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DAT > Structure and Function of the Systems > Flashcards

Structure and Function of the Systems Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the central nervous system (CNS) ?

A

cranial nerves

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2
Q

Gaps in the myelin sheath of neurons are known as __

A

nodes of ranvier

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3
Q

Which of the following has the greatest influence on resting membrane potential?

A

potassium leak currents

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4
Q

Oligodendrocytes are found in the __

A

central nervous system

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5
Q

Which of the following is an effect of sympathetic stimulation of the liver?

A

increased glycoogenolysis

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6
Q

What is the resting potential of a neuron?

A

-70mV

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7
Q

Place the following sections of an action potential in order:

A
  1. Na+ channels open
  2. Na+ channels close and K+ channels open
  3. K+ channels close
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8
Q

A sensory neuron of the PNS takes impulses to __

A

the spinal cord

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9
Q

Which of the following is not true regaurding the somatic nervous system?

A

it is regulated by both acetylcholine and epinephrine

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10
Q

The part of the peripheral nervous system which directs the body’s rapid involuntary response to danger or stress is the __

A

sympathetic nervous system

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11
Q

An action potential arrives at the axon terminal at a synaptic junction. Which of the following events then causes release of a neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?

A

Ca2+ uptake at the axon terminal

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12
Q

Voluntary skeletal muscle contraction is controlled by which part of the brain?

A

frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex

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13
Q

Which of the following is released at the synapse between a somatic motor neuron and a muscle fiber to stimulate muscular contraction?

A

acetylcholine

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of myelin in a neuron?

A

increases the speed of nerve signal transmission

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15
Q

Which of the following best describes what happens to excess neurotransmitter in the synapse following synaptic transmission?

A

is it absorbed by the presynaptic neuron

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16
Q

Place the following sections of synaptic transmission in order:

A
  1. nerve signal arrives at the axon terminal (pre)
  2. Ca2+ channels open in presynaptic membrane
  3. Ca2+ enters the axon terminal
  4. neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft
  5. neurotransmitter binds to postsynpatic membrane
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17
Q

Which of the following membrane potentials represents the approximate peak depolarization of the action potential of a neuron?

A

+40mV

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18
Q

The part of the peripheral nervous system which regulates involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, blood pressure and respiration is the __

A

autonomic nervous system

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19
Q

Which of the following amino acids also functions as a CNS neurotransmitter?

A

glutamate

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20
Q

Which of the following affects on the action potential may result if the relative stimulation of a neuron increases?

A

the action potentials increase in frequency

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21
Q

Epinephrine and norepinephrine hormones are derived from __

A

tyrosine

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22
Q

The effect of somatostatin on glucose metabolism is __

A

decreased glycogenolysis and glycogen synthesis

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23
Q

Which of the following hormones enters the target cell rather than binding to transmembrane receptors?

A

estrogen

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24
Q

Insulin is produced by __

A

beta cells in the pancreas

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25
Q

Which of the following is a hormone which increases the body’s basal metabolic rate?

A

thryoxine

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26
Q

Which of the following is classed as both an endocrine and exocrine gland?

A

pancreas

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27
Q

Which of the following hormones increases in the bloodstream if you skip breakfast and go for a run?

A

glucagon

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28
Q

Which of the following is a pituitary gland hormone which stimulates sperm production in males and follicle development in females?

A

FSH

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29
Q

Which of the following is not a peptide hormone?

A

aldosterone

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30
Q

Which of the following describes the difference endocrine and exocrine glands?

A

endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream without ducts whereas exocrine glands release secretions into ducts

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31
Q

Which if the following hormones does not increase Ca2+ levels in the blood?

A

calcitonin

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32
Q

Which of the following is/are glands found just above the kidneys?

A

adrenal glands

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33
Q

Which of the following is considered the link between the nervous and endocrine systems?

A

hypothalamus

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34
Q

Which of the following is a type of cell signaling in which one cell affects nearby target cells?

A

paracrine

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35
Q

Which of the following does not have exocrine function?

A

adrenal glands

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36
Q

Which of the following is a group of hormones released from the adrenal glands in response to stress?

A

catecholamines

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37
Q

Which of the following glands does not synthesize its own hormones?

A

posterior pituitary

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38
Q

Which of the following describes the function of oxytocin?

A

stimulates milk letdown in the breasts

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39
Q

Which of the following describes the physiological effects of hypothyroidism?

A

lower heart rate and respiration rate

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40
Q

Which of the following describes the effect of calcitonin on bone calcium stores?

A

decreased osteoclasts number and activity

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41
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding luteinizing hormone (LH)?

A

LH activates GnRH production

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42
Q

Which of the following two hormones are stored and released by the posterior pituitary gland?

A

vasopressin and oxytocin

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43
Q

Which of the following is not a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland?

A

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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44
Q

Which of the following best describes the overall function of the thyroid gland?

A

regulation of cell growth and metabolism

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45
Q

Which of the following is not under hypothalamic control?

A

regulation of the immune response

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46
Q

A tropic hormone is one which __

A

stimulates endocrine glands

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47
Q

Which of the following is the primary target for tropic hormones of the hypothalamus?

A

anterior pituitary

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48
Q

Which of the following shows the passage of air into the lungs?

A

nose-> larynx-> trachea-> bronchi-> bronchioles-> alveoli

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49
Q

The term “low oxygen binding affinity” means that hemoglobin

A

unloads oxygen easily but does not readily load

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50
Q

The majority of carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as __

A

HCO3-

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51
Q

What is the function of the pulmonary surfactant produced by type 2 epithelial cells in the alveoli?

A

to prevent alveoli from collapsing during exhaling

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52
Q

Which of the following is the driving force which causes air to enter the lungs during inhalation?

A

lower pressure in the lungs than the atmosphere

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53
Q

Diaphragmatic contraction is stimulated by the

A

phrenic nerve

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54
Q

Which of the following describes the effect of high partial pressure of oxygen on the binding affinity of hemoglobin?

A

higher affinity

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55
Q

2,3- disphosphoglycerate is synthesized in the blood in response to __

A

low blood oxygen levels

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56
Q

Which of the following explains why hemoglobin readily unloads carbon dioxide in pulmonary capillaries?

A

Haldane effect

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57
Q

Which of the following statements about chloride ions in the blood plasma is correct?

A

oxygenated blood has more chloride ions than deoxygenated blood

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58
Q

The function of chloride ions in the blood is

A

to allow bicarbonate to cross the red blood cell membrane

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59
Q

The medulla oblongata regulates ventilation by

A

detecting changes in blood pH using chemoreceptors

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60
Q

Congestive heart failure often leads to acidosis of the blood. Which of the following is the primary cause of this decrease in blood pH?

A

decreased rate of diffusion of CO2 from the capillaries into alveoli at the lungs

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61
Q

Which of the following explains why hemoglobin readily unloads oxygen at respiring tissues?

A

Bohr effect

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62
Q

Hyperventilation will result in which of the following conditions?

A

respiratory alkalosis

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63
Q

Which of the following would not be an effect of a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration in the blood?

A

bronchodilation

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64
Q

Which of the following ions must be bound to hemoglobin in order for it to load oxygen?

A

Fe2+

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65
Q

As CO2 partial pressure increases, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen __ causing __ shift in the saturation curve

A

decrease, right

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66
Q

Which of the following shows the path of oxygenated blood leaving the lungs?

A

pulmonary vein-> left atrium-> left ventricle-> aorta

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67
Q

Which of the following describes the function of the AV node?

A

to decrease the speed of the electrical impulse passing between the SA node and the Bundle of His

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68
Q

Deoxygenated blood from the head and arms returns to the heart via the __

A

superior vena cava

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69
Q

Which of the following vessels connects capillaries and veins?

A

venules

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70
Q

The pulmonary circuit begins in the __ and ends in the __

A

right ventricle, left atrium

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71
Q

Which of the following shows the pathway of electrical stimulation through the heart?

A

SA node-> AV node-> Bundle of His-> Purkinje fibers

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72
Q

Which of the following are innervated by sympathetic nerves?

A

arteries and arterioles

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73
Q

Lymph flows through lymphatic vessels due to __

A

both contraction of skeletal muscles and contraction of smooth muscle in lymph vessel walls

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74
Q

Stimulation of the sinoatrial node by the vagus nerve would result in __

A

slower heart rate

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75
Q

Which event follows electrical stimulation of the Purkinje fibers?

A

ventricular contraction

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76
Q

Which of the following would not serve to relieve hypertension?

A

decreased urine production

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77
Q

Portal circulation of blood occurs between which of the following?

A

separate capillary beds

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78
Q

Which of the following is not a component of lymph?

A

erythrocytes

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79
Q

During ventricular systole, which valves of the heart open?

A

aortic and pulmonary

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80
Q

Which of the following is a direct effect of the AV node failing?

A

the ventricles would not contract

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81
Q

Cardiac output refers to __

A

the volume of blood pumped out of the hart per minute

82
Q

Which of the following best describes the structure of arterioles?

A

they are small with a layer of smooth muscles on the outside

83
Q

End Diastolic volume refers to __

A

the volume of the blood in the ventricles before contraction

84
Q

Which of the following has the greatest effect on systemic blood pressure?

A

arterioles

85
Q

Which blood vessels have walls which contain smooth muscles?

A

arteries, veins, and arterioles

86
Q

Of the plasma proteins thrombin and prothrombin __

A

thrombin is the active form and prothrombin is the inactive form __

87
Q

The function of the thoracic duct is the __

A

drainage of lymph into the bloodstream

88
Q

Which of the following is an enzyme found in saliva which kills bacteria?

A

lysozyme

89
Q

In the case of tissue damage or infection, monocytes differentiate into __

A

macrophages

90
Q

Which of the following is not initially involved in the immune response when a pathogen is encountered by the body for the first time?

A

T lymphocyte

91
Q

Neutrophils migrate towards injured or infected tissue following a chemical gradient in a process known as __

A

chemotaxis

92
Q

Which of the following is a differentiated B or T lymphocyte which responds relatively more quickly to subsequent encounters with a pathogen?

A

memory cell

93
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the adaptive (specific) immune response?

A

neutrophil

94
Q

Recognition of self verses non self cells by the adaptive immune system occurs due to the exposure of T cells to __

A

bodily antigens in the thymus

95
Q

Which of the following best describes the action of complement proteins in immune response?

A

lysis of foreign cells

96
Q

In which part of an antibody would you expect to find the antigen binding sites?

A

variable region

97
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of plasma cells in the immune response?

A

synthesis of antibodies

98
Q

Antibodies are crucial components of the adaptive immune response. Which of the following is not a function of antibodies?

A

antigen presentation

99
Q

Which of the following best describes cell mediated immunity?

A

an immune response mediated by helper and cytotoxic T cells

100
Q

Which of the following is not a component of gastric juices?

A

bile

101
Q

Which of the following is secreted by salivary glands?

A

amylase

102
Q

Which of the following best describes the effect of glucagon on the body?

A

increase the release of glucose into the bloodstream by the liver

103
Q

Which of the following secretes hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

A

parietal cells

104
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary function of gastrin in digestion?

A

stimulate hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach

105
Q

The inactive pre cursors of digestive enzymes are known as __

A

zymogens

106
Q

Which structure in the small intestine transports fatty acids and glycerol into the lymph?

A

lacteals

107
Q

Which of the major food groups is biochemically digested in the mouth, stomach, and small intestine?

A

carbohydrate

108
Q

Which of the following is secreted by the pancreas to neutralize stomach acids as food travels into the small intestine?

A

bicarbonate

109
Q

Which of the following describes a primary function of the large intestine?

A

absorption of water, electrolytes and vitamins

110
Q

Which of the following is involved in the chemical digestion of proteins in the small intestine?

A

trypsin

111
Q

Which of the following may be used as a source of energy during times of starvation?

A

muscle tissue, ketone bodies, glycogen, adipose tissue

112
Q

Which of the following prevents stomach walls from self digestion

A

mucous cells

113
Q

Which of the following is secreted by the duodenum to stimulate bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas?

A

secretin

114
Q

The formation of glycogen from glucose is known as __

A

glycogenesis

115
Q

Which of the following is secreted to stimulate the production of gastric acid?

A

histamine

116
Q

What is the function of bile during digestion of fats?

A

emulsifying larger fat droplets into smaller fat droplets

117
Q

Countercurrent exchange in the kidney occurs in the __

A

loop of henle

118
Q

Which of the following shows the correct passage of urine out of the body?

A

kidneys-> ureter-> bladder-> urethra

119
Q

In the nephron chloride ions __ the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle by __

A

leave, active transport

120
Q

Which of the following describes the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A

regulation of blood pressure

121
Q

Which of the following is unlikely to be presents in the urine produced by a normally functioning kidney?

A

glucose

122
Q

The driving force for ultrafiltration of blood in the glomerulus is

A

hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries

123
Q

As fluid moves through the descending limp of the loop of henle it becomes

A

more concentrated

124
Q

Which of the following shows the correct passage of blood through they kidney?

A

afferent arteriole-> efferent arteriole-> peritubular capillaries

125
Q

Compared to the filtrate, the renal medulla is __ and the renal cortex is __

A

hypertonic, hypotonic

126
Q

Where in the nephron does the greatest reabsorption of amino acids from filtrate occur?

A

proximal convoluted tubule

127
Q

The osmolarity gradient in the medulla is established by __

A

selective permeability of the loop of henle

128
Q

The purpose of ammonia in excretion is to __

A

acid base homeostasis of the body

129
Q

The rate of ultrafiltration in the glomerulus is determined by __

A

the osmolarity of the blood, the rate of flow of blood flow to the kidney, the relative sizes of the afferent and efferent arterioles

130
Q

If the flow rate of filtrate through the nephron increases __

A

urine will become more dilute

131
Q

Which of the following explains the effect of aldosterone on the nephron?

A

increased membrane permeability of the distal convoluted tubule to sodium

132
Q

Which of the following would occur as a result of an increase in the concentration of plasma potassium?

A

aldosterone secretion

133
Q

Which of the following shows the correct order of the phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

follicular phase, ovulation, luteal phase

134
Q

Gonadotropin hormones are produced in the __

A

anterior pituitary

135
Q

Menstruation predominantly occurs during which phase of the ovarian cycle?

A

follicular phase

136
Q

The main function of LH in both sexes can be describes as __

A

maturation of germ cells

137
Q

FSH is predominantly active in females from __ to __

A

puberty, menopause

138
Q

Which of the following describes the function of FSH in the male reproductive cycle?

A

regulating sperm production and maturation

139
Q

Which of the following hormones directly complements estrogen in the preparation of the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized egg?

A

progesterone

140
Q

An LH surge in the ovarian cycle results in __

A

ovulation

141
Q

which of the following describes the follicular phase of the female reproductive cycle?

A

development of the secondary oocyte

142
Q

In an average 28 day cycle, the proliferative phase occurs approximately during __

A

days 7-14

143
Q

The primary source of progesterone during early stages of pregnancy is the __

A

corpus luteum

144
Q

During which of the stages of the ovarian cycle is successful implantation most likely to occur?

A

luteal phase

145
Q

Which hormone directly inhibits FSH release by the pituitary gland?

A

estrogen

146
Q

Increased levels of estrogen during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle causes which of the following?

A

thickening of the endometrium

147
Q

In an average 28 day cycle, the LH surge occurs around day __

A

13

148
Q

The corpus luteum produces which of the following?

A

estrogen and progesterone

149
Q

Gonadotropin releasing hormone is produced in the __

A

hypothalamus

150
Q

the part of the ovarian cycle where menstruation occurs is __

A

days 1-7

151
Q

Which of the following is not a function of luteinizing hormone?

A

estrogen inhibition

152
Q

Which of the following occurs during the luteal phase of the female reproductive cycle?

A

thickening of the uterine lining

153
Q

In which of the following structures does spermatogenesis occur?

A

seminiferous tubules

154
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the flow of sperm cells from spermatogensis through ejaculation?

A

testes, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra

155
Q

Which of the following produces testosterone?

A

leydig cells

156
Q

The function of the prostate gland is __

A

secretion of buffers, nutrients, and enzymes into semen

157
Q

Successful implantation of a fertilized egg occurs at which female reproductive structure?

A

endometrium

158
Q

Which of the following contributes nutrients and enzymes to semen?

A

seminal vesicle

159
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the formation of mature egg cells which begins in the developing ovaries of a female fetus?

A

oogenesis

160
Q

In females, the onset of oogenesis occurs __

A

in the womb

161
Q

What is/are the products of meiosis I in the ovarian follicles?

A

secondary oocyte + polar body

162
Q

In males, the onset of spermatogenesis occurs __

A

during puberty

163
Q

The release of secondary oocyte from ovarian follicles is known as __

A

ovulation

164
Q

The diploid precursor to sperm cells are known as __

A

spermatogonia

165
Q

The haploid product of meiosis II in spermatogenesis is known as __

A

spermatid

166
Q

Which of the following events stimulates completion of meiosis II in a secondary oocyte?

A

fertilization

167
Q

Which of the following type of muscle which is striated and has multiple nuclei?

A

skeletal

168
Q

The membrane bound structure within muscle cells which store calcium is known as the __

A

sacroplasmic reticulum

169
Q

The contractile unit of a muscle fiber is known as a __

A

sarcomere

170
Q

The term “striated” in relation to muscles refers to __

A

muscle tissue with repeating units

171
Q

Which of the following causes the red color of muscle tissue?

A

myoglobin

172
Q

Action potentials spread through cardiac muscle via __

A

gap junctions

173
Q

Which of the following shortens during muscle contraction?

A

H zone and I band

174
Q

During the power stroke of muscle contraction, which of the following is not true?

A

actin moves away from the M line

175
Q

Which of the following events causes the myosin head to detach from actin and return to the “cocked” ready position?

A

ATP binding to myosin head

176
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the power stroke of muscles contraction?

A

myosin heads pull actin towards the M line

177
Q

Which of the following regions of the sacromere is comprised of actin only?

A

I band

178
Q

During muscle contraction, crossbridges form between __

A

actin and myosin

179
Q

Which of the following describes the role of Ca2+ in muscle contraction?

A

removes tropomyosin from the myosin binding sites on actin filaments

180
Q

Energy for the power stroke of muscle contraction is obtained by __

A

hydrolysis of ATP

181
Q

Which of the following primarily fills the medullary cavity that runs down the center of an adult femur bone?

A

yellow bone marrow

182
Q

Longitudinal bone growth occurs mainly at the __

A

epiphyseal plate

183
Q

The cylindrical units of compact bone are known as __

A

osteons

184
Q

Cells that break down bone matrix for the reabsorption of calcium are known as __

A

osteoclasts

185
Q

The point of attachment of muscle to a movable bone is the __

A

insertion

186
Q

Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?

A

pelvis

187
Q

The small cavities within osteons in which osteocytes are found are known as __

A

lacunae

188
Q

Which of the following is the type of joint found in the skull?

A

synarthrosis

189
Q

Tissue that connects bone to bone is known as __

A

ligament

190
Q

Calcium ions in bones exist largely as __

A

hydroxyapatite

191
Q

Mature bone cells which exchange nutrients and waste with the blood are known as __

A

osteocytes

192
Q

the main type of cartilage present in the knee joint is __

A

hyaline cartilage

193
Q

Which of the following is found in infants and children but not adults?

A

epiphyseal plates

194
Q

the cells which secrete cartilage and become embedded in it are known as __

A

chondrocytes

195
Q

the epidermis is primarily composed of __

A

squamous epithelial tissue

196
Q

Which of the following produces a protective pigment to block UV radiation damage to the skin?

A

melanocytes

197
Q

The hypodermis is primarily composed of __

A

connective and adipose tissue

198
Q

Which of the following helps the epidermal layer to be waterproof and to prevent water loss?

A

keratin

199
Q

Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerve ending, and exocrine glands?

A

dermis

200
Q

Which of the following does not have a function in heat retention in the skin?

A

cutaneous vasoconstriction

201
Q

Which of the following exerts primary control over cutaneous vasodilation and vasocontriction?

A

sympathetic autonomic nervous system

DAT (4 decks)

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