Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NEBOSH Diploma > Storage, Handling and Processing of Dangerous Substances > Flashcards

Storage, Handling and Processing of Dangerous Substances Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
WSET® Level 4 Wine flashcards
1
Q

Industrial Chemistry

A

Raw materials > Primary bulk chemicals > Secondary commercial products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rate of Reaction in Chemical Production

A

Quicker it is made the quicker it can be sold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Variables which effect the rate of reaction

A 
Temperature
Pressure
Concentration
Surface area of reactant
Catalyst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a catalyst?

A

A substance that alters the rate of reaction without becoming permanently involved in the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Exothermic reactions

A

Energy is given out by reactants as they form products, causing the temperature of the surroundings to rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Endothermic reactions

A

Opposite of exothermic. Energy is taken in by the reactants to form products.
Energy comes from the surroundings which lose energy and cool down, resulting in a drop of temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Thermal Runaway reactions

A

Begins when the heat produced by an exothermic reaction exceeds the heat removed.
Surplus heat raises the temp. of the reaction mass and accelerates the rate of heat production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Risk from thermal runaway

A

Reaction vessel may become over-pressurised due to violent boiling or rapid gas generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Harmful effects of thermal runaway

A

Boiling over of the reaction mass
Large increase in temp. and pressure resulting in explosion
Blast and missile damage
Secondary fires and explosions
Contamination of the wokrplace by hot liquid or toxic materials
Toxic clouds that can spread offsite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of thermal runaway incidents

A

Inadequate understanding of the process chemistry and thermochemistry
Inadequate design for heat removal
Inadequate control and safety systems
Inadequate operational procedures, including training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HAZOP

A

Hazard Operability Study - structured method for identifying chemical process hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Methods of control to ensure safe operation of Chemical Processes

A

Inherently safer methods, which eliminate or reduce the hazard
Process control, which prevents a runaway reaction occurring
Protective measures, which limit the consequence of a runaway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Examples of inherently safer methods

A

Replacing hazardous materials with less hazardous

Having less unreacted material in the reactor, using a continuous process instead of a batch reactor

Using a semi-batch method

Using a heating medium which has a max temp. that is too low for the reaction mixture to decompose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Batch reactors

A

All reactants are added to a reactor at the start of the reaction. The process stops when chemical reactions are complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Continuous processes

A

Reactants continually flow into and products continuously flow out of, the reactor system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Semi-batch methods

A

Reactants are added in a controlled manner throughout the process. Product is only removed at the end of the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Process control

A

Includes the use of sensors, alarms, trips and other control systems that either take automatic action, or allow for manual intervention to prevent the conditions for a runaway to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Variables controlled in process control

A

Temperature
Reactant addition
Agitation
Others; PH, conductivity, concentration and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Examples of protective measures

A

Designing plant to contain maximum pressure
Emergency relief vents
Crash cooling
Reaction inhibitors
Dumping the reaction into a quenching fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Legislation covering control of substances that can cause fire and explosions in the workplace

A

Dangerous Substances and Explosive Atmospheres Regulation 2002 (DESEAR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Requirement under DESEAR

A

Employers to assess the risk of fire and explosions that may be caused by dangerous substances in the workplace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Forms of Dangerous Substances

A

Liquid, gas, vapours or dusts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dangerous substances include….

A

Substances covered by CLP regulation
Any dust that when forms a cloud can explode
Any other substances not covered by CLP that could cause a fire or explosion in a workplace (like high flashpoint liquids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

5 steps in a DESEAR risk assessment

A
  1. Identify hazards
  2. Identify who may be harmed and how
  3. Evaluate risks
  4. Record significant findings
  5. Review and revise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Factors to be taken into account in a DESAER Risk assessment

A

Hazardous properties of the substance

Supplier safety information - SDS on flashpoints and safe method of handling

Circumstances of the work

Particular activities which may be a high level of risk (maintenance and repair tasks)

Likely presence of explosive atmospheres and need for haz. area classification

Hazardous properties of dangerous substances

Size of release

Temperature and pressure

Ventilation

Extent of zones

Other considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Purpose of hazardous area classification

A

Identifies places where controls over ignition sources are needed and determines controls of equipment used in a zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Relationship between fires and explosions

A

In many cases where an explosive atmosphere can form, any ignition will cause a fire rather than an explosion. Consideration to be given as to whether the fire could lead to an explosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ignition source?

A

A release of energy often of short duration and localised, which can ignite dangerous substances present in the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an IBC?

A

Intermediate Bulk Container - cubic container used for transport and storage of fluids and bulk materials. More efficient means of transport than barrels and drums as they can be moved by FLT and stacked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Control measures for the storage of flammable liquids - VICES

A 
Ventilation
Ignition Sources
Containment
Exchange
Seperation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Separation Distances

A

Should allow sufficient time for people to be evacuated and for additional fire fighting equipment and emergency procedures to be mobilised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Min. separation distance for large tanks

A

At least 16m away from site boundary, any designated non-haz area, process area or any fixed source of ignition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Advantages of underground tanks

A

Soil provides impact and fire protection
Save space
Separation distances are reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Disadvantages of underground tanks

A

Increased risk of corrosion
Difficult to detect leaks
Soil contamination
Need for confined space access or excavation for all inspection and maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tank venting system should provide…

A

Normal pressure relief
Normal vacuum relief
Emergency pressure relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Types of fire protection for storage tanks

A

Fire resistant cladding or coating
Fire Walls
Water Cooling Systems
Foam blankets or extinguishing systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bonding and earthing

A

To min. accumulation of electro-static charge and prevent sparks. Required for all metal parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Flashpoint of flammable liquids which require liquid tight bunding

A

55 degrees C or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sufficient capacity for a bund

A

Enough to contain largest possible spillage, normally 110% capacity of the largest storage vessel in the bund

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bunding should….

A

Prevent flamm. liquid or vapour reaching ignition sources
Prevent liquid entering drains and sewers
Allow controlled recovery or treatment of spill
Minimise surface area of liquid
Prevent spread of burning liquids
Prevent contamination of water courses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Particular problems of storing flammable liquids in IBCs in warehouses

A

Prone to early failure in a fire, allowing leaked contents to feed the fire

Degrade over time so are prone to leak

Generally made of cheap non-conductive plastic so can become electrostatically charged in transit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Principle objectives when establishing a storage compound for drums of flammable/explosive materials

A

a) Minimise risk of a fire occurring in the storage area itself
b) Protect the store from fires occurring elsewhere
c) Mitigate the consequences of a fire, particularly with regard to people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Hazards of nitrocellulose

A

Easily ignited and burns fiercely
Emits large amount of heat and toxic fumes
May explode if incorrectly packaged and stored in a confined space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Safe Storage of Drums - Separation

A

Protects people and property from the effects of a fire in the store itself.
Distances can be reduced if additional fire protection measures such as fire walls are installed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Safe Storage of Drums - Fire resistant storage buildings or storerooms

A

Such have the following:
Sufficient fire resistance to allow time for the alarm to be raised and for escape

Good means of escape

Lightweight roof or relief panel so that in the event of a fire, escaping heat or fumes are directed to a safe place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Safe Storage of Drums - Control of ignition sources

A 
Prohibit smoking
PTW for maintenance involving hot work
Control use of electrical equipment
Separation from heat sources
Protection from exposure to sunlight
High standards of housekeeping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Safe Storage of Drums - Restricted access

A

Authorised people and vehicles only.

High security standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Safe Storage of Drums - Safety signage

A

Posted at all entrances.
Type of flammable liquid stored
Smoking and other ignition sources prohibited
Procedure to follow in event of a fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Section of SDS summarising labelling for CLP

A

Section 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Energetic Substances

A

Capable of releasing energy through rapid exothermic decomposition or polymerisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Spontaneous Combustion

A

When the temperature of a substance increases to it’s auto-ignition temperature, at the point it can ignite without an ignition source being needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pyrophoric Substances

A

Spontaneously combust in air or with moisture. Used in semiconductor industry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Types of Automatic Prevention devices for handling dangerous substances

A

Overflow
Pre-set meter
Fixed volume batch tank
Level detector linked to a pump or valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Main spray methods

A

Compressed air - most common
Airless/hydrolic - use for big structures
Electrostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Usual way to control flammable vapours and mists when spraying

A

Ventilated spray booth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Purpose of a ventilated spray booth

A

Prevent escape of vapours into the workplace
Prevent contamination from overspray
Protect health of workers
Provide separation from sources of ignition and prevent spread of fire
Prevent contamination of workpiece by dust and grease in the work environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Disposal of flammable liquids

A

Waste liquids generally need to be stored and handled to the same standards as the flammable liquid they originated from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Dangerous Goods

A

Liquid or solid substances and articles containing them that have been tested and classified against international criteria and found to be potentially dangerous when carried

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ADR

A

Regulation covering carriage of DG by road

60
Q

Regulations implementing ADR in the UK

A

Carriage of Dangerous Goods and Use of Transportable Pressure Equipment Regs 2009 (CDG)

61
Q

Types of Road Tankers

A

Insulated or non-insulated
Pressurised or non-pressurised
Designed for single or multiple loads by means of internal divisions in the tank

62
Q

Location of loading bays for road tankers

A

At least 10m away from occupied buildings, site boundary and fixed sources of ignition

63
Q

Unloading approaches for road tankers

A

Transfer by gravity
Transfer by pump
Transfer under positive air pressure

Bottom unloading is generally applied

64
Q

How to minimise risk of overfilling road tankers

A

Load using a flow meter with a trip, similar to a petrol pump

65
Q

What is IiW?

A

Instructions in Writing Form, also referred to as Emergency Instruction Cards

66
Q

Purpose of IiW

A

Must be carried in the vehicles crews cab (tanker) and be available to act as an aid in an accident or emergency

67
Q

IiW must confirm (4 pages)

A

Actions in the event of an emergency
Additional guidance to vehicle crew on the hazardous characteristics of the DG and actions
Equipment for personal and general protection

68
Q

What is included on road tank placards to indicate DG

A

Four digit UN number for the substance

Appropriate hazard label (diamond)

69
Q

Types of placarding on road tankers

A

GB registered on domestic journeys must use Emergency Action (Hazchem) Code

All other vehicles must display hazard identification number (HIN)

70
Q

EAC on Road Tanker Placards

A

Emergency Action Code

71
Q

1st character on EAC

A

Determines the fire-fighting extinguishing medium

72
Q

2nd character on EAC

A

Indicates appropriate personal protection

73
Q

Codes for fire-fighting extinguishing medium on EAC

A 
1 = Coarse water spray
2= Fine water spray
3 = Normal foam
4 = Dry agent
74
Q

Codes for Personal Proection on EAC

A

S, T, Y, Z - Normal fire fighting clothing

P, R, W, X - Chemical protective clothing

75
Q

P, R, W, Y on an EAC

A

Indicate there is a danger the substance can be violently or explosively reactive

76
Q

W, X, Y or Z on an EAC

A

Indicates spillages and fire run off should be prevented from entering drains and surface/ground water systems

77
Q

E on an EAC

A

Indicates public safety hazard, where people should be warned to stay indoors with doors and windows shut. Evacuation may be considered

78
Q

Marking of packaging containing DG

A

Showing the UN number and classes on the packaging

79
Q

Labelling of packaging containing DG

A

Displaying the Hazard diamond with the class number on the packaging

80
Q

ADR driver training requirements for all vehicles except those carrying packages under the small load threshold

A

General training plus ADR Training certificate

The certificate may be endorsed for different classes of dangerous goods or different modes

81
Q

ADR driver training requirements for any vehicle carrying packaged dangerous goods under the small load threshold

A

General Training

82
Q

ADR driver training requirements for vehicles with a small tank (up to 1m cube)

A

General Training

83
Q

VTC for Drivers

A

Vocational Training Certificate also know as ‘ADR Certificate’

84
Q

How to obtain VTC

A

DFT approved training course and successfully complete exam

85
Q

Format of ADR certificate

A

Credit card style with photo of driver

86
Q

General Training covers….

A

Awareness of hazards
Basic info for minimising incidents taking place
Measures to ensure personal safety and public safety
Info for limiting effects of incident

87
Q

DGSA

A

Dangerous Goods Safety Advisor

88
Q

3 main duties of DGSA

A

Monitoring compliance with rules on DG
Advising business on the transport of DG
Preparing annual report to management on DG activities

89
Q

DGSA is responsible for

A

Monitoring procedures and safety measures
Investigating and compiling reports of accidents or emergencies
Advising on potential security aspects

90
Q

Under Electricity at Work Regs what exposures must electrical equipment be protected from?

A

Mechanical Damage

The effect of weather, natural hazards, temperature or pressure

The effect of wet, dirty, dusty or corrosive conditions

Any flammable or explosive substance, including dust and vapours

91
Q

What is IP rating?

A

Ingress Protection ratings classify the degree of protection provided by enclosures against the ingress of solid objects and moisture
and
The protection afforded against contact with any live parts within the enclosure for all types of electrical equipment.

92
Q

IP Rating numbers

A

a) protection from solid objects or materials
b) protection from liquids (water)
c) protection against mechanical impacts - Commonly Omitted

93
Q

Techniques to design or construct electrical and non-electrical equipment in potentially explosive atmospheres

A

Sealing electrical equipment so the explosive atmosphere cannot come into contact with electrical components

Reducing the power of electrical equipment

De-energizing electrical equipment where a fault or an explosive atmosphere is detected

94
Q

What marking should be on electrical equipment in an explosive atmosphere

A

Ex

95
Q

What regulation must new electrical equipment to be used in explosive atmospheres comply with?

A

The equipment and protective systems intended for use in explosive atmosphere regulations 1996 (EPS) which implements the EU ATEX directive

96
Q

Marking of products to be used in explosive atmospheres

A

To comply with EPS they must be marked with the CE conformity mark along with the number of the notified relevant body

97
Q

Hazard groups for equipment and protective systems intended for use in potentially explosive atmospheres

A

Group I - Mining - NOT ON SYLLABUS

Group II - Surface industry

98
Q

Sub-categories of Group II equipment

A

IIA - Propane
IIB - Ethylene
IIC - Hydrogen

99
Q

Highest risk sub-category of Group II equipment

A

IIC is the highest risk as it is much easier to ignite.

Equipment suitable for IIC will also be suitable for IIA and IIB

100
Q

Maximum surface temperature of electrical equipment rule

A

Should always be lower than the auto-ignition temperature of the gas/air or vapour/air mixture in which it is used

101
Q

Hazardous area definition from DSEAR

A

Any place which an explosive atmosphere may occur in quantities such as to require special precautions to protect the safety of workers

102
Q

Hazardous Zoning

A

Based on an assessment of the frequency of the occurrence and duration of an explosive gas atmosphere

103
Q

Hazardous Zone 0 (Gas)

A

An area which explosive gas is present continuously or for long periods

104
Q

Hazardous Zone 1 (Gas)

A

An area in which an explosive atmosphere is likely to occur in normal operation

105
Q

Hazardous Zone 2 (Gas)

A

An area in which an explosive gas atmosphere is not likely to occur in normal operation and if it does will only exist for a short period of time

106
Q

Hazardous Zone 20 (Dust)

A

An area which combustible dust, as a cloud is present continuously or frequently during normal operations, in sufficient quantity to be capable of producing an explosive concentration of combustible dust in a mixture with air

107
Q

Hazardous Zone 21 (Dust)

A

An area which combustible dust, as a cloud is occasionally present during normal operations, in sufficient quantity to be capable of producing an explosive concentration of combustible dust in a mixture with air

108
Q

Hazardous Zone 22 (Dust)

A

An area which combustible dust, as a cloud may occur infrequently and persist for only a short period, or in which accumulations of layers of combustible dust may give rise to an explosive concentration of combustible dust in a mixture with air

109
Q

Intention of Purge/Pressurised Protection (Ex p)

A

To prevent the explosive atmosphere from contacting the ignition source

110
Q

Purge Protection

A

Involves maintenance of a constant flow of air or inert gas to dilute and take away any potentially explosive atmosphere

111
Q

Pressure Protection

A

Ensures that the pressure inside an enclosure is sufficient to prevent the entrance of flammable gas, vapour, dust or fiber and prevent possible ignition

112
Q

Advantage of Purge/Pressure protection

A

It also accommodates possible internal releases of flammable gas, vapour or liquid

113
Q

Protection Methods

A

Intrinsic Safety (Ex i)
Flameproof (Ex d)
Increased Safety (Ex e)
Non-sparking (Ex n)

114
Q

Intrinsically Safe (Ex i)

A

Electrical energy within the equipment is restricted to a level below that which may cause ignition or restricted to limit the heating of the surface of the equipment

115
Q

Flameproof (Ex d)

A

Equipment that could cause an explosion is contained within an enclosure within an enclosure which can withstand the force of an explosion to prevent transmission to the outside hazardous atmosphere

Also prevents the hazardous atmosphere entering the enclosure and coming into contact with equipment

116
Q

Increased Safety (Ex e)

A

Intended to prevent potential ignition occurring by applying extra precautions to ensure increased security against excessive temperatures or sparks

117
Q

Non-Sparking (Ex n)

A

Precautions are taken so electrical equipment that has the potential to arc is not capable of ignition surrounding atmosphere

118
Q

Emergency Planning - What is an emergency

A

A situation or series of events that threatens or causes serious damage to human welfare, the environment or security

119
Q

What is the aim of emergency planning?

A

Where possible prevent emergencies occurring. When they do occur, good planning should reduce, control or mitigate the effects of the emergency

120
Q

3 key groupings of people emergency plans should focus on

A

Vulnerable people

Victims

Responder personnel

121
Q

3 aspects to be covered by emergency planning

A

Prevention

Reducing, controlling or mitigating the effects

Other action in connection with an emergency

122
Q

CoMAH Regulation 17

A

requires the competent authority to make information on any establishment covered by CoMAH regs to make information public on request:
Name of operator
Confirmation CoMAH applies
Simple explanation of activities undertaken
Hazard classification of dangerous substances
General info on how the public will be warned
Details of where further info can be obtained

123
Q

MHSWR 8 & 9

A

Require employers to have in place:

Procedures for serious and imminent danger areas

Any necessary contacts with external services for first-aid, emergency medical care and rescue work

124
Q

Procedures for serious and imminent danger areas

A

Every employer must:
Have procedures to be followed in the event

Sufficient number of competent persons to implement the procedures and evacuate

Ensure employees do not have access to danger areas

125
Q

CoMAH 2015

A

Control of Major Accident Hazard Regulations 2015

126
Q

Definition of a Major Accident

A

An occurance resulting in uncontrolled developments in the course of the operation of any establishment and leading to serious danger to human health or the environment, immediate delayed inside or outside the establishment and involving one or more dangerous substances

127
Q

Main aim of CoMAH

A

Prevent and mitigate effects of major accidents involving dangerous substances which can cause serious damage to people and/or environment

128
Q

Who enforces CoMAH

A

Competent authority, made up of HSE and the Environment Agency working together

129
Q

When is an establishment subject to CoMAH

A

If it produces, uses, handles or stores on site any dangerous substance specified in schedule 1 above the qualifying quantity

130
Q

Upper tier establishments under CoMAH

A

Have quantities equal to or greater than the upper threshold

131
Q

Lower tier establishments under CoMAH

A

Establishments with lower quantities, but which are equal to or greater than the lower threshold

132
Q

General duty under Reg 5 of CoMAH

A

Take all measures necessary to prevent major accidents and limit their consequences for human health and the environment

133
Q

Internal Emergency Plan (IEP) - CoMAH

A

Should address operators complete response to a major accident. It should:

Concentrate on those events identified as being most likely to occur

Be proportional

Have flexibility to be extended or increased

134
Q

Key personnel identified in IEP

A

Site incident controller

Site main controller

135
Q

Site incident controller

A

Usually site manager at the time the incident occurs.
Role includes taking control at the scene
Activation of the pan
Sets up emergency control centre
Alerts emergency services

136
Q

Site main controller

A

Normally senior establishment manager or director
Takes overall responsibility for directing operations
Confirms SIC has done all their role
Mobilizes key personnel
Liaises with external agencies

137
Q

On-site Emergency Control Centre

A

Place from which the internal emergency response operations are directed and coordinated.
The Site Main Controller, other key personnel and senior officers of the emergency services will be based here

138
Q

External Emergency Plan (EEP)

A

Based around the major accident hazards identified which could affect people and the environment outside the boundary of the establishment

139
Q

Responsibilities for an EEP

A

Competent authority will inform local auth of duty to produce and off-site emergency plan

Operator has to provide local auth with the necessary info

The local auth can request additional info

140
Q

Content of an EEP

A

1) Authorised persons
2) Early warning
3) Co-ordinating resources
4) On-site mitigation
5) Off-site mitigation
6) Public information
7) Trans-boundary incidents

141
Q

Role of Police for CoMAH

A

Responsible for coordinating all responses at and around the scene

142
Q

Role of Fire Service for CoMAH

A

Primary objective to rescue people trapped in a fire or in wreckage and debris.
Also responsible for the H&S of all personnel working within the inner cordon

143
Q

Role of Ambulance Service for CoMAH

A

To save life and limb through effective treatment at the scene and transporting casualties to hospital

144
Q

Role of Coastguard in CoMAH

A

Responsible for initiation and co-ordination of civil maritime search and rescue.
Marine pollution control unit is responsible for dealing with pollution at sea and coordinating shoreline cleanup

145
Q

Role of Local Authorities in CoMAH

A

Support emergency services
Support local and wider community
Use if resources to mitigate effects
Co-ordination of response by organisations other than emergency services

146
Q

Monitoring and Maintenance of emergency plans

A

Reviewed and revised for upper tier at minimum every 3 years.
Plans must be tested to ensure suitable

NEBOSH Diploma (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions