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DAT > Genetics > Flashcards

Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

A pea plant produces purple and yellow peas. Cross pollination of a homozygous yellow pea plant with a homozygous purple pea plant produces pea plants each with a mixture of approximately 50% yellow and 50% purple peas in their pods. This is an example of __

A

Codominance

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2
Q

Choose the correct definition for a gene

A

DNA sequence which codes for a protein

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3
Q

Choose the correct definition for locus

A

position/location of a gene on a chromosome

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4
Q

Two genes are most likely to experience independent assortment if __

A

they are located for apart on the same chromosome and they are on different chromosomes

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5
Q

Recessive alleles __

A

require two copies to be expressed in the phenotype

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6
Q

Dominant alleles __

A

require one copy to be expressed in the phenotype

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7
Q

The interaction of multiple genes with the environment to determine a characteristic that shows continuous variation is known as __

A

polygenic inheritance

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8
Q

An autosome is __

A

non sex chromosome

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9
Q

Colorblindness is an x linked recessive condition. A colorblind male and a female who is a carrier for colorblindness are planning to have a baby. What is the probability that the couple will have a male child who is colorblind?

A

25%

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10
Q

Which of the following blood types are considered “universal donors”

A

O

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11
Q

Which of the following blood types are considered “universal acceptors”

A

AB

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12
Q

A white rat mates with a black rat and produce a full litter of grey offspring. This is an example of __

A

incomplete dominance

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13
Q

In a molecule of DNA or RNA, the phosphodiester bond forms between __

A

3’ carbon and a 5’ carbon

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14
Q

Which of the following is not a RNA nitrogenous base?

A

thymine

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15
Q

Which of the following nitrogenous bases are pyrimidines?

A

cytosine, thymine, and uracil

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16
Q

Which of the following describes the action of helicase in DNA replication?

A

breaking hydrogen bonds between nucleotides

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17
Q

In eukaryotic DNA replication bubble forms at __ sites on the DNA molecule and moves in __

A

multiple, bond the 5’–> 3’ and 3’–> 5’ directions

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18
Q

Okazaki fragments form because __

A

DNA polymerase can only synthesize in the 5’–> 3’ direction

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19
Q

In a molecule of DNA, Adenine typically pairs with __

A

Thymine

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20
Q

DNA replication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

A

interphase

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21
Q

DNA replication is described as semi conservative because __

A

each new DNA molecule contains one of the original strands and one newly synthesized strand

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22
Q

In prokaryotic DNA a replication bubble forms at __ site on the DNA molecule and moves in __

A

one, both the 5’–> 3’ and 3’–> 5’ directions

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23
Q

Which type of sugar is found in a nucleic acid molecule?

A

pentose

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24
Q

Which of the following helps to keep DNA strands in the replication bubble separate during replication?

A

single stranded binding proteins

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25
Q

Which of the following describes the action of ligase in DNA replication?

A

joining the ends of DNA fragments together

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26
Q

In DNA replication, the difference between the leading and lagging strand is __

A

the leading strand is synthesized continuously and the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously

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27
Q

Which of the following describes the action of telomerase in eukaryotes?

A

to add repeating nucleotide sequence to the end of DNA strands

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28
Q

Which of the following is believed to play a role in the aging process?

A

telomere shortening after successive DNA replications

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29
Q

The function of telomeres is__

A

to protect the ends of DNA from deterioration

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30
Q

In DNA replication, a primer __

A

is a short sequence of RNA used as a template for elongation by DNA polymerase

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31
Q

Eukaryotic transcription is carried out by a __

A

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

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32
Q

How many codons code for amino acids?

A

61

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33
Q

The term “monocistronic” means __

A

one polypeptide is coded for by each mRNA molecule

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34
Q

Which of the following is found in the promoter region in eukaryotes?

A

TATA box

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35
Q

RNA polymerase “reads” the DNA molecule in the __ direction and synthesizes the mRNA molecule in the __ direction

A

3’–> 5’, 5’–>3’

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36
Q

Which of the following is not a stop codon?

A

UAU

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37
Q

In transcription, the template strand is also known as the __ strand, while the non template strand is also known as the __ strand.

A

antisense, sense

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38
Q

Which of the following occurs during termination of transcription?

A

the DNA double helix reforms, RNA polymerase reaches a termination sequence, the mRNA molecule is released from DNA

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39
Q

Which event triggers the termination of transcription?

A

RNA polymerase reaches a termination sequence on the DNA

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40
Q

Which of the following include proteins that bind to the promoter region of a gene and modulate the rate of transcription?

A

transcription factors

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41
Q

Addition of a 5’ cap and poly-A tail to an mRNA molecule occurs in the __

A

nucleus

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42
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of “alternative splicing” in protein synthesis

A

to form multiple proteins from a single gene

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43
Q

Which of the following facilitates the removal of noncoding regions from the pre mRNA molecules

A

snRNPs

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44
Q

Which of the following describes the role of snRNPs in protein synthesis

A

removal of introns from mRNA

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45
Q

The complex which removes noncoding regions from pre mRNA molecules in eukaryotes is the __

A

spliceosome

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46
Q

Which of these are added to a eukaryotic mRNA molecule during mRNA processing?

A

poly A tail and 5’ cap

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47
Q

The purpose of the poly A tail in a molecule of eukaryotic mRNA __

A

to allow export across the nuclear membrane and to increase the stability of mRNA

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48
Q

The coding regions of pre mRNA transcript are called

A

exons

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49
Q

Which of the following is responsible for translation in protein synthesis?

A

ribosomes

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50
Q

The first amino acid in a growing polypeptide chain during translation in prokaryotes is __

A

N-formylmethionine

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51
Q

Which event triggers the termination of translation?

A

a stop codon enters the A site of the ribosome

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52
Q

Wobble base pairing typically occurs when __

A

the third nucleotide in the codon or anticodon do not follow Watson Crick base pairing

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53
Q

The first codon translated on a eukaryotic mRNA is __

A

AUG

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54
Q

During initiation of Eukaryotic translation on a ribosome, the first aminoacyl-tRNA molecule binds to the mRNA transcript at the __

A

peptidyl site

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55
Q

At the end of initiation of eukaryotic translation on a ribosome is complete, which of the following are vacant?

A

amino acyl and exit site

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56
Q

Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation?

A

the 5’ end of mRNA binds to the small ribosomal unit, tRNA methionine binds to the start codon, the large ribosomal subunit attaches to the complex

57
Q

Which of the following cofactors facilitates the translocation of the mRNA molecule through the ribosome?

A

GTP

58
Q

Which of the following facilitates the folding of a polypeptide into its tertiary conformation?

A

chaperone proteins

59
Q

In translation, polypeptide chains are synthesized from the __ terminus to the __ terminus

A

amino, carboxyl

60
Q

To increase the expression of a gene __ proteins bind to __ regions on DNA

A

activator, enhancer

61
Q

Regulatory proteins which block the expression of genes are called __

A

repressors

62
Q

Regulatory proteins which increase the expression of genes are called __

A

activators

63
Q

To decrease the expression of a gene in prokaryotes __bind to __ on DNA

A

repressors, operators

64
Q

Which of the following are methods of post transcriptional control of gene expression?

A

alternative splicing, polyadenylation of mRNA, addition of 5’ CAP to mRNA, binding of siRNA to mRNA

65
Q

Which of the following influences how many times an mRNA transcript is translated?

A

the stability of the mRNA transcript

66
Q

What affect, if any, does the 5’ CAP of mRNA have on protein production?

A

promotes translation, prevents mRNA degradation

67
Q

Which of the following is not a method of transcriptional regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes?

A

alternative splicing

68
Q

Which of the following do transcription factors bind to?

A

promoters upstream of a gene, enhancers downstream of a gene, RNA polymerase

69
Q

Which of the following describes the effect of alternative splicing on gene expression?

A

alternative splicing controls which proteins are produces from an mRNA transcipt

70
Q

mRNA is degraded by __

A

exonucleases

71
Q

Epigenetic modifications of DNA involve alterations to

A

chromatin structure

72
Q

Which of the following is not a possible epigenetic modification of DNA

A

gene transposition

73
Q

Regulation of eukaryotic gene expression can occur by acetylation of __

A

histones

74
Q

What DNA nucleotide is most commonly methylated?

A

cytosine

75
Q

The result of DNA methylation in eukaryotes is __

A

gene inactivation

76
Q

Histone acetylation involves adding an acetyl group to which of the following amino acids?

A

Lysine

77
Q

Which of the following results from acetylation of histones?

A

less condensed chromatin structure

78
Q

Which of the following DNA modifications may alter gene expression?

A

methylation

79
Q

x chromosome inactivation is achieved by which of the following

A

DNA methylation and histone deacetylation

80
Q

An inactive X chromosome is known as __

A

Barr body

81
Q

Which of the following are short RNA sequences which block gene expression?

A

siRNA

82
Q

The effect of siRNA binding to an mRNA transcript is __

A

degradation of the mRNA transcript

83
Q

Which of the following describes how micro RNAs regulate gene expression

A

promoting mRNA degradation and inhibiting translation

84
Q

Which of the following describes the recombinant DNA technique known as gene cloning?

A

the desired gene is inserted into a plasmid and taken up into the host cell

85
Q

Recombinant DNA is __

A

DNA which contains sections of DNA from multiple organisms

86
Q

Which of the following enzymes is used to cut DNA in recombinant DNA techniques?

A

restriction endonuclease

87
Q

Which of the following enzymes is used in the insertion of foreign DNA into a plasmid?

A

DNA ligase

88
Q

Unpaired nucleotides produced after the treatment of double stranded DNA with restriction enzymes are known as __

A

sticky ends

89
Q

The process by which a plasmid is introduced into bacterial cells is known as __

A

tranformation

90
Q

Which of the following techniques is commonly used during transformation to enable the bacteria to make up a recombinant plasmid?

A

heat shock treatment

91
Q

Which of the following explains how gel electrophoresis can be used to separate DNA fragments?

A

shorter DNA molecules move further towards the anode than larger molecules

92
Q

The migration distance of a protein on an SDS polyacrylamide gel is primarily determined by __

A

size

93
Q

Which of the following refers to the annealing of complementary DNA strands?

A

hybridization

94
Q

Which of the following techniques would be used to amplify a sample of DNA obtained at a crime scene for forensic analysis?

A

polymerase chain reaction

95
Q

Put the following steps of a single round of PCR in the correct order.

A

denaturation, annealing, elongation

96
Q

Polymerase chain reaction is used to __

A

to make large quantities of DNA from small samples

97
Q

Which enzyme is used for the elongation step in PCR?

A

taq polymerase

98
Q

Which of the following is used for the denaturation of DNA during PCR?

A

heating over 90 degrees celsius

99
Q

Reverse transcriptase synthesizes __

A

DNA from mRNA

100
Q

DNA which is synthesized from a single stranded RNA molecule is known as __

A

complementary DNA

101
Q

How does complementary DNA differ from the parent DNA sequence for eukaryotes?

A

it does not contain introns

102
Q

Which of the following would be most useful in measuring the expression level of multiple genes simultaneously?

A

DNA microarray

103
Q

Which of the following are used in DNA analysis to positively match a DNA sample to an individual?

A

short tandem repeats

104
Q

The full set of mRNA expressed by a cell is known as the __

A

transciptome

105
Q

Which of the following is a genetic sequencing method which used fluorescent markers to synthesize one DNA fragment at a time?

A

sanger sequencing

106
Q

In comparison with the eukaryotic genome, prokaryotes have

A

smaller genomes with higher gene density

107
Q

Regions of DNA that have become non functional in a species over time due to mutation are known as

A

pseudogenes

108
Q

The percentage of the human genome which codes for proteins is approximately

A

1.5%

109
Q

Which of the following describes the process of transposition in retrotransposons?

A

“copy and paste” transposition using an RNA intermediate

110
Q

What are multigene families?

A

similar or identical gene sequences that have resulted from duplication of a single origin gene

111
Q

Which of the following is a 180bp DNA sequence that codes for a DNA binding domain in genes which regulate structural development?

A

homeobox

112
Q

Most genetic sequences in human DNA are __

A

transposable elements

113
Q

Which of the following refers to a single base variation in the gene sequences of individuals?

A

single nucleotide polymorphisms

114
Q

Which of the following processes results in formation of three distinct germ layers in the embryo?

A

gastrulation

115
Q

Which of the following is a phase of embryonic cell division without growth?

A

cleavage

116
Q

Place the following in order of progression in embryonic development.

A

morula, blastula, gastrula

117
Q

The term given to a single cell capable of forming a complete embryo is __

A

totipotent

118
Q

Programmed cell death in normal cell development is known as __

A

apoptosis

119
Q

The cellular product of zygotic cleavage is known as a __

A

blastomere

120
Q

Which of the following is the process by which developing embryonic stem cells form specialized cells with different structures and functions

A

differentiation

121
Q

Embryonic ectodermal tissue would form which of the following?

A

brain

122
Q

Which of the following describes the transition of an embryo from morula to blastula phase?

A

outward movement of embryonic epithelial cells to form a circular fluid filled cavity

123
Q

Embryonic endodermal tissue would form which of the following

A

lung tissue

124
Q

Which of the following structures formed in the gastrula phase of an embryo will later become part of the vertebral column?

A

notocord

125
Q

Embryonic mesodermal tissue would form which of the following?

A

cardiac muscle

126
Q

The difference between a morula embryo and a zygote is __

A

the morula is multicellular whereas the zygote is unicellular

127
Q

Embryonic stem cells are found within which of the following?

A

blastocyte

128
Q

The rapid period of mitotic cell division which occurs following fertilization of an egg is known as __

A

cleavage

129
Q

Which of the following structures in an embryo will later become the spinal cord?

A

neural tube

130
Q

The fluid filled cavity of an embryo in the blastula phase is known as the __

A

blastocoel

131
Q

The acrosomal reaction of sperm involves __

A

digestion of the zone pellucida of the oocyte membrane

132
Q

The human form of an embryo in blastula phase is known as a __

A

blastocyst

133
Q

After successful implantation to the endometrium, which of the following is released from the developing embryo?

A

hcG hormone

134
Q

The blastocyst transitions into a gastrula by which of the following processes?

A

invagination of embryonic epithelial cells

135
Q

The outer layer of a blastocyst which will form the placenta is called the __

A

trophoblast

136
Q

Which of the following processes results in formation of a morula embryo from a zygote?

A

rapid cleavage

137
Q

Which of the following is the first major event in organogenesis?

A

neural tube formation

138
Q

Which of the following is the mouth like opening on the surface of an embryo in the gastrula phase?

A

blastopore

DAT (4 decks)

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