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Phlebotomy > Statesman Test Review > Flashcards

Statesman Test Review Flashcards

1
Q

Who said that specific amounts of blood should be extracted to treat certain conditions?

A

Galen

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2
Q

Professional negligence is also called

A

Malpractice

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3
Q

A crime punishable by a fine or imprisonment for less than 1 year is known as

A

Misdemeanor

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4
Q

All of the following are parts of the Patient’s Bill of Privacy Rights, EXCEPT

A

Refusing discharge from the hospital

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5
Q

Intentional torts

A

Include assault, defamation, and invasion of privacy

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6
Q

Performing venipuncture of a patient without the patient’s consent would be considered

A

Battery

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7
Q

A license to practice medicine is

A

Required by law in each state

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8
Q

A person or group bringing charges in a lawsuit is called a(n)

A

Plaintiff

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9
Q

The failure to perform an act that should have been performed is called

A

Nonfeasance

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10
Q

Respondeat superior is a Latin term meaning

A

“Let the master answer”

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11
Q

Which of the following statements is true about computerized blood testing? It has brought phlebotomy to the fore as a method of

A

Diagnosing many different conditions

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12
Q

Which of the following organizations offers the Registered Phlebotomy Technician (RPT) credential?

A

American Medical Technologists

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13
Q

Most certifying agencies require that phlebotomists complete which of the following?

A

Continuing education to maintain certification

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14
Q

Improper treatment or negligence may result in

A

Malpractice

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15
Q

Which of the following laws offers quality assurance to hospitals and laboratories?

A

Public Health Act

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16
Q

Which of the following divisions of the medical laboratory involves the study of fungi and viruses?

A

Microbiology

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17
Q

A blood culture and sensitivity test is most likely performed under which division of the clinical laboratory?

A

Microbiology

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18
Q

The percentage of each type of leukocyte is called which of the following?

A

Blood differentiation

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19
Q

The study of platelets is done in which division of the medical laboratory?

A

Hematology

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20
Q

Urinalysis may determine the presence of

A

Mucus, yeasts, ketones (all of the above)

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21
Q

A pathologist is a

A

Specialized physician

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22
Q

The organization that regulates clinical training and specialized classrooms for phlebotomists is the

A

American Society of Clinical Pathologists

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23
Q

Chemical hazards and exposures are regulated by

A

OSHA

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24
Q

Which of the following evaluates the blood’s ability to clot?

A

Prothrombin time

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25
Q

Which of the following laws mandates that records be maintained for a minimum of several years?

A

CLIA

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26
Q

Which of the following blood tests may confirm infectious mononucleosis?

A

Epstein-Barre virus

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27
Q

All of the following are among the most common blood bank tests, EXCEPT

A

Acid-fast bacilli

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28
Q

CLO test is used for which of the following conditions?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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29
Q

Which of the following terms is used for packed cell volume?

A

Hematocrit

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30
Q

The antinuclear antibody test is used for which of the following diseases?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

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31
Q

Nonverbal communication is also known as

A

Body language

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32
Q

The three types of listening are evaluative, active, and

A

Passive

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33
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the communication cycle?

A

Witness

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34
Q

Which of the following is the definition of the term prejudice?

A

Holding a negative opinion about an individual because of his or her beliefs

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35
Q

When dealing with a seriously ill patient, you should

A

Avoid empty promises

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36
Q

One of the greatest barriers to communication is

A

Stress

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37
Q

When communicating with very young patients, you should

A

Explain any procedure in very simple terms

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38
Q

Which of the following defense mechanisms is defined as putting unpleasant events, feelings, or thoughts out of one’s mind?

A

Repression

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39
Q

Which of the following types of materials should you use when dealing with visually impaired patients?

A

Large print

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40
Q

Positive communication includes

A

Encouraging patients to ask questions

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41
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of negative communication?

A

Looking directly at patients when you speak to them

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42
Q

Speaking clearly and articulating carefully are known as

A

Enunciation

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43
Q

The redirection of an emotion or impulse from its original object to another object is referred to as

A

Displacement

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44
Q

An example of negative communication is

A

Mumbling

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45
Q

Good communication techniques include

A

Demonstrating respect

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46
Q

Which of the following suffixes means “inflammation”?

A

-itis

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47
Q

The abbreviation for the word “diagnosis” is

A

Dx

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48
Q

The prefix “ab-“ means

A

Away from

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49
Q

The capitalized portion of the word HYPOlipemia represents which of the following word parts?

A

Prefix

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50
Q

Which of the following prefixes means “bad, difficult, painful”?

A

Dys-

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51
Q

The prefix “milli-“ means

A

One-thousandth

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52
Q

The abbreviation “stat” means

A

Immediately

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53
Q

Which of the following contains the central meaning of a word?

A

Root

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54
Q

The combining form “brachi/o” refers to the

A

Arm

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55
Q

Hardening of the arteries, causing thickening of the walls and loss of elasticity, is called

A

Arteriosclerosis

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56
Q

The prefix “intra-“ means

A

Within

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57
Q

The suffix “-pathy” means

A

Disease

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58
Q

A prefix is

A

A word structure at the beginning of a term that modifies the root

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59
Q

Which of the following prefixes Is matched correctly with the meaning?

A

Period/around

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60
Q

When the combing form “cyan/o” is used, it means that

A

The object is blue

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61
Q

Blood leaving the left ventricle enters the

A

Aorta

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62
Q

The right ventricle pumps blood to the

A

Lungs

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63
Q

The visceral pericardium is the same as the

A

Epicardium

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64
Q

The mitral valve is located between the

A

Left atrium and left ventricle

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65
Q

The heart wall is composed of how many layers?

A

Three

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66
Q

The function of an atrium is to

A

Collect blood

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67
Q

The left and right pulmonary arteries carry blood to the

A

Lungs

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68
Q

The pacemaker cells of the heart are located in the

A

SA (sinoatrial) node

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69
Q

Which of the following blood vessels returns blood to the left atrium?

A

Pulmonary vein

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70
Q

Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output, EXCEPT

A

Increased parasympathetic stimulation

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71
Q

The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is referred to as

A

A pulse

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72
Q

Blood from the brain returns to the heart via a vein called

A

internal jugular

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73
Q

Branches off of the aortic arch include the

A

Left subclavian and left common carotid arteries

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74
Q

Nutrients from the digestive tract enter the

A

Hepatic portal vein

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75
Q

The longest vein in the human body is the

A

Saphenous vein

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76
Q

An area of dead cells due to lack of oxygen is called

A

Infarction

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77
Q

The most common type of anemia in the United States is

A

iron deficiency

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78
Q

Thrombophlebitis occurs most commonly in the

A

Lower legs

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79
Q

When the heart is pumping inadequately to meet the needs of the body, the condition is called

A

Heart failure

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80
Q

Which of the following is a sign of shock?

A

Tachycardia

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81
Q

In which of the following types of anemia may you find hemoglobin S?

A

Sickle cell

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82
Q

Stasis of blood flow from immobility, injury to a vessel, or predisposition to clot formation increases the risk of

A

Pulmonary embolism

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83
Q

What is the most common type of coronary artery disease?

A

Atherosclerosis

84
Q

Aneurysms are often caused by

A

Buildup of atherosclerotic plaque that weakens vessel walls

85
Q

The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells can confirm diagnosis of

A

Hodgkin’s disease

86
Q

Which of the following is a major cause of cardiac disease, renal failure, and stroke?

A

Hypertension

87
Q

Which of the following does not cause disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Severe dehydration and low potassium in the blood

88
Q

Which of the following cardiovascular disorders is the leading cause of death in the United States?

A

Myocardial infarction

89
Q

Thrombophlebitis results from

A

Inflammation of veins

90
Q

The diagnosis of anemia indicates that the patient is experiencing a reduction in

A

Red blood cells or hemoglobin

91
Q

Which of the following terms means “the process of red blood cells formation”?

A

Erythropoiesis

92
Q

Immature red blood cells are found in peripheral blood samples and are referred to as

A

Reticulocytes

93
Q

The formed elements of the blood are called

A

Blood cells

94
Q

Which of the following are the most abundant proteins in blood plasma?

A

Albumins

95
Q

Which of the following white blood cells produce antibodies?

A

Lymphocytes

96
Q

Platelets are formed from cells in the bone marrow known as

A

Megakaryocytes

97
Q

Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors

A

Vitamin K

98
Q

Thrombocytes are

A

Fragments of large megakaryocytes

99
Q

Which of the following white blood cells release histamine and heparin?

A

Basophils

100
Q

Erythrocytes are formed in

A

Red bone marrow

101
Q

Which of the following hormones regulates production of red blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin

102
Q

Which of the following is the major protein in a red blood cell?

A

Hemoglobin

103
Q

Older erythrocytes are broken down by the

A

Spleen

104
Q

Allergies stimulate an increased ________ count.

A

Eosinophil

105
Q

People of which of the following blood types are known as universal recipients?

A

Group AB

106
Q

During fasting, the patient is allowed to drink

A

Water

107
Q

Which of the following is NOT detected in a liver panel test?

A

CBC

108
Q

A blood profile is also called a

A

Chemistry panel

109
Q

Hepatic profile tests include all of the following EXCEPT

A

GTT

110
Q

The hepatic profile may diagnose all of the following disorders EXCEPT

A

Pneumonia

111
Q

Creatinine blood levels rise when the function of which of the following is deficient?

A

Kidneys

112
Q

HDL

A

Transports cholesterol

113
Q

Hormones detected in a thyroid panel include

A

Thyroid antibodies, triiodothyronine, thyroxine (all of the above)

114
Q

The buffy coat is

A

White in color

115
Q

Blood serum

A

Does not contain fibrinogen

116
Q

The risk of coronary heart disease is increased with high levels of all of the following EXCEPT

A

HDL

117
Q

All of the following tests may be used to determine myocardial infarction EXCEPT

A

Rapid plasma regain

118
Q

A treponemal antigen tests indicates

A

Syphilis

119
Q

Which of the following tests confirms the presence of syphilis?

A

FTA-ABS

120
Q

All of the following drug tests are commonly used EXCEPT

A

Lithium

121
Q

Which of the following microorganisms appears in grape like clusters?

A

Staphylococci

122
Q

Which of the following organisms requires a vector?

A

Rickettsia

123
Q

Microbes that can grow either with or without oxygen are called

A

Facultative anaerobics

124
Q

The smallest microorganisms are called

A

Viruses

125
Q

Bacteria that are permanent and beneficial residents in the human body are called

A

Normal flora

126
Q

Viruses are

A

Simpler than prokaryotes

127
Q

Spiral-shaped bacteria are called

A

Spirilla

128
Q

Streptococci appear in

A

Chains of cocci

129
Q

Both bacteria and fungi can be

A

Unicellular

130
Q

Which of the following can be seen only with an electron microscope?

A

Viruses

131
Q

When the high-power objective (40x) is used, which of the following parts of the compound microscope is used to focus the image?

A

Fine adjustment

132
Q

Organisms that cause disease are called

A

Pathogens

133
Q

Which of the following items should be used to clean the lenses of a microscope?

A

Lens paper

134
Q

The degree to which an organism is pathogenic is known as

A

Virulence

135
Q

A part of a microscope used to collect and focus light onto the specimen is referred to as a(n)

A

Condenser

136
Q

The CDC does not recommend standard precautions for which of the following body fluids if the fluid does not contain visible blood?

A

Urine

137
Q

When blood spills on a laboratory table, the most appropriate procedure for cleaning up the spill is to

A

Cover the spill with paper towels, wait 15 minutes, then wipe up the spill while wearing gloves.

138
Q

The most important step in achieving asepsis is

A

Washing hands

139
Q

Which of the following microorganisms is the main blood-borne hazard for a phlebotomist?

A

Hepatitis B virus

140
Q

Which of the following terms is used by OSHA to describe the use of physical or chemical means to remove, inactivate, or destroy blood-borne pathogens?

A

Decontamination

141
Q

The destruction of pathogens by physical or chemical means is called

A

Disinfection

142
Q

Which of the following is NOT classified as a physical hazard?

A

Body tissue biopsy

143
Q

OSHA is a part of which the following departments?

A

Department of Labor

144
Q

Universal precautions should be followed if the phlebotomist Is exposed to which of the following?

A

Human body fluids

145
Q

A person who lacks resistance to an agent and is vulnerable to contracting a disease is referred to as a

A

Susceptible host

146
Q

Which of the following is an example of normal flora?

A

Escherichia coli

147
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the chain of infection?

A

Portal of vein

148
Q

Which of the following is NOT an element needed for a fire to occur?

A

Carbon monoxide

149
Q

The Blood-Borne Pathogens Standard is primarily concerned with

A

Reducing the transmission of HIV, HBV, and HCV

150
Q

An example of a mechanical hazard is

A

A centrifuge

151
Q

Which device might be used to collect blood from fragile veins?

A

Butterfly needle

152
Q

The color code for an evacuation tube that does not contain an additive is

A

Red

153
Q

Which of the following instruments is used to examine the vein for a venipuncture?

A

A tourniquet

154
Q

Which of the following is the most common gauge of needle used for phlebotomy in adults?

A

19-gauge

155
Q

A light blue stopper indicates that a collection tube

A

Contains sodium citrate

156
Q

Which vacuum tube stopper color is used to test for septicemia?

A

Yellow

157
Q

The hollow channel inside the hypodermic needle is called the

A

Lumen

158
Q

Which anticoagulants inhibit the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin?

A

Heparin\

159
Q

Which of the following needles has the smallest “bore”?

A

25

160
Q

Which anticoagulant cannot be stored for blood samples that are stored for more than 48 hours before they are testes?

A

Heparin

161
Q

Which part of the needle is attached onto the syringe?

A

Hub

162
Q

Which of the following is used to locate veins for blood collection?

A

Venoscope

163
Q

Double-pointed needles are used for

A

Multiple evacuated tubes

164
Q

Which of the following parts of a needle describes the lumen size?

A

Gauge

165
Q

What is the correct order of draw?

A

Blood Cultures (pale yellow), Citrate Tube (light blue), Serum Separator Tubes (gold and tiger), Serum Tube (red), Rapid Serum Tube (orange), Plasma Separator Tube (mint, mint/tiger), Heparin Tube (green), EDTA Tube (Lavender), PPT Separator Tube (pearl), Fluoride Tube (gray)

166
Q

When performing a venipuncture, it is necessary to

A

Use a tourniquet

167
Q

The venipuncture site most commonly used on adults is the

A

Median cubital vein

168
Q

How should the patient’s arm be positioned when blood is drawn in phlebotomy?

A

Slightly downward

169
Q

A phlebotomist should not attempt to obtain blood from any patient more than

A

Two times

170
Q

In phlebotomy, approximately what is the smallest desirable angle for insertion of the needle into the vein?

A

15 degrees

171
Q

The common range of a needle gauge for performing a venipuncture is

A

19 to 20

172
Q

Which of the following is the last step for a phlebotomist after a venipuncture is done?

A

Apply a hypoallergenic bandage

173
Q

Which is the longest time that a tourniquet should remain on a patient’s arm?

A

2 minutes

174
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the advantage of using a butterfly set?

A

They make it easier to draw blood from difficult veins.

174
Q

The temperature of heel warning devices should NOT exceed

A

108 degrees Fahrenheit

175
Q

The greatest concern of infant puncture for microcollection samples is

A

Hemolysis

176
Q

Which of the following tests should NOT be collected via capillary puncture?

A

Blood culture

177
Q

Which of the following steps is NOT recommended in capillary puncture of an infant?

A

Applying a bandage

178
Q

How long should a blood collection specimen be centrifuged?

A

10 to 15 minutes

179
Q

Reasons for rejection of a specimen include

A

Nonclotted blood

180
Q

The testing of glucose levels helps to diagnose

A

Diabetes mellitus

181
Q

Blood donors are placed into which position prior to venipuncture?

A

Reclined

182
Q

Two conditions that utilize therapeutic phlebotomy include

A

Polycythemia and hemochromatosis

183
Q

A lipemic specimen is an indication that the patient is

A

Not fasting

184
Q

Fasting specimens are preferred for which of the following tests?

A

Triglycerides

185
Q

Which of the following causes would give plasma or serum a milky appearance?

A

Hyperlipidemia

186
Q

For fasting blood sugar, patients must fast for

A

8 to 12 hours

187
Q

The needle gauge for collecting blood from an adult donor is

A

16 gauge

188
Q

The venipuncture site for blood alcohol testing must be cleaned with

A

Hydrogen peroxide

189
Q

Which statement is false in the collection of forensic specimens?

A

Discard the chain-of-custody form

190
Q

Therapeutic drug monitoring must be collected when

A

Medicines are at their highest blood levels

191
Q

How many times during the classic oral glucose tolerance test must blood glucose be checked over the 3 hour period?

A

Five

192
Q

Which color-stopped tube should be used to collect fasting blood glucose?

A

Gray

193
Q

Hemoglobin A1c is measured to monitor

A

Diabetes

194
Q

Hypoglycemia is found with

A

Hyperthyroidism

195
Q

Before a routine capillary puncture, the sit is typically cleaned with

A

isopropyl alcohol

196
Q

Blood obtained via capillary puncture can be collected in

A

Microhematocrit tubes, microtainer tubes, capillary tubes (all of the above)

197
Q

The device used for dermal puncture is a

A

Lancet

198
Q

Capillary punctures blood is

A

A mix of of venous, arteriole, and capillary blood

199
Q

Capillary specimens contain all of the following, EXCEPT

A

Serous fluids (tissue fluids, venous fluids, arterial fluids are all included in capillary specimens)

200
Q

Which equipment is used to collect a manual packed cell volume test?

A

Microhematocrit tube

201
Q

A microcollection container is sometimes called a

A

Bullet

202
Q

Which test is particularly performed via a capillary puncture?

A

PKU

203
Q

What is the reason to control the depth of lancet insertion during heel puncture?

A

To avoid injuring the calcaneous bone

204
Q
A

Phlebotomy (18 decks)

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