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DAT > Ch 1: Cell & Molecular Biology > Flashcards

Ch 1: Cell & Molecular Biology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following in considered a nonpolar amino acid?

A

Alanine

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2
Q

Which of the following in considered a basic amino acid?

A

Lysine, Arginine, Histidine

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3
Q

Which of the following is considered a polar, but uncharged amino acid?

A

glutamine

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4
Q

Which of the following amino acids has a negatively charged side chain at physiological pH?

A

Aspartic acid

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5
Q

Which of the following are consumed or produced during the formation of a six amino acid long polypeptide formed from individual amino acid?

A

5 H2O produced

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a function of proteins?

A

main component of cell membranes

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7
Q

Which of the following is responsible for maintaining the structure of an alpha helix?

A

hydrogen bonding

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8
Q

Which of the following is responsible for maintaining the tertiary structure of a protein?

A

Dipole dipole forces, hydrogen bonding, covalent bonding, hydrophobic effect

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9
Q

Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

A

fructose

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10
Q

Chitin consists of repeating units of

A

beta-glucose

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11
Q

Lactose consists of which pairs of monomers?

A

glucose-galactose

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12
Q

Which of the following polymers is found typically in the exoskeleton of invertebrates?

A

chitin

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13
Q

This polysaccharide serves as a store of glucose in liver and muscle cells.

A

glycogen

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14
Q

Amylose and amylopectin comprise this storage polysaccharide in plants

A

starch

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15
Q

What type of bond joints two monosaccharides together?

A

glycosidic

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16
Q

A molecule of DNA consists of two complementary strands, these are joined together by__.

A

hydrogen bonds

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17
Q

The “backbone” of a DNA molecule is made up of __

A

both sugar and phosphate

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18
Q

How many hydrogen bonds from between the nucleotides Guanine and Cytosine?

A

3

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19
Q

RNA contains which nitrogen bases?

A

Adenine, Uracil, Guanine, Cytosine

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20
Q

A section of DNA with the sequence 3’-ATAACGGTACC-5’ is transcribed into mRNA. Which of the following shows the correct mRNA sequence?

A

3’-GGUACCGUUAU-5’

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21
Q

Which of the following sugars is found in a molecule of RNA?

A

ribose

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22
Q

A single nucleotide contains__

A

sugar + phosphate + nitrogenous base

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23
Q

A single nucleoside contains__

A

sugar + nitrogenous base

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24
Q

In, DNA nucleotides are joined by which type of bond?

A

phosphodiester

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25
Q

Of the bases Adenine (A), Thymine (T), and Cytosine (C), __ are purines and __ are pyrimidines

A

A&G, C&T

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26
Q

DNA molecules are most commonly __, and RNA is usually__

A

double stranded, single stranded

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27
Q

Compared with DNA, RNA has an additional __, which makes RNA relatively__

A

2’ OH, less stable

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28
Q

A fatty acid and glycerol are joined together by which type of bond?

A

ester bond

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29
Q

The main structural difference between saturated and unsaturated fats in __

A

saturated fats contain all carbon carbon single bonds whereas unsaturated facts contain one or more carbon carbon double bonds

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30
Q

A phospholipid consists of__

A

a phosphate group “head” and hydrocarbon “tails”

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31
Q

Which of the following best described a phospholipid?

A

the tails of the molecule are hydrophobic while the head of the molecule is hydrophilic

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32
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the formation of one triglyceride molecule from glycerol and three fatty acids?

A

3 molecules of water are produced

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33
Q

Which of the following is not derived from cholesterol?

A

vitamin C

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34
Q

Which of the following is not a lipid?

A

Albumin

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35
Q

Oils are fats which are lipids at room temperature. Fats and oils with relatively low melting temperatures have __ fatty acids chain length and a __ degree of unsaturation than those with higher melting temperatures

A

shorter, higher

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36
Q

Enzymes increase the rate of biological reactions by __

A

lowering the activation energy for the reaction

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37
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding how enzymes affect the rate of a reversible reaction?

A

enzymes increase the rate of both forward and reverse reactions but do not affect the position of equilibrium

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38
Q

For an enzyme that follows Michaelis Menten kinetics, which of the following represents the rate of reaction, V, in terms of (S)?

A

V= Vmax (S)/ Km + (S)

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39
Q

A low value of the Michaelis Menten constant, Km means _

A

strong substrate binding by enzyme

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40
Q

A competitive inhibitor binds to which of the following sites on an enzyme?

A

active site

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41
Q

Competitive inhibitors reduce the effectiveness of an enzyme by __

A

blocking the active site

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42
Q

The effect of competitive inhibition can be overcome by __

A

increasing the concentration of the substrate

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43
Q

The effect of a noncompetitive inhibitor can be overcome by __

A

noncompetitive inhibition cannot be easily overcome

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44
Q

Which of the following best describes the structure of the nuclear membrane?

A

a double phospholipid bilayer

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45
Q

The gel like aqueous substance which surrounds organelles and suspends particles in the cell is known as the __

A

cytosol

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46
Q

Which of the following is not part of the cytoplasm of eukaryotes?

A

nucleus

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47
Q

Ribosomal RNA is synthesized __

A

in the nucleolus

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48
Q

Ribosomes are composed of __

A

RNA and proteins

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49
Q

Which of the following molecules does not cross the nuclear envelope?

A

DNA

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50
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the nucleolus?

A

the nucleolus is not separated from the nucleus by a membrane

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51
Q

Which of the following are not true organelles?

A

cytoplasm, nucleolus

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52
Q

All of the following are included in the cytoplasm expect?

A

nucleolus

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53
Q

The general function of the golgi apparatus is__

A

sorting and packaging of proteins into vesicles

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54
Q

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the golgi body?

A

it is attached to the nuclear envelope

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55
Q

The function of the centrosome is __

A

structure and organization of the spindle apparatus

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56
Q

Which of the following would not be found in plant cells?

A

centrosomes

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57
Q

Which of the following organelles/ structures contains ribosomes either within the organelles interior or attached to the membrane exterior?

A

mitochondria, nucleus, rough endoplasmic reticulum

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58
Q

The result of lysosomal enzymes leaking into the cytosol is __

A

no significant effect

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59
Q

Microtubules are composed of which of the following proteins?

A

tubulin

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60
Q

Which of the following provide structural support for cells and help them to maintain their shape?

A

intermediate filament

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61
Q

The spindle apparatus is made up of __

A

microtubules

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62
Q

Which of the following is not part of the cytoskeleton?

A

cytosol

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63
Q

In addition to supporting the cell, which of the following processes does the cytoskeleton function in?

A

cell division and motility

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64
Q

Which of the following is a function of peroxisomes?

A

break down of fatty acids

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65
Q

The major function of peroxisomes in fatty acid catabolism. Which of the following is also broken down in peroxisomes?

A

D-amino acids

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66
Q

plant cell walls are composed of __

A

cellulose

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67
Q

Bacterial cell walls are composed of __

A

peptidoglycans

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68
Q

Fungal call walls are composed of __

A

chitin

69
Q

Archea cell walls are composed of __

A

polysaccharides

70
Q

In plant cells, starch is stored in __

A

storage vacuoles

71
Q

Which of the site of photosynthesis in plant cells?

A

chloroplast

72
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle are spindle fibers attached to kinetochores of chromosomes?

A

M

73
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A

S

74
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle is the primary growth phase?

A

G1

75
Q

In the G0 phase __

A

cell cycle progression is paused

76
Q

Which of the following shows the correct order of the phases of the cell cycle?

A

G1, S, G2, M

77
Q

A cell which is in the G0 phase of the cell cycle is __

A

inactive

78
Q

Division of the cytoplasm during mitosis is known as __

A

cytokinesis

79
Q

The product of mitosis is __

A

two identical diploid cells

80
Q

In which of the following cells would mitosis not occur?

A

sperm cells

81
Q

How many times does cytokinesis occur during mitosis?

A

1

82
Q

G1, S, and G2 phases are a part of __?

A

interphase

83
Q

Which of the following are microtubules organizing centers?

A

centrosomes

84
Q

The function of microtubules organizing centers in mitosis is __

A

formation of spindle fibers

85
Q

Mitotic spindle fibers are composed of __

A

tubulin

86
Q

During which. mitotic phase does chromatin condense into chromosomes?

A

prophase

87
Q

Spindle fibers begin to form during __

A

prophase

88
Q

Mitotic spindle fibers connect to __

A

kinetochores

89
Q

Most cells spend the greatest amount of time in __

A

interphase

90
Q

Centromeres are __

A

the region of chromosomes where sister chromatids are joined together

91
Q

Kinetochores are __

A

a complex of proteins which bind to the centromeres of chromosomes during cell division

92
Q

Centrosomes are __

A

organelles which form the spindle fibers during mitosis

93
Q

The cleavage furrow refers to __

A

the indentation in the cell surface which forms at the start of cytokinesis

94
Q

During mitosis, the two centrioles move to opposite ends of the cell during __

A

prophase

95
Q

Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite ends of the cell during __

A

anaphase

96
Q

Nuclear division occurs during __

A

telophase

97
Q

During mitosis, disjunction refers to __

A

the separation of sister chromatid to opposite ends of the cell

98
Q

Which of the following structures causes chromosomes migration during mitosis?

A

spindle fibers

99
Q

The product of meiosis is __

A

four non identical haploid cells

100
Q

How many rounds of cytokinesis occur during meiosis?

A

2

101
Q

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

A

homologous chromosomes line up in pairs along the metaphase plate

102
Q

A pair of homologous chromosomes conjoined during meiosis I is called a __

A

tetrad

103
Q

A bivalent refers to which of the following?

A

a pair of homologous chromosomes

104
Q

Crossing over occurs during which phase of meiosis?

A

prophase I

105
Q

The region where homologous chromosomes overlap and exchange genetic material in meiosis is known as __

A

chiasma

106
Q

The pairing of homologous chromosomes during meiosis is known as __

A

synapsis

107
Q

Which of the following processes does not occur during meiosis I?

A

migration of sister chromatids to opposite poles of the cell

108
Q

Recombination refers to which of the following processes?

A

the exchange of DNA between homologous chromosomes during crossing over

109
Q

The nuclear envelope breaks down and disappears during which phases of meiosis?

A

prophase I and prophase II

110
Q

Uncoupling and separation of homologous chromosomes occurs during which phase of meiosis?

A

anaphase I

111
Q

Migration of sister chromatids to opposite poles of the cell occur during which phase of meiosis?

A

anaphase I

112
Q

Which of the following accurately represents the relationship between the terms catabolism, metabolism, anabolism, and energy transfer?

A

metabolism= catabolism + anabolism + energy transfer

113
Q

Catabolism involves the __

A

breakdown of larger molecules into smaller molecules

114
Q

Which of the following molecules are not used to transfer energy in metabolism?

A

H2O

115
Q

Most of the energy stored in ATP is found within which type of bond?

A

phosphate phosphate

116
Q

The movement of hydrogen ions across the mitochondrial inner membrane down their concentration gradient to power ATP synthesis is known as __

A

chemiosmosis

117
Q

Which of the following is the site of the Krebs Cycle of cellular respiration?

A

mitochondrial matrix

118
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the pH of the mitochondrial matrix and the intermembrane space?

A

the intermembrane space has a lower pH than the mitochondrial matrix

119
Q

Which of the following is a final product derived from glucose in glycolysis?

A

pyruvate

120
Q

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the first step of glycolysis?

A

hexokinase

121
Q

Which of the following shows the next yield of high energy molecules from glycolysis per molecule of glucose?

A

2 ATP, 2 NADH

122
Q

Which of the following represents the correct chemical equation for the aerobic respiration of glucose?

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 –> 6CO2 + 6H2O

123
Q

Which of these stages of cellular respiration do not occur in the mitochondria?

A

glycolysis

124
Q

Which of the following shows the net yield of high energy molecules from the citric acid cycle per molecule of acetyle coA?

A

1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2

125
Q

Which of the following is reduced during glycolysis?

A

NAD+

126
Q

Which of the following is the product of oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-ketoglutarate in aerobic respiration?

A

succinyl-CoA

127
Q

Aerobic respiration involves the __ of oxygen into __

A

reduction, H2O

128
Q

Which of the following steps in glycolysis is the major regulatory step?

A

phosphoenolpyruvate –> pyruvate

129
Q

ATP hydrolysis is __

A

exergonic

130
Q

Which of the following shows substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

ADP + Pi –> ATP

131
Q

Which of the following describes the function of hexokinase in cellular respiration?

A

phosphorylation of glucose

132
Q

How many of molecules of ATP are hydrolyzed per molecule of glucose during glycolysis?

A

2

133
Q

Which of the following describes the function of phosphofructokinase- 1 (PFK-1) in glycolysis?

A

phosphorylation of fructose -6- phosphate

134
Q

Which of the following describes the function of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in cellular respiration?

A

decarboxylation of pyruvate

135
Q

Which of the following is a product of the reaction catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

A

acetyl-CoA

136
Q

Which of the following describes the function of cristae in mitochondria?

A

increase the surface area for electron transport

137
Q

Which of the following is correct regrading energy resulting from NADH and FADH2 via the electron transport chain?

A

NADH results in more energy than FADH2

138
Q

Which of the following drives ATP production in the electron transport chain?

A

formation of an H+ gradient across the mitochondrial inner membrane

139
Q

Coenzyme Q carries electrons between __ in the electron transport chain

A

complex II and complex III

140
Q

Cytochrome C carries electron between __ in the electron transport chain

A

complex III and complex IV

141
Q

At complex I in the electron transport chain, NADH is __

A

oxidized

142
Q

Which of the following is/are the final products of alcohol fermentation?

A

ethanol + CO2

143
Q

Which of the following macromolecules store the greatest amount of energy per gram?

A

fats

144
Q

Phosphofructokinase-1 is activated by __ and inhibited by __

A

insulin, glucagon

145
Q

Which of the following store significant amounts of glycogen?

A

liver, muscles

146
Q

Which of the following activates the conversion of glucose into glycogen?

A

insulin

147
Q

Which of the following activates the conversion of glycogen into glucose?

A

glucagon

148
Q

Where are fatty acids concerted into acetyl coA?

A

mitochondria of liver cells

149
Q

Photosynthesis occurs in which of the following structures in plant cells?

A

chloroplasts

150
Q

Chlorophyll is found in which of the following structures in chloroplasts?

A

Thylakoid

151
Q

The function of chlorophyll and carotenoids in plants is __

A

absorption of light energy by electrons

152
Q

The most abundant light absorbing pigment is plants is __

A

chlorophyll a

153
Q

Which of the following ions is found at the center of a chlorophyll molecule?

A

Mg2+

154
Q

The structure of chlorophyll is derived from which of the following cyclic structures?

A

porphyrin

155
Q

Photosynthesis is initiated by the absorption of light by __

A

photosystem II

156
Q

The products resulting from noncyclic photophosphorylation is/are __

A

ATP and NADPH

157
Q

The first reaction is photosynthesis is/are the __ reactions

A

light dependent

158
Q

The photon absorbing pigments in photosystem I is

A

P700

159
Q

The photon absorbing pigment in photosystem II is

A

P680

160
Q

Compared with PSI, PSII absorbs light of __ frequency and __ wavelength

A

higher, shorter

161
Q

The electrons donated by chlorophyll to the electron transport chain are replaced by which of the following?

A

H2O

162
Q

Which of the following proteins forms ATP in photosynthesis?

A

ATP synthase

163
Q

In which of the following chloroplast structures does the process of chemiosmosis occur?

A

thylakoid membranes

164
Q

ATP production in the thylakoid of chloroplasts is driven directly by which of the following?

A

H+ gradient across the thylakoid membrane

165
Q

Which of the following molecules is produced in both cyclic and non cyclic photophosphorylation?

A

ATP

166
Q

Six turns of the Calvin cycle produce how many molecules of glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate?

A

2

167
Q

NADPH produced in non cyclic photophosyphorylation is used __

A

to form glucose from CO2 in the calvin cycle

168
Q

The first step in the calvin cycle is __

A

fixation of CO2

169
Q

Which of the following steps of photosynthesis does photorespiration compete with?

A

carbon fixation

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