is the metric of a route from a neighboring router’s perspective.
d. The reported distance is the EIGRP metric associated with each possible route to reach a subnet.

A

c. A route’s reported distance is the metric of a route from a neighboring router’s perspective.

ICND2 (CCNA) (11 decks)

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