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ICND2 (CCNA) > Do I Know This Already? Quiz > Flashcards

Do I Know This Already? Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

A Layer 2 switch examines a frame’s destination MAC address and chooses to forward hat frame out port G0/1 only. That action is an action that occurs as part of which plane of the switch?

a. Data plane
b. Management plane
c. Control plane
d. Table plane

A

a. Data plane

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2
Q

a router uses EIGRP to learn routes and adds those to the IPv4 routing table. That action is an action that occurs as part of which plane of the switch?

a. Data plane
b. Management plane
c. Control plane
d. Table plane

A

c. Control plane

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3
Q

A network uses an SDN architecture with switches and a centralized controller. Which of the following terms describes a function or functions expected to be found on the switches but not on the controller?

a. A Northbound Interface
b. A Southbound Interface
c. Data plane functions
d. Control plane functions

A

c. Data plane functions

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4
Q

Which of the following controllers (if any) from Cisco uses a mostly centralized control plane?

a. Cisco Open SDN Controller
b. Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC)
c. Cisco APIC Enterprise Module (APIC-EM)
d. None of these controllers uses mostly a centralized control plane

A

a. Cisco Open SDN Controller

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5
Q

Host A and Host B sit in two different subnets. The path between the subnets of these two hosts runs through three different Layer 3 forwarding devices (routers and Layer 3 switches). A network engineer uses the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL Analysis tool to analyze the path used for Host A to send packets to Host B. Which part of the function is done specifically by the ACL Analysis or ACL Trace part of the tool?

a. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts
b. Analysis of the Layer 3 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B
c. Analysis of the Layer 2 forwarding decisions in the path from Host A to B
d. Analysis of the impact of ACLs on the packets that would flow from Host A to B

A

a. Discovery of the topology that exists between the two hosts

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6
Q

In the cabling for a leased line, which of the following usually connects to a four-wire line provided by a telco?

a. Router serial interface without internal CSU/DSU
b. CSU/DSU
c. Router serial interface with internal transceiver
d. Switch serial interface

A

b. CSU/DSU

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7
Q

Two routers connect with a serial link, each using its S0/0/0 interface. The link is currently working using PPP. The network engineer wants to migrate to use the Cisco-proprietary HDLC that includes a protocol type field. Which of the following commands can be used to migrate to HDLC successfully? (Choose two answers.)

a. encapsulation hdlc
b. encapsulation cisco-hdlc
c. no encapsulation ppp
d. encapsulation-type auto

A

a. encapsulation hdlc

c. no encapsulation ppp

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8
Q

Which of the following PPP authentication protocols authenticates a device on the other end of a link without sending any password information in clear text?

a. MD5
b. PAP
c. CHAP
d. DES

A

c. CHAP

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9
Q

Two routers have no initial configuration whatsoever. They are connected in a lab using a DTE cable connected to R1 and a DCE cable connected to R2, with the DTE and DCE cables then connected to each other. The engineer wants to create a working PPP link by configuring both routers. Which of the following commands are required in the R1 configuration for the link to reach a state in which R1 can ping R2’s serial IP address, assuming that the physical back-to-back link physically works? (Choose two answers.)

a. encapsulation ppp
b. no encapsulation hdlc
c. clock rate
d. ip address

A

a. encapsulation ppp

d. ip address

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10
Q

Two routers, R1 and R2, connect to each other using three serial links. The network engineer configures these links to be part of the same multilink PPP group, along with configuring CHAP configuration, IPv4, and OSPFv2 using interface configuration. Which of the following answers list a configuration command along with the correct configuration mode for that command? (Choose two answers.)

a. encapsulation ppp while in multilink interface configuration mode
b. ip address address mask while in serial interface configuration mode
c. ppp authentication chap while in multilink interface configuration mode
d. ip ospf 1 area 0 while in serial interface configuration mode
e. ppp multilink while in serial interface configuration mode

A

a. encapsulation ppp while in multilink interface configuratioe. ppp multilink while in serial interface configuration moden mode

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11
Q

Barney is a host with IP address 10.1.1.1 in subnet 10.1.1.0/24. Which of the following are things that a standard IP ACL could be configured to do? (Choose two answers.)

a. Match the exact source IP address.
b. Match IP addresses 10.1.1.1 through 10.1.1.4 with one access-list command without matching other IP addresses.
c. Match all IP addresses in Barney’s subnet with one access-list command without matching other IP addresses.
d. Match only the packet’s destination IP address.

A

a. Match the exact source IP address.

c. Match all IP addresses in Barney’s subnet with one access-list command without matching other IP addresses.

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12
Q

Which of the following answers list a valid number that can be used with standard numbered IP ACLs? (Choose two answers.)

a. 1987
b. 2187
c. 187
d. 87

A

a. 1987

d. 87

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13
Q

Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.255.0?

a. 0.0.0.0
b. 0.0.0.31
c. 0.0.0.240
d. 0.0.0.255
e. 0.0.15.0
f. 0.0.248.255

A

d. 0.0.0.255

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14
Q

Which of the following wildcard masks is most useful for matching all IP packets in subnet 10.1.128.0, mask 255.255.240.0?

a. 0.0.0.0
b. 0.0.0.31
c. 0.0.0.240
d. 0.0.0.255
e. 0.0.15.255
f. 0.0.248.255

A

e. 0.0.15.255

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15
Q

ACL 1 has three statements, in the following order, with address and wildcard mask values as follows: 1.0.0.0 0.255.255.255, 1.1.0.0 0.0.255.255, and 1.1.1.0 0.0.0.255. If a router tried to match a packet sourced from IP address 1.1.1.1 using this ACL, which ACL statement does a router consider the packet to have matched?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Implied deny at the end of the ACL

A

a. First

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16
Q

Which of the following access-list commands matches all packets sent from hosts in subnet 172.16.4.0/23?

a. access-list 1 permit 172.16.0.5 0.0.255.0
b. access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255
c. access-list 1 permit 172.16.5.0
d. access-list 1 permit 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.127

A

b. access-list 1 permit 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255

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17
Q

In a LAN, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN?

a. Collision domain
b. Broadcast domain
c. Subnet
d. Single switch
e. Trunk

A

b. Broadcast domain

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18
Q

Imagine a switch with three configured VLANs. How many IP subnets are required, assuming that all hosts in all VLANs want to use TCP/IP?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. You cannot tell from the information provided.

A

d. 3

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19
Q

Switch SW1 sends a frame to switch SW2 using 802.1Q trunking. Which of the answers describes how SW1 changes or adds to the Ethernet frame before forwarding the frame to SW2?

a. Inserts a 4-byte header and does change the MAC addresses
b. Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses
c. Encapsulates the original frame behind an entirely new Ethernet header
d. None of the other answers are correct.

A

b. Inserts a 4-byte header and does not change the MAC addresses

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20
Q

Imagine that you are told that switch 1 is configured with the dynamic auto parameter for trunking on its Fa0/5 interface, which is connected to switch 2. You have to configure switch 2. Which of the following settings for trunking could allow trunking to work? (Choose two answers.)

a. on
b. dynamic auto
c. dynamic desirable
d. access

A

a. on

c. dynamic desirable

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21
Q

A switch has just arrived from Cisco. The switch has never been configured with any VLANs, but VTP has been disabled. An engineer gets into configuration mode and issues the vlan 22 command, followed by the name Hannahs-VLAN command. Which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.)

a. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show vlan brief command.
b. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show running-config command.
c. VLAN 22 is not created by this process.
d. VLAN 22 does not exist in that switch until at least one interface is assigned to that VLAN.

A

a. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show vlan brief command.
b. VLAN 22 is listed in the output of the show running-config command.

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22
Q

Which of the following commands identify switch interfaces as being trunking interfaces: interfaces that currently operate as VLAN trunks? (Choose two answers.)

a. show interfaces
b. show interfaces switchport
c. show interfaces trunk
d. show trunks

A

b. show interfaces switchport

c. show interfaces trunk

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23
Q

Which of the following routing protocols is considered to use link-state logic?

a. RIPv1
b. RIPv2
c. EIGRP
d. OSPF

A

d. OSPF

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24
Q

Which of the following routing protocols use a metric that is, by default, at least partially affected by link bandwidth? (Choose two answers.)

a. RIPv1
b. RIPv2
c. EIGRP
d. OSPF

A

c. EIGRP

d. OSPF

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25
Q

Which of the following interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three answers.)

a. RIPv1
b. RIPv2
c. EIGRP
d. OSPF

A

b. RIPv2
c. EIGRP
d. OSPF

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26
Q

Two routers using OSPFv2 have become neighbors and exchanged all LSAs. As a result, Router R1 now lists some OSPF-learned routes in its routing table. Which of the following best describes how R1 uses those recently learned LSAs to choose which IP routes to add to its IP routing table?

a. Each LSA lists a route to be copied to the routing table.
b. Some LSAs list a route that can be copied to the routing table.
c. Run some SPF math against the LSAs to calculate the routes.
d. R1 does not use the LSAs at all when choosing what routes to add.

A

c. Run some SPF math against the LSAs to calculate the routes.

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27
Q

Which of the following OSPF neighbor states is expected when the exchange of topology information is complete between two OSPF neighbors?

a. 2-way
b. Full
c. Up/up
d. Final

A

b. Full

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28
Q

A company has a small/medium-sized network with 15 routers and 40 subnets and uses OSPFv2. Which of the following is considered an advantage of using a single-area design as opposed to a multiarea design?

a. Reduces the processing overhead on most routers.
b. Status changes to one link may not require SPF to run on all other routers.
c. Simpler planning and operations.
d. Allows for route summarization, reducing the size of IP routing tables.

A

c. Simpler planning and operations.

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29
Q

Router 1 has a Fast Ethernet interface 0/0 with IP address 10.1.1.1. The interface is connected to a switch. This connection is then migrated to use 802.1Q trunking. Which of the following commands could be part of a valid configuration for Router 1’s Fa0/0 interface? (Choose two answers.)

a. interface fastethernet 0/0.4
b. dot1q enable
c. dot1q enable 4
d. trunking enable
e. trunking enable 4
f. encapsulation dot1q 4

A

a. interface fastethernet 0/0.4

f. encapsulation dot1q 4

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30
Q

Router R1 has a router-on-a-stick (ROAS) configuration with two subinterfaces of interface G0/1: G0/1.1 and G0/1.2. Physical interface G0/1 is currently in a down/down state. The network engineer then configures a shutdown command when in interface configuration mode for G0/1.1, and a no shutdown command when in interface configuration mode for G0/1.2. Which answers are correct about the interface state for the subinterfaces? (Choose two answers.)

a. G0/1.1 will be in a down/down state.
b. G0/1.2 will be in a down/down state.
c. G0/1.1 will be in an administratively down state.
d. G0/1.2 will be in an up/up state.

A

b. G0/1.2 will be in a down/down state.

c. G0/1.1 will be in an administratively down state.

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31
Q

A Layer 3 switch has been configured to route IP packets between VLANs 1, 2, and 3 using SVIs, which connect to subnets 172.20.1.0/25, 172.20.2.0/25, and 172.20.3.0/25, respectively. The engineer issues a show ip route connected command on the Layer 3 switch, listing the connected routes. Which of the following answers lists a piece of information that should be in at least one of the routes?

a. Interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0.3
b. Next-hop router 172.20.2.1
c. Interface VLAN 2
d. Mask 255.255.255.0

A

c. Interface VLAN 2

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32
Q

An engineer has successfully configured a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for VLANs 2 and 3. Hosts in the subnets using VLANs 2 and 3 can ping each other with the Layer 3 switch routing the packets. Next week, the network engineer receives a call that those same users can no longer ping each other. If the problem is with the Layer 3 switching function, which of the following could have caused the problem? (Choose two answers.)

a. Six (or more) out of ten working VLAN 2 access ports failing due to physical problems
b. A shutdown command issued from interface VLAN 4 configuration mode
c. VTP on the switch removing VLAN 3 from the switch’s VLAN list
d. A shutdown command issued from VLAN 2 configuration mode

A

c. VTP on the switch removing VLAN 3 from the switch’s VLAN list
d. A shutdown command issued from VLAN 2 configuration mode

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33
Q

A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches SW1 and SW2, with Port-Channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1, G0/2, and G0/3 in the channel. Which of the following are true about SW1’s configuration to make the channel be able to route IPv4 packets correctly? (Choose two answers.)

a. The ip address command must be on the port-channel 1 interface.
b. The ip address command must be on interface G0/1 (lowest numbered port).
c. The port-channel 1 interface must be configured with the no switchport command.
d. Interface G0/1 must be configured with the routedport command.

A

a. The ip address command must be on the port-channel 1 interface.
c. The port-channel 1 interface must be configured with the no switchport command.

34
Q

A LAN design uses a Layer 3 EtherChannel between two switches SW1 and SW2, with port-channel interface 1 used on both switches. SW1 uses ports G0/1 and G0/2 in the channel. However, only interface G0/1 is bundled into the channel and working. Think about the configuration settings on port G0/2 that could have existed before adding G0/2 to the EtherChannel. Which answers identify a setting that could prevent IOS from adding G0/2 to the Layer 3 EtherChannel? (Choose two answers.)

a. A different STP cost (spanning-tree cost value)
b. A different speed (speed value)
c. A default setting for switchport (switchport)
d. A different access VLAN (switchport access vlan vlan-id)

A

b. A different speed (speed value)

c. A default setting for switchport (switchport)

35
Q

Which of the following network commands, following the command router eigrp 1, tells this router to start using EIGRP on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1? (Choose two answers.)

a. network 10.0.0.0
b. network 10.1.1x.0
c. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
d. network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

A

a. network 10.0.0.0

c. network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255

36
Q

Routers R1 and R2 attach to the same VLAN with IP addresses 10.0.0.1 and 10.0.0.2, respectively. R1 is configured with the commands router eigrp 99 and network 10.0.0.0. Which of the following commands might be part of a working EIGRP configuration on R2 that ensures that the two routers become neighbors and exchange routes? (Choose two answers.)

a. network 10
b. network 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.0
c. network 10.0.0.2 0.0.0.0
d. network 10.0.0.0

A

c. network 10.0.0.2 0.0.0.0

d. network 10.0.0.0

37
Q

In the show ip route command, what code designation implies that a route was learned with EIGRP?

a. E
b. I
c. G
d. D

A

d. D

38
Q

Which of the following Internet edge designs include connections to two ISPs? (Choose two answers.)

a. Single homed
b. Single multihomed
c. Dual homed
d. Dual multihomed

A

b. Single multihomed

d. Dual multihomed

39
Q

Which of the following features is true of eBGP but not iBGP?

a. Connects routers in the same ASN
b. Uses TCP
c. Exchanges routes between an ISP and an enterprise
d. None of the other answers is correct

A

c. Exchanges routes between an ISP and an enterprise

40
Q

Consider the routes advertised over a typical single-homed Internet edge connection that uses eBGP. Which of the following answers describe a route typically advertised by eBGP in this case? (Choose two answers.)

a. A default route advertised by the enterprise to the ISP
b. A route for the enterprise’s public IPv4 address block to the ISP
c. A route for the enterprise’s private IPv4 address block to the ISP
d. A default route advertised by the ISP to the enterprise

A

b. A route for the enterprise’s public IPv4 address block to the ISP
d. A default route advertised by the ISP to the enterprise

41
Q

Routers R1 and R2, in two different ASNs, connect directly to each other over a WAN link, with the two routers in the same subnet. If using the IP addresses on that common link to define the eBGP neighbors, how many different BGP neighbor commands would be required on Router R1 to make the eBGP peer work to Router R2? (Choose two answers.)

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

a. 1

42
Q

Which of the following topology terms most closely describe the topology created by a Metro Ethernet Tree (E-Tree) service? (Choose two answers.)

a. Full mesh
b. Partial mesh
c. Hub and Spoke
d. Point-to-point

A

b. Partial mesh

c. Hub and Spoke

43
Q

Which of the following is the most likely technology used for an access link to a Metro Ethernet service?

a. 100Base-LX10
b. High-speed TDM (for example, T3, E3)
c. MPLS
d. 100Base-T

A

a. 100Base-LX10

44
Q

An enterprise uses a Metro Ethernet WAN with an Ethernet LAN (E-LAN) service, with the company headquarters plus ten remote sites connected to the service. The enterprise uses EIGRP at all sites, with one router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design? (Choose two answers.)

a. The WAN uses one IP subnet.
b. The WAN uses ten or more IP subnets.
c. A remote site router would have one EIGRP neighbor.
d. A remote site router would have ten EIGRP neighbors.

A

a. The WAN uses one IP subnet.

d. A remote site router would have ten EIGRP

45
Q

An enterprise uses an MPLS Layer 3 VPN with the company headquarters connected plus ten remote sites connected to the service. The enterprise uses EIGRP at all sites, with one router connected to the service from each site. Which of the following are true about the Layer 3 details most likely used with this service and design? (Choose two answers.)

a. The WAN uses one IP subnet.
b. The WAN uses ten or more IP subnets.
c. A remote site router would have one EIGRP neighbor.
d. A remote site router would have ten or more EIGRP neighbors.

A

b. The WAN uses ten or more IP subnets.

c. A remote site router would have one EIGRP neighbor.

46
Q

Which of the following answers is most accurate about access link options for an MPLS network?

a. Uses only TDM (T1, T3, E1, E3, etc.)
b. Uses only Ethernet
c. Uses only DSL and cable
d. Uses a wide variety of Layer 1 and Layer 2 networking technologies

A

d. Uses a wide variety of Layer 1 and Layer 2 networking technologies

47
Q

An enterprise connects 20 sites into an MPLS VPN WAN. The enterprise uses OSPF for IPv4 routes at all sites. Consider the OSPF area design options, and the PE-CE links. Which of the following answers is most accurate about OSPF areas and the PE-CE links?

a. The PE-CE link may or may not be chosen to be in backbone area 0.
b. The PE-CE link must not be in the backbone area 0.
c. The PE-CE link must be in the backbone area 0.
d. The PE-CE link will not be in any OSPF area.

A

a. The PE-CE link may or may not be chosen to be in backbone area 0.

48
Q

A colleague mentions using a client VPN. Which of the following protocols or technologies would you expect your colleague to have used?

a. SSL
b. IPsec
c. GRE
d. DMVPN

A

a. SSL

49
Q

An engineer configures a point-to-point GRE tunnel between two Cisco routers, called A and B. The routers use public IP addresses assigned by ISPs, and private addresses from network 10.0.0.0. Which of the following answers accurately describes where the addresses could be referenced in the GRE configuration?

a. Router A’s private address on an ip address command on Router A’s tunnel interface
b. Router A’s private address on a tunnel destination command on Router B
c. Router B’s public address on a tunnel source command on Router A
d. Router B’s public address on an ip address command on Router B’s tunnel interface

A

a. Router A’s private address on an ip address command on Router A’s tunnel interface

50
Q

An enterprise uses a site-to-site GRE tunnel that runs over the Internet between two routers (R1 and R2). R1 uses tunnel interface 22. The tunnel has a source of 1.1.1.1 and a destination of 2.2.2.2. All the answers list facts that could be true, but which of the following must be true when Router R1’s tunnel 22 is in an up/up state?

a. 2.2.2.2 is pingable from Router R1.
b. 1.1.1.1 is pingable from Router R2.
c. R1 has a working (up/up) interface with address 1.1.1.1.
d. R2 has a working (up/up) interface with address 2.2.2.2.

A

c. R1 has a working (up/up) interface with address 1.1.1.1.

51
Q

An enterprise has 1000 small retail locations and a central site. The enterprise uses Internet access links to each retail store and DMVPN to securely create a VPN back to the central site. Which of the following answers is true about the operation and configuration of DMVPN?

a. The hub router needs at least 1000 tunnel interfaces.
b. The hub router needs less than 10 tunnel interfaces.
c. All packets between retail stores must route through the central hub site.
d. Packets cannot be forwarded from one retail store to another.

A

b. The hub router needs less than 10 tunnel interfaces.

52
Q

An enterprise uses Cisco IOS routers and DSL connections to local ISPs for their retail locations. The ISPs require the use of PPPoE. The routers at each retail site use dynamically learned public IP addresses as learned from the ISPs. Each router uses its F0/0 interface to connect to an external DSL modem, which then connects to a phone line. Which of the following is the most likely choice for configuring the router to use the IP address as assigned by the ISP?

a. Interface F0/0 has an ip address dhcp interface subcommand.
b. Some dialer interface has an ip address dhcp interface subcommand.
c. Some dialer interface has an ip address negotiated interface subcommand.
d. Interface F0/0 has an ip address negotiated interface subcommand.

A

c. Some dialer interface has an ip address negotiated interface subcommand.

53
Q

An enterprise uses Cisco IOS routers and DSL connections to local ISPs for their retail locations. The ISPs require the use of PPPoE. A network engineer connects to the console of one router at a retail office, issues the show pppoe session command, and the router just returns a command prompt, with no lines of output. If you knew the problem was related to the configuration on the local router, which one of the four following areas would be the best area to recommend for your colleagues to investigate in their next troubleshooting step?

a. Look at the commands on the physical Ethernet interface
b. Look at the dialer interface commands specific to PPP
c. Look at the commands specific to IPv4 address learning
d. Look at the commands in the running-config file for the virtual-access interface

A

a. Look at the commands on the physical Ethernet interface

54
Q

Which of the following fields cannot be compared based on an extended IP ACL? (Choose two answers.)

a. Protocol
b. Source IP address
c. Destination IP address
d. TOS byte
e. URL
f. Filename for FTP transfers

A

e. URL

f. Filename for FTP transfers

55
Q

Which of the following access-list commands permit packets going from host 10.1.1.1 to all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5? (Choose two answers.)

a. access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www
b. access-list 1951 permit ip host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www
c. access-list 2523 permit ip host 10.1.1.1 eq www 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255
d. access-list 2523 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 eq www 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255
e. access-list 2523 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www

A

a. access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www
e. access-list 2523 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www

56
Q

Which of the following access-list commands permits packets going to any web client from all web servers whose IP addresses begin with 172.16.5?

a. access-list 101 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www
b. access-list 1951 permit ip host 10.1.1.1 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www
c. access-list 2523 permit tcp any eq www 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255
d. access-list 2523 permit tcp 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255
e. access-list 2523 permit tcp 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www any

A

e. access-list 2523 permit tcp 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 eq www any

57
Q

In a router running a recent IOS version (at least version 15.0), an engineer needs to delete the second line in ACL 101, which currently has four commands configured. Which of the following options could be used? (Choose two answers.)

a. Delete the entire ACL and reconfigure the three ACL statements that should remain in the ACL.
b. Delete one line from the ACL using the no access-list… global command.
c. Delete one line from the ACL by entering ACL configuration mode for the ACL and then deleting only the second line based on its sequence number.
d. Delete the last three lines from the ACL from global configuration mode, and then add the last two statements back into the ACL.

A

a. Delete the entire ACL and reconfigure the three ACL statements that should remain in the ACL.
c. Delete one line from the ACL by entering ACL configuration mode for the ACL and then deleting only the second line based on its sequence number.

58
Q

An engineer is considering configuring an ACL on Router R1. The engineer could use ACL A, which would be enabled with the ip access-group A out command on interface G0/1, or ACL B, which would be enabled with the ip access-group B in command on that same interface. R1’s G0/1 interface uses IPv4 address 1.1.1.1. Which of the answers are true when comparing these options? (Choose two answers.)

a. ACL A creates more risk of filtering important overhead traffic than ACL B.
b. ACL B creates more risk of filtering important overhead traffic than ACL A.
c. A ping 1.1.1.1 command on R1 would bypass ACL A even if enabled.
d. A ping 1.1.1.1 command on R1 would bypass ACL B even if enabled.

A

b. ACL B creates more risk of filtering important overhead traffic than ACL A.
c. A ping 1.1.1.1 command on R1 would bypass ACL A even if enabled.

59
Q

An engineer configures an ACL but forgets to save the configuration. At that point, which of the following commands display the configuration of an IPv4 ACL, including line numbers? (Choose two answers.)

a. show running-config
b. show startup-config
c. show ip access-lists
d. show access-lists

A

c. show ip access-lists

d. show access-lists

60
Q

Which of the following attributes do QoS tools manage? (Choose three answers.)

a. Bandwidth
b. Delay
c. Load
d. MTU
e. Loss

A

a. Bandwidth
b. Delay
e. Loss

61
Q

Which of the following QoS marking fields could remain with a packet while being sent through four different routers, over different LAN and WAN links? (Choose two answers.)

a. CoS
b. IPP
c. DSCP
d. MPLS EXP

A

b. IPP

c. DSCP

62
Q

Which of the following are available methods of classifying packets in DiffServ on Cisco routers? (Choose three answers.)

a. Matching the IP DSCP field
b. Matching the 802.1p CoS field
c. Matching fields with an extended IP ACL
d. Matching the SNMP Location variable

A

a. Matching the IP DSCP field
b. Matching the 802.1p CoS field
c. Matching fields with an extended IP ACL

63
Q

Which of the following behaviors is applied to a low latency queue in a Cisco router or switch?

a. Congestion management
b. Shaping
c. Policing
d. Priority scheduling
e. Round robin scheduling

A

d. Priority scheduling

64
Q

Think about a policing function that is currently working, and also think about a shaping function that is also currently working. That is, the current bit rate of traffic exceeds the respective policing and shaping rates. Which statements are true about these features? (Choose two answers.)

a. The policer may or may not be discarding packets.
b. The policer is definitely discarding packets.
c. The shaper may or may not be queuing packets to slow down the sending rate.
d. The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate.

A

a. The policer may or may not be discarding packets.

d. The shaper is definitely queuing packets to slow down the sending rate.

65
Q

A queuing system has three queues serviced with round robin scheduling and one low latency queue that holds all voice traffic. Round robin queue 1 holds predominantly UDP traffic, while round robin queues 2 and 3 hold predominantly TCP traffic. The packets in each queue happen to have a variety of DSCP markings per the QoS design. In which queues would it make sense to use a congestion avoidance (drop management) tool? (Choose two answers.)

a. The LLQ
b. Queue 1
c. Queue 2
d. Queue 3

A

c. Queue 2

d. Queue 3

66
Q

R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. Host A refers to 10.1.19.1 as its default router, and host B refers to 10.1.19.2 as its default router. The routers do not use an FHRP. Which of the following is a problem for this LAN?

a. The design breaks IPv4 addressing rules, because two routers cannot connect to the same LAN subnet.
b. If one router fails, neither host can send packets off-subnet.
c. If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a default router.
d. If one router fails, the host that uses that router as a default router cannot send packets off-subnet.

A

d. If one router fails, the host that uses that router as a default router cannot send packets off-subnet.

67
Q

R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. The routers use an FHRP. Host A and host B attach to the same LAN and have correct default router settings per the FHRP configuration. Which of the following statements is true for this LAN?

a. The design breaks IPv4 addressing rules, because two routers cannot connect to the same LAN subnet.
b. If one router fails, neither host can send packets off-subnet.
c. If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a default router.
d. If one router fails, only one of the two hosts will still be able to send packets off-subnet.

A

c. If one router fails, both hosts will use the one remaining router as a default router.

68
Q

R1 and R2 attach to the same Ethernet VLAN, with subnet 10.1.19.0/25, with addresses 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2, respectively, configured with the ip address interface subcommand. The routers use HSRP. The network engineer prefers to have R1 be the default router when both R1 and R2 are up. Which of the following is the likely default router setting for hosts in this subnet?

a. 10.1.19.1
b. 10.1.19.2
c. Another IP address in subnet 10.1.19.0/25 other than 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2
d. A hostname that the FHRP mini-DNS will initially point to 10.1.19.1

A

c. Another IP address in subnet 10.1.19.0/25 other than 10.1.19.1 and 10.1.19.2

69
Q

Two routers, R1 and R2, are configured to be part of an HSRP group. R1’s configuration includes the standby 1 priority 1 command, and R2’s configuration includes the standby 1 priority 2 command. R1 powers up. An hour later, R2 powers up. Which of the following answers is true about which router is now the HSRP active router?

a. R2 is active regardless of other configuration settings.
b. R1 is active regardless of other configuration settings.
c. R2 is active only if R2 is also configured with standby 1 preempt.
d. R1 is active only if R1 is also configured with no standby 1 preempt.

A

c. R2 is active only if R2 is also configured with standby 1 preempt.

70
Q

A Network Management Station (NMS) is using SNMP to manage some Cisco routers and switches with SNMPv2c. Which of the following answers most accurately describes how the SNMP agent on a router authenticates any SNMP Get requests received from the NMS?

a. Using a username and hashed version of a password
b. Using either the read-write or read-only community string
c. Using only the read-write community string
d. Using only the read-only community string

A

b. Using either the read-write or read-only community string

71
Q

A router has been configured with the global command snmp-server community textvalue1 RO textvalue2. Which of the following statements are true about the meaning of this command? (Choose two answers.)

a. The router’s read-only community is textvalue1.
b. The router’s read-only community is textvalue2.
c. The router filters incoming SNMP messages using IPv4 ACL textvalue2.
d. The router filters outgoing SNMP messages using IPv4 ACL textvalue2.

A

a. The router’s read-only community is textvalue1.

c. The router filters incoming SNMP messages using IPv4 ACL textvalue2.

72
Q

A router has been configured with the following command: snmp-server group one v3 auth write v1default. Which of the following answers lists a command that would correctly define a user to associate with this SNMPv3 group to correctly define security parameters to work with an SNMP manager?

a. snmp-server user fred1 one auth md5 pass1 priv des keyvalue1
b. snmp-server user fred2
c. snmp-server user fred3 one auth 3des pass1
d. snmp-server user fred4 one auth sha pass1

A

d. snmp-server user fred4 one auth sha pass1

73
Q

Which of the following commands primarily lists counters and status information, instead of configuration settings?

a. show snmp
b. show snmp community
c. show snmp group
d. show snmp user

A

a. show snmp

74
Q

Which of the following statements is true about ICMP Echo-based IP SLA?

a. It sends messages to mimic Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic to measure jitter.
b. It requires the use of one router as the source and another as the responder.
c. It can collect and aggregate historical statistics.
d. It sends ICMP Echo messages to measure jitter.

A

c. It can collect and aggregate historical statistics.

75
Q

Host1 and Host2 connect to ports F0/1 and F0/2 on a LAN switch, respectively, so that frames sent by Host1 to Host2 will enter switch port F0/1 and exit switch port F0/2. All FastEthernet ports on the switch are access ports in VLAN 5. A network analyzer connects to port F0/9. A network engineer wants to use SPAN to direct traffic to the network analyzer. Which one answer is the best answer for what traffic to direct to the analyzer with SPAN, if the goal is to gather all traffic sent between Host1 and Host2, but to avoid gathering multiple copies of the same frames?

a. Use a SPAN source VLAN of VLAN 5 for both directions of traffic.
b. Use a SPAN source port of F0/1 for the transmit direction of traffic.
c. Use a SPAN source port of F0/2 for both directions of traffic.
d. Use a SPAN source port of both F0/1 and F0/2 for both directions of traffic.

A

c. Use a SPAN source port of F0/2 for both directions of traffic.

76
Q

Which of the following are allowed when configuring Local SPAN sessions? (Choose two answers.)

a. Using more than one SPAN source port in one SPAN session
b. Using a SPAN source port and SPAN source VLAN in one SPAN session
c. Using an EtherChannel port as a SPAN source port
d. Using one SPAN destination port in two different SPAN sessions

A

a. Using more than one SPAN source port in one SPAN session

c. Using an EtherChannel port as a SPAN source port

77
Q

Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be used for software development?

a. IaaS
b. PaaS
c. SaaS
d. SLBaaS

A

b. PaaS

78
Q

Which of the following cloud services is most likely to be purchased and then used to later install your own software applications?

a. IaaS
b. PaaS
c. SaaS
d. SLBaaS

A

a. IaaS

79
Q

An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which one option has the most issues if the company chooses one cloud provider but then later wants to change to use a different cloud provider instead?

a. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider
b. Using an Internet connection without VPN
c. Using an intercloud exchange
d. Using an Internet connection with VPN

A

a. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider

80
Q

An enterprise plans to start using a public cloud service, and is considering different WAN options. The answers list four options under consideration. Which options provide good security by keeping the data private while also providing good QoS services? (Choose two answers.)

a. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider
b. Using an Internet connection without VPN
c. Using an intercloud exchange
d. Using an Internet connection with VPN

A

a. Using private WAN connections directly to the cloud provider
c. Using an intercloud exchange

81
Q

Which of the following best describes a virtual network function in a public cloud service?

a. A subset of a physical networking device, configured by the cloud provider and allocated for use by that customer only
b. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer, but with no direct customer access to the server that provides the service
c. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer
d. Any networking feature implemented on a VM in a cloud service

A

c. A networking function implemented by the cloud provider for the customer as a VM that is directly accessible and configurable by the customer

ICND2 (CCNA) (11 decks)

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