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Year 1 > Start in Life > Flashcards

Start in Life Flashcards

1
Q

Why is unpasteurised dairy products not advised in pregnancy?

A

Chance of products containing Listeria which can cause miscarriage/stillbirth following listeriosis infection

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2
Q

Why is raw/undercooked meat not advised in pregnancy?

A

Risk of toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii parasite) which can cause miscarriage. This is the same for cured meats, as they are not cooked.

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3
Q

Why is liver and liver products not advised in pregnancy?

A

Contain high levels of Vitamin A which can be harmful to the unborn baby

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4
Q

What is the NHS advise around eggs in pregnancy?

A

British Lion hen eggs are safe as they are less likely to have salmonella

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5
Q

Caffeine advise in pregnancy

A

Limit to no more than 200 mg per day (1 mug of instant coffee = 100 mg). Excess caffeine can cause low birth weights.

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6
Q

Foetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder

A

A group of condition that can occur in a person who was exposed to alcohol before birth. Foetal Alcohol Syndrome is the most severe of this group of conditions.

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7
Q

Sensitivity Calculation

A

TP / TP + FN

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8
Q

Specificity Calculation

A

TN / TN + FP

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9
Q

Positive Predictive Value (PPV)

A

TP / TP + FP

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10
Q

Negative Predictive Value (NPV)

A

TN / TN + FN

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11
Q

Screening

A

Process of identifying apparently healthy people who may have an increased chance of a disease or condition

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12
Q

What are the four key areas of Wilson and Jungner’s criteria for screening?

A

Knowledge of disease
Knowledge of test
Treatment for disease
Cost considerations

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13
Q

What are the current screening programmes offered in the UK?

A

In utero - sickle cell and thalassaemia, foetal anomaly scan, infectious diseases
Newborn - physical examination, blood spot, hearing test
Diabetic retinal screening
Bowel cancer
AAA
Breast cancer
Cervical cancer

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14
Q

Gravidity

A

The number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of outcome

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15
Q

Parity

A

The total number of times a woman has given birth to a child with a gestational age of 24 weeks or more, regardless of whether the child was stillborn

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16
Q

SOCRATES

A

Site
Onset
Character
Radiation
Associated Symptoms
Time
Exacerbation
Severity

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17
Q

Embryo

A

The pre-foetal product of fertilisation to the 8th week of development

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18
Q

Blastula

A

Early embryonic form produced by cleavage of a zygote and consisting of a spherical layer of cells surrounding a fluid-filled cavity

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19
Q

Ampulla

A

The widest part of the uterine tube, where fertilisation usually occurs

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20
Q

Implantation (week)

A

Week 2

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21
Q

Gastrulation (week)

A

Week 3

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22
Q

Neurulation (week)

A

Week 3/4

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23
Q

Folding (week)

A

Week 3/4

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24
Q

Organogenesis (week)

A

Week 3-8

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25
Q

Maturation (week)

A

Week 9+

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26
Q

Premature Birth

A

< 37 weeks

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27
Q

Postmature birth

A

> 42 weeks

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28
Q

Corona radiata

A

Loose cells surrounding the egg

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29
Q

Zona pellucida

A

Thick transparent membrane surrounding a mammalian ovum

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30
Q

Acrosome

A

Enzyme contained within the head of the sperm that digests the zona pellucida

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31
Q

Poles of a blastocyst

A

Embryoblast (inner cell mass) and trophoblast (outer cell mass)

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32
Q

What does the trophoblast become?

A

The placenta

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33
Q

Bilaminar disk

A

Forms from the embryoblast and consists of the hydroblast and the epiblast. Starts forming ~ Day 9

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34
Q

What does the hypoblast form?

A

The yolk sac which in turn gives rise to the chorion

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35
Q

What does the epiblast form?

A

Eventually gives rise to the trilaminar disk

36
Q

Ectoderm Structures

A

Epidermis of the skin
Cornea and lens of the eye
Nervous system

37
Q

Mesoderm Structures

A

Notochord
Musculoskeletal system
Muscular layers of the stomach, intestines etc.
Circulatory system

38
Q

Endoderm Structures

A

Epithelial lining of the digestive and respiratory tracts
Lining of the urethra, bladder and reproductive systems
Liver and pancreas

39
Q

Pre-eclampsia

A

Persistent high blood pressure that develops during pregnancy or the postpartum period. Often associated with high levels of protein in the urine.

40
Q

Labetalol

A

Beta blocker that can be used in pregnancy (e.g. for treatment of hypertension in pregnancy/pre-eclampsia)

41
Q

Nifedipine

A

Calcium Channel Blocker that can be used in pregnancy

42
Q

Methyldopa

A

Alpha-2-agonist that can be used in pregnancy to treat hypertension

43
Q

Blastulation

A

Development of the morula into a fluid-filled ball of undifferentiated cells, with an inner cell mass, trophoblast cells and a blastocyst cavity

44
Q

Synchytiotrophoblast

A

Outermost layer of the trophoblast which secretes enzymes to digest the endometrium

45
Q

Cytotrophoblast

A

Innermost layers of the trophoblast which make finger-like projections (chorionic villi) which facilitate implantation of the blastocyst into the endometrium

46
Q

Primitive Streak Formation

A

~ Day 15

47
Q

Function of the primitive streak

A

Establish bilateral symmetry
Embryonic axis (head-tail and front-back)
Initiate germ layer formation

48
Q

In which direction does the primitive streak form?

A

Points towards the caudal end of the embryo, on the dorsal surface

49
Q

From which germ layer does the neural tube form?

A

Ectoderm - first forms the neuroectoderm which forms a thickened structure - neural plate, which folds to form the neural tube.

50
Q

When does the primitive streak ‘disappear’?

A

~Day 26

51
Q

DNA Purines

A

Adenine and Guanine

52
Q

DNA Pyrimidines

A

Cytosine and Thymine

53
Q

Which strand of DNA is transcribed to mRNA?

A

Template strand, makes a RNA copy of the coding strand

54
Q

Transcription Factors

A

Proteins that assemble on the promoter and are required for initiation of transcription

55
Q

What enzyme unwinds DNA double helix?

A

DNA helicase

56
Q

Where does transcription occur?

A

In the nucleus

57
Q

Where does translation occur?

A

In the cytoplasm

58
Q

What are the three sites of a ribosome?

A

A-site: aminoacyl - where the tRNA comes in
P-site: peptidyl - site of amino acid incorporation
E-site: exit

59
Q

Labour Stage 1

A

Dilation of the cervix from 0 to 10 cm

60
Q

Labour Stage 2

A

From 10cm dilation to complete expulsion of the foetus

61
Q

Labour Stage 3

A

Separation and expulsion of the placenta and membranes

62
Q

Synarthrosis

A

Immovable joint

63
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A

Slightly moveable joint

64
Q

Diarthrosis

A

Freely moveable joint

65
Q

Suture

A

Immovable, fibrous joint only found between flat, plate-like bones of the skull

66
Q

Gomphoses

A

Immovable, fibrous joints found where the teeth articulate with their sockets in the maxilla and mandible

67
Q

Syndesmoses

A

Slightly moveable, fibrous joints held together by an interosseous membrane (e.g. middle radioulnar joint)

68
Q

Fibrous Joint

A

Held together by tough, fibrous tissue and typically require strength and stability over range of movement. Can be sub-classified into sutures, gomphoses and syndesmoses

69
Q

Cartilaginous Joint

A

Bones are united by fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage

70
Q

Synchondroses

A

Immovable, primary cartilaginous joint, where bones are connected by hyaline cartilage.

71
Q

Symphyses

A

Slightly moveable, secondary cartilaginous joint, where the bones are connected by a layer of fibrocartilage

72
Q

Synovial Joint

A

Defined by the presence of a fluid-filled cavity contained within a fibrous capsule

73
Q

Sub-classifications of Synovial Joints

A

Hinge
Saddle
Plane
Pivot
Condyloid
Ball and Socket

74
Q

Hinge Joint

A

Synovial Joint
Uniaxial (flexion/extension)
E.g. elbow, ankle, knee

75
Q

Saddle Joint

A

Synovial Joint
Biaxial (flexion/extension and adduction/abduction)
E.g. carpometacarpal

76
Q

Plane Joint

A

Synovial Joint
Permit only limited gliding movement
E.g. acromioclavicular, subtalar

77
Q

Pivot Joint

A

Synovial Joint
Rotation only
E.g. proximal and distal radioulnar, atlantoaxial

78
Q

Condyloid Joint

A

aka Ellipsoid Joint
Synovial Joint
Biaxial (flexion/extension and abduction/adduction)
E.g. wrist, metacarpophalangeal, metatarsophalangeal

79
Q

Ball and Socket Joint

A

Synovial Joint
Multi-axial (flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, lateral/medial rotation and circumduction)
E.g. hip, shoulder

80
Q

What are the layers of a synovial joint?

A

Fibrous
Synovial
Joint cavity (filled with synovial fluid)
Articular cartilage found on articulating surfaces

81
Q

What is the germ layer origin of connective tissue?

A

Mesoderm

82
Q

What are the 3 types of fibres found in connective tissue?

A

Collage
Elastin
Reticular

83
Q

What are the two types of connective tissue proper?

A

Loose connective tissue - more cells than fibres
Dense connective tissue - more fibres than cells (stronger) and can be regular or irregular

84
Q

Types of loose connective tissue

A

Areola (most widely distributed CT)
Adipose (found under skin, around kidneys, breasts etc)
Reticular (found in lymph nodes, bone marrow and the spleen)

85
Q

Types of dense connective tissue

A

Regular - significant strength (ligaments, tendons, fascia)
Irregular - forms sheets (e.g. dermis), fibrous joint capsules or fibrous coverings of organs (e.g. kidneys, bones, cartilage, muscles, nerves)

86
Q

Special Connective Tissues

A

Blood
Bone
Adipose
Cartilage

Year 1 (23 decks)

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