Practice Exam 1

Question 1

What transport layer protocol features the use of sequencing and synchronization methods?

A. ICMP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ARP

Answer 1

B. TCP

There are two transport layer protocols listed here. Therefore, you should be able to narrow this question down to two options immediately—B. TCP and C. UDP. Of these two, TCP provides reliability features like sequencing of packets and synchronization. UDP does not.

Question 2

Examine the figure. If devices 1, 2, and 3 are all Cisco Layer 2 switches in their default configuration, how many collision domains exist in this
network?

A. 11

B. 2

C. 9

D. 8

Answer 2

A. 11

Every port on a Layer 2 switch creates a collision domain by default. Here we have 9 workstations connected for 9 collision domains, and we have a collision domain for each of the 2 interswitch links. This makes a total of 11 collision domains. This Layer 2 switch concept is often called microsegmentation.

Question 3

You have configured your gi0/1 Cisco switch port as follows:

interface gi0/1

switchport mode access

switchport port-security

Which of the following statements is true?

A. The default violation mode is Restrict.
B. The mode must be trunk for port security to be used.
C. The default number of dynamic MAC addresses is 1.
D. This configuration prevents the logging of Port Security violations.
E. The violation mode in use here is Protect

Answer 3

C. The default number of dynamic MAC addresses is 1.

Notice this is a default configuration of Port Security. Every value is set to default. This means the default number of MAC addresses is 1 and the default violation mode is Shutdown. This violation mode will log violations.

Question 4

What protocol is used with an Integrated Services approach to QoS?
_________

Answer 4

RSVP

RSVP sends signals to reserve resources in the path of traffic.

Question 5

What is the default administrative distance for eBGP?

A. 20
B. 120
C. 110
D. 200
E. 90

Answer 5

A. 20

The default administrative distance for eBGP is excellent at 20. Contrast this to Internal BGP (iBGP) of 200.

Question 6

What is the following IPv4 address range used for? 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

A. To send a packet to all systems
B. To send a packet to a group of systems
C. To send a packet to a single specific system
D. To send multiple packets to only a single specific system

Answer 6

B. To send a packet to a group of systems

224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 is the IPv4 multicast address range. This range permits the sending of a single packet to a group of machines that “subscribe” to the traffic. This is unlike a broadcast where a single packet is sent to all systems. In IPv6, broadcast traffic is eliminated in favor of multicast.

Question 7

What is the default range for TTL in Cisco’s implementation of extended Traceroute?

A. 1–20
B. 0–30
C. 1–30
D. 1–10

Answer 7

C. 1–30

Extended Traceroute uses a default range of 1 to 30 by default.

Question 8

What is the privilege level for the user given the following command?

username johns secret cisco123

A. 0
B. 1
C. 15
D. 8

Answer 8

B. 1

The username command defaults to privilege level 1 for the user when a level is not specified.

Question 9

How are IPv6 addresses typically allocated to computers at a company connected to the Internet?

A. By an ISP
B. Using an EUI-64 server
C. Using an NATv6 device
D. Using Unique Local Addressing (ULA)

Answer 9

A. By an ISP

In IPv6 environments, it is common to have ISPs assigning blocks of addresses to an enterprise. This is due to the massive address space that is possible and a lack of need for private use only addressing.

Question 10

Examine the figure. What is the Layer 2 destination address?

________________

Answer 10

00:1b:77:12:34:56

The Layer 2 addressing information appears under the Ethernet II section. There is the Src for Source and Dst for Destination in the output of the packet capture shown.

Question 11

Which of the following is an error-free valid hostname for a Cisco switch running version 12.x of Cisco IOS?

A. 12345
B. 1SW-2
C. SW1-4501
D. 1SW12

Answer 11

C. SW1-4501

Hostnames on most Layer 2 switches running IOS 12.x must start with a letter, end with a letter or digit, and have as interior characters only letters, digits, and hyphens. Names must be 63 characters or fewer. C is the only option that conforms to the naming requirements.

Question 12

What technology provides multiple default gateways in a redundant manner?

A. FHRP
B. SPAN
C. STP
D. IP SLA

Answer 12

A. FHRP

First Hop Reachability Protocols include HSRP and VRRP.

Question 13

You are in privileged mode on R1. Provide all configuration commands in order to configure this device as a router on a stick (ROAS) using the following information:

Physical Interface: GigabitEthernet 0/1
Subinterfaces: GigabitEthernet 0/1.10 (VLAN 10); GigabitEthernet 0/1.20 (VLAN 20)
VLANs: 10; 20
Protocol: 802.1Q
IP addressing: 10.1.10.1/24 (VLAN 10); 10.1.20.1/24 (VLAN 20)
_________

Answer 13

configure terminal

!

interface gi0/1

no shutdown

!

interface gi0/1.10

encapsulation dot1q 10

ip address 10.1.10.1 2 55.255.255.0

!

interface gi0/1.20

encapsulation dot1q 20

ip address 10.1.20.1 2 55.255.255.0

Notice this configuration features no IP address on the physical interface, and uses subinterfaces set for 802.1Q encapsulation and appropriate IP addresses for the different VLANs.

Question 14

What type of routing protocol uses split horizon and poison reverse type mechanisms?

A. Distance vector
B. Link state
C. Hybrid
D. Path vector

Answer 14

A. Distance vector

Distance vector routing protocols rely on many mechanisms to avoid errors in routing information. This includes poison reverse and split horizon.

Question 15

Create an extended ACE that permits Telnet traffic from a Telnet server on the network 10.10.10.0/24, going to a host on network 192.168.1.0/24.

Use ACL 101.
_________

Answer 15

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255.

This ACE meets the criteria given.

Question 16

What keyword enables the use of PAT in your NAT configuration?

A. Load
B. Ports
C. Overload
D. Pool

Answer 16

C. Overload

The overload keyword implies the use of Port Address Translation.

Question 17

How many syslog levels are there with Cisco equipment?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 16

Answer 17

A. 8

Syslog levels 0 through 7 are available on most Cisco devices.

Question 18

What value do you change to have a router ignore its own startup-config on boot?

A. flash-boot
B. nvram.ini
C. configuration register
D. system-start

Answer 18

C. configuration register

The Configuration Register settings can permit a router to ignore its own startup-config during boot.

Question 19

Examine the topology shown here. How many collision domains exist between the PC and Router 1?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer 19

C. 2

There are two collision domains. The hub does not create collision domains off its ports. The bridge does. So there are two collision domains created by the bridge.

Question 20

Which of the following provides a secure method to transfer files in your Cisco network?

A. TFTP

B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. SCP

Answer 20

D. SCP

The Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) relies upon SSH technology for its operation. It is the only protocol listed here with security and encryption capabilities for file transfer.

Question 21

Examine the topology shown in the figure. The PC has sent a Ping request to the Server. Which devices in the network operate only at the physical layer of the OSI reference model? (Choose two.)

A. Ethernet cabling
B. Bridge 1
C. Router 2
D. Hub A
E. Switch 3
F. PC Network Interface Card

Answer 21

A. Ethernet cabling
D. Hub A

The cabling and the hub are Layer 1 components. Bridges and Switches include Layer 2 components. The router includes a Layer 2 and Layer 3 component.

Question 22

Which of the following are true on a typical Cisco access-layer switch? (Choose two.)

A. It can have IP routing enabled
B. It can have an IP address configured for management
C. It can be used for NAT or PAT
D. A default gateway allows the switch to access remote networks
E. Ports default to no switchport mode

Answer 22

B. It can have an IP address configured for management
D. A default gateway allows the switch to access remote networks

Layer 2 access switches will typically have IP addresses assigned for management purposes. A default gateway permits a managed switch to access remote networks, again for management purposes.

Question 23

From the list, which of the following would be correct best practices for device hardening measures? (Choose two.)

A. Disable VTY login using the VTY line configuration command: no login
B. Disable Telnet on the VTY lines using the command: transport input ssh
C. Disable all banner messages
D. Disable the use of the plain text passwords in the configurations
E. Disable SSH on the VTY lines

Answer 23

B. Disable Telnet on the VTY lines using the command: transport input ssh
D. Disable the use of the plain text passwords in the configurations

You should disable the use of Telnet by using the transport input ssh command. Also, use the service password-encryption command to hide plain text passwords. Depending on the AAA configuration (or lack thereof), the command no login removes the requirement for a login password on the VTY lines.

Question 24

Examine the switch configuration shown. What problem exists with this suggested configuration change?

SW1
configure terminal

interface fa0/10

switchport trunk encapsulation isl

switchport mode trunk

switchport port-security

switchport port-security max 2

no shutdown

A. Port security can only support a single secure MAC address.
B. Port security can be used on trunks (depending on the switch), but it is likely there will be many more than two learned MAC addresses on that port.
C. Port security can only be used with 802.1Q trunks.
D. A violation mode for port security must be selected.

Answer 24

B. Port security can be used on trunks (depending on the switch), but it is likely there will be many more than two learned MAC addresses on that port.

Port security can be used on configured access or trunk ports, but not on a dynamic port. When used on a trunk, it is likely there will be many devices’ MAC addresses crossing the trunk, so the limit of two MAC addresses would likely be too restrictive.

Question 25

Which of the following would be the preferred transport layer protocol for carrying Voice over IP (VoIP) when speed and throughput is a priority?

A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. HTTPS
E. ICMP

Answer 25

C. UDP

VoIP uses UDP for efficient transport.

Question 26

Examine the topology shown in the figure. If OSPF, EIGRP, and RIPv2 were all enabled on each interface on each router, which routing protocol would be used by R4 to determine the best route to 10.77.67.0/24?

A. EIGRP because its metric considers bandwidth and delay
B. OSPF because its cost is derived from bandwidth and delay
C. OSPF because it is an advanced distance vector routing protocol
D. EIGRP because of administrative distance

Answer 26

D. EIGRP because of administrative distance

Here EIGRP is preferred due to its lower administrative distance.

Question 27

You decided to reduce the size of your existing Layer 2 broadcast domains by creating new VLANs. A network device that forwards packets between those VLANs would be operating (at a minimum) at which OSI level?

A. A switch at Layer 1
B. A switch at Layer 2
C. A router at Layer 2
D. A router at Layer 3

Answer 27

D. A router at Layer 3

A router at Layer 3 provides the Inter-VLAN communications.
Note that this is often in the form of route processor inside a multilayer switch. This could also be implemented as a router on a stick (ROAS).

Question 28

Examine the topology shown in the figure. Provide the Router 2 configuration for RIP version 2 to enable RIP on G2/0. The G2/0 IP address is 192.168.0.1/24. Also, ensure that RIP will not perform automatic summarization.

_________

Answer 28

router rip

version 2

no auto-summary

network 192.168 .0.0

Question 29

Which of the following statements regarding ICMP is correct?

A. ICMP functions at the Network layer of the OSI model.
B. ICMP relies on TCP for reliable packet delivery.
C. ICMP relies on UDP for efficient packet delivery.
D. ICMP functions at the Session layer of the OSI model.

Answer 29

A. ICMP functions at the Network layer of the OSI model.

ICMP operates at the Network layer of the OSI model. It is encapsulated directly in IP packets and does not rely on UDP or TCP for its operation. Note that ICMP possesses its own protocol number like OSPF or EIGRP, which also do not rely on TCP or UDP.

Question 30

What device can use a dual-band approach and 802.11 standards for connecting end users to the network?

A. Firewall
B. WLC
C. AP
D. Router

Answer 30

C. AP

A wireless access point (AP) is a device designed to connect users to the network. The device is typically dual band, allowing 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands for access by several different 802.11 standards, including 802.11n, 802.11ac and others.

Question 31

What type of physical topology is created when using a Layer 2 switch or a hub on the LAN?

A. Mesh
B. Hybrid
C. Partial mesh
D. Star

Answer 31

D. Star

Both the hub and switch form a physical star topology.

Question 32

What is the last usable host address given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.10.101 with 255.255.224.0?
_________

Answer 32

172.16.15.254

There are 3 subnet bits. The increment is 32. The host range for this subnet is 172.16.0.1 to 172.16.31.254.

Question 33

What command produced the following output?

MK5 unit 0, NIM slot 1, NIM type code 7, NIM version 1
idb = 0x6150, driver structure at 0x34A878, regaddr = 0x8100300
IB at 0x6045500: mode=0x0108, local_addr=0, remote_addr=0
N1=1524, N2=1, scaler=100, T1=1000, T3=2000, TP=1
buffer size 1524
DTE V.35 serial cable attached
RX ring with 32 entries at 0x4 5560 : RLEN=5, Rxhead 0
00 pak=0x6044D78 ds=0x6044ED4 status=80 max_size=1524 pak_size=0

_________

Answer 33

show controllers

This is output from show controllers. Note the type of serial cable connected is displayed regarding a serial interface.

Question 34

What type of IP address is used to send traffic to one specific receiver from one specific source?

A. Multicast
B. Broadcast
C. Unicast
D. Anycast

Answer 34

C. Unicast

Unicast addresses are used for a specific host to send traffic to a specific host.

Question 35

Which of the following addresses is a private-use-only address?

A. 12.43.56.120
B. 177.12.34.19
C. 201.92.34.100
D. 10.123.23.104

Answer 35

D. 10.123.23.104

Here are examples of private IPv4 address ranges 10.0.0.0: 10.255.255.255;

172.16.0.0: 172.31.255.255; 192.168.0.0: 192.168.255.255.

Question 36

What must be in place before you can route other devices IPv6 traffic through your Cisco router?

A. The command dual-stack routing
B. A loopback 0 interface with an IPv4 address assigned
C. IPv4 interfaces
D. The ipv6 unicast-routing global-configuration command

Answer 36

D. The ipv6 unicast-routing global-configuration command

Cisco routers are able to support IPv6 on interfaces by default. They cannot,
however, route other devices IPv6 traffic without the added global command.

Question 37

Which command displays a quick view of BGP neighbor status?

A. show ip bgp adjacencies
B. show ip bgp peers
C. show ip bgp summary
D. show ip bgp neighbor

Answer 37

C. show ip bgp summary

Use show ip bgp summary in order to quickly verify peers.

Question 38

What are two reasons a duplex mismatch can be so difficult to find? (Choose two.)

A. Users are presented with an error message that varies by operating system.
B. Connectivity is typically intermittent.
C. Users cannot communicate on the network at all.
D. Connectivity might be slow.

Answer 38

B. Connectivity is typically intermittent.
D. Connectivity might be slow.

This issue is difficult to pinpoint because communication is intermittent or slow.

Question 39

What command would you use on a Cisco Layer 2 switch in order to verify errors regarding sending or receiving frames?

A. show controllers
B. show interface
C. show collisions
D. show version

Answer 39

B. show interface

The show interface command is very valuable for troubleshooting issues like collision, and also for verifying the overall status of a switch or router interface.

Question 40

Your Cisco switch is currently in VTP Client mode. You issue the vlan 100 command in global-configuration mode to create a new VLAN. What is the result?

A. The switch produces an error message.
B. The switch sends VLAN 100 configuration information to the VTP Server.
C. The switch reverts to Transparent mode.
D. The switch configures the VLAN, but on the local device only.

Answer 40

A. The switch produces an error message.

cannot be created on VTP Client devices. If you attempt to do this, you receive an error message.

Question 41

What traditional 802.1D STP port state does not exist in 802.1w RSTP?

A. Discarding
B. Listening
C. Learning
D. Forwarding

Answer 41

B. Listening

The listening state does not exist in RSTP.

Question 42

What global-configuration command allows you to disable CDP on an entire Cisco switch?

A. no cdp
B. no cdp enable
C. no cdp run
D. no cdp search

Answer 42

C. no cdp run

No cdp run is used to disable CDP globally on the device. To disable a CDP just on a single interface, use the no cdp enable command in interface configuration mode.

Question 43

When you enable port security for a switch port, what is the default violation mode?

A. Restrict
B. Shutdown
C. Protect
D. Passive

Answer 43

B. Shutdown

When you configure port security, the default violation mode is shutdown.

Question 44

What is the default administrative distance for internal EIGRP?

A. 20
B. 110
C. 120
D. 90

Answer 44

D. 90

The default admin distance for internal EIGRP is 90.

Question 45

What layer of the Cisco hierarchical model would most likely feature intense security mechanisms?

A. access
B. distribution
C. core
D. workstation

Answer 45

B. distribution

The distribution layer typically features the most intense security mechanisms, such as access control lists to control traffic. Note that the workstation layer and the access layer are the same. This rules out A and D as options.

Question 46

Examine the configuration that follows. What is the next hop for 10.10.20.0/24?

ip route 10.10.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1

A. 255.255.255.0
B. 10.10.20.1
C. 172.16.1.1
D. 0.0.0.0

Answer 46

C. 172.16.1.1

The static route is ip route 10.10.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1. The next hop is the last IP address shown in this command. On a point-to-point link, the local exit interface can be used as part of the command instead of the next-hop address of the next router in the path.

Question 47

What command permits you to see your EIGRP peers?

A. show eigrp neighbor table
B. show eigrp sessions
C. show ip eigrp neighbor
D. show eigrp peers

Answer 47

C. show ip eigrp neighbor

Use show ip eigrp neighbor to see your peers.

Question 48

What service provides name resolution for network requests?

A. ICMP
B. NAT
C. DNS
D. NTP

Answer 48

C. DNS

DNS provides resolution of names to IP addresses.

Question 49

What tool produced the output shown?

Server: 8.8.8.8
Address: 8.8.8.8 #53

Non-authoritative answer:
www.yahoo.com canonical n ame = fd-fp3.wg1.b.yahoo.com.
Name: fd-fp3.wg1.b.yahoo.com
Address: 98.139.183.24
Name: fd-fp3.wg1.b.yahoo.com
Address: 98.139.180.149

A. NETSTAT
B. NBTSTAT
C. NSLOOKUP
D. MSCONFIG

Answer 49

C. NSLOOKUP

The NSLOOKUP tool is a common utility for DNS issues.
The tool is excellent and displays information that you can use to diagnose Domain Name System (DNS) infrastructure problems and misconfigurations.

Question 50

What interface configuration mode command configures a Cisco router as a DHCP client?

A. ip address auto
B. ip address enable dhcp
C. dhcp address
D. ip address dhcp

Answer 50

D. ip address dhcp

It is simple to configure your Cisco device to acquire an address via DHCP. Under interface configuration mode, after bringing up the interface, use the ip address dhcp command.

Question 51

What command allows you to confirm the IP address and mask assigned to an interface?

A. show interfaces terse
B. show addresses
C. show ip interface brief
D. show ip interface

Answer 51

D. show ip interface

The show ip interface brief command provides a nice summary of the IP addresses assigned to your interfaces and their status. It does so in an easy-to-read, table-like format. This command
is often typed as simply sh ip int br. This command does not provide mask information, however. For that, you can use show ip interface.

Question 52

What is the stratum of a Cisco router if you configure it to be the authoritative time server with the command ntp master?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 8
E. 13

Answer 52

D. 8

A stratum 1 device is the most authoritative time server on the network. When you use the command ntp master and do not specify the stratum: the default stratum is 8.

Question 53

Examine the access list shown below. What is the issue with this access list?

access-list 1 permit any
access-list 1 deny host 10.10.10.1
access-list 1 deny host 10.10.10.2
access-list 1 deny host 172.16.1.1
access-list 1 deny any log

A. The access list cannot end with a deny statement.
B. The access list permits the traffic before it denies the traffic.
C. The access list is not named, which is required.
D. Standard access lists do not support logging.

Answer 53

B. The access list permits the traffic before it denies the traffic.

The order of access list statements is very important; they are processed from top to bottom. Here, the permit statement that begins the list permits all traffic before the deny statements are processed. On many IOS routers, the subsequent “deny” access control entries wouldn’t even be allowed, and would generate a message indicating a conflict due to the permit any entry already being in place.

Question 54

What do we use in dynamic NAT configuration in order to identify the traffic we intend to translate?

A. An access list
B. A pool
C. A NAT list
D. An interface reference

Answer 54

A. An access list

Dynamic NAT uses an ACL to identify the addresses to translate. The NAT commands also can include a pool to indicate the addresses that will be used for the translations.

Question 55

An IP SLA ICMP test can be used to check for which of the following?

A. Redirection
B. Latency
C. CPU usage
D. Buffer overflow

Answer 55

B. Latency

With the IP SLA feature, you can test latency.

Question 56

What protocol is responsible for setting up and maintaining PPP links?

A. LCP
B. NCP
C. CHAP
D. PAP

Answer 56

A. LCP

Link Configuration Protocol (LCP) is responsible for the WAN link maintenance in PPP.

Question 57

What is the effect of the no login command in line vty 0 4?

A. This command has no effect.
B. Telnet is disabled.
C. Users can not access a VTY.
D. Users are not asked for a password.

Answer 57

D. Users are not asked for a password.

The no login command is very confusing. When it is issued, it indicates that the password should not be checked when connecting to the router on those VTY lines. Effectively it means that no
login is required.

Question 58

Examine the configuration below. What statement is false?

no service password-encryption
!
e nable secret rtYHS3TTs
!
u sername admin01 privilege 15 secret Cisco123
!
l ine vty 0 4
password ChEeEs&WiZ
login
transport input telnet

A. Telnet users will be required to provide a password for Telnet access.
B. Telnet users will be required to provide enable password of ChEeEs&WiZ for access to privileged mode.
C. The admin-level user account’s password is not very secure.
D. New plain-text passwords will not be encrypted.

Answer 58

B. Telnet users will be required to provide enable password of ChEeEs&WiZ for access to privileged mode.

Here the Telnet password will be ChEeEs&WiZ, but to access privileged mode, rtYHS3TTs is required.

Question 59

A new Layer 2 switch in its default configuration has just been powered up. In addition to a console connection there are two Windows hosts, and an IP Phone (using POE) connected to its Ethernet ports. Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

A. If either Windows host has successfully completed an ARP resolution, the switch would have learned the MAC address of both Windows hosts.
B. The switch would see the two Windows hosts directly connected devices from CDP.
C. The switch won’t know if the IP phone is a Cisco IP phone, or a third party IP phone until a call is initiated from the phone.
D. The switch can be configured with an IPv4 address on interface VLAN 1.

Answer 59

A. If either Windows host has successfully completed an ARP resolution, the switch would have learned the MAC address of both Windows hosts.
D. The switch can be configured with an IPv4 address on interface VLAN 1.

When the Windows hosts send at least 1 frame into the network, the switch would learn their respective MAC addresses. The switch can be configured with a management VLAN 1 IP
address for the benefit of management of the switch. A default gateway is also required for the switch to communicate back to the management computer if that management computer is not on the same IP subnet as the switch.

Question 60

Refer to the network topology that follows. Your senior network administrator is concerned about network security. He has asked that you ensure the PC-10 device in VLAN 10 is the only device that is permitted to connect to Port 0/2 on the switch. How should you respond? (Choose two.)

A. Configure RIP on all network devices and use MD5 authentication.
B. Configure the service password-encryption command on the switch.
C. Configure Port Security on interface 0/2 of the switch.
D. Configure Router A to route traffic sourced from any device other than PC-10 to Null0.
E. Configure a static MAC address as part of port security.

Answer 60

C. Configure Port Security on interface 0/2 of the switch.
E. Configure a static MAC address as part of port security.

Here, a solution is port security with a static port security MAC address assignment.