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AUDE 5310 Embryology & Genetic Conditions > Stages of Prenatal Development > Flashcards

Stages of Prenatal Development Flashcards

1
Q

human development begins with

A

fertilization

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2
Q

fertilization results in

A

new organism (single celled zygote)

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3
Q

what is a zygote

A

diploid cell with 22 autosome and 1 sex chromosome from EACH parent
total of 46 chromosomes

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4
Q

When does the zygote multiply its cells?

A

around 3 to 4 days post fertilization

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5
Q

what enters the uterine cavity

A

morula

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6
Q

these cells arrange as an inner and outer cell mass

A

blastocyst

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7
Q

what implants into the uterus

A

blastocyst

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8
Q

Can you have a pregnancy with no implantation?

A

no you have to have uterine implantation in order to have a pregnancy even though fertilization occurred

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9
Q

what must happen in order to have pregnancy?

A

the morula must enter the uterine cavity and implant

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10
Q

What sex chromosomes can mom and dad provide to zygote?

A

mom only an x because she is XX
dad either an x or a y because he is XY

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11
Q

what is a polar body

A

small haploid cell that is formed concomitantly as an egg during oogenesis but does not generally have the ability to be fertilized and degenerates
it cannot be fertilized
disappears around 12 hours after fertilization
1 of 2 small cells produced with the ovum (oogenesis) during meiosis and then degenerates

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12
Q

Morula =

A

Many cells

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13
Q

what is the blastulation process

A

where we are going from the morula to the blastocyst

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14
Q

inner and outer cell mass

A

blastocyst

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15
Q

outer cell mass becomes

A

trophoblast

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16
Q

trophoblast becomes

A

placenta

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17
Q

inner cell mass becomes

A

embryoblast

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18
Q

embryoblast becomes

A

gives rise to other body parts

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19
Q

what hours do we see 2 cell stage with polar body and blastomere

A

12-15 hours

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20
Q

at 12-15 hours after fertilization, what do we see

A

2 cell stage with polar body and blastomere

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21
Q

what hours do we see 4 cell stage

A

24-30 hours

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22
Q

what is the carnegie stages of development

A

system used by embryologists to describe the apparent maturity of embryosh

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23
Q

how is the carnegie stages determined

A

embryo assigned a stage from 1-23 based on external features

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24
Q

why is carnegie stages of development based on external features

A

the development of a fetus is very regular and we know what occurs when and what should look like during development and due to this we can find problems if there is one

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25
Q

in carnegie stages, when do the limb buds show?

A

16 (37 days)

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26
Q

when does the external ears show in carnegie?

A

21 (52 days)

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27
Q

what are the largest organs in early development?

A

ead and heart but as they develop it decreases in size

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28
Q

how do you determine when the due date is?

A

postovulatory age

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29
Q

what is the menstrual cycle?

A

day 1 is the first day of the menstrual cycle and last is the day before the next period begins

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30
Q

when does ovulation occur?

A

about 2 weeks before the next expected period
if an average cycle is 28 days, ovulation occurs around day 14

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31
Q

postovulatory age is used by clinicians to describe

A

maturity of an embryo

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32
Q

what is postovulatory age

A

refers to the length of time since the last ovulation before pregnancy

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33
Q

postovulatory age is good indication of embryonic age because

A

approx time of ovulation can be determined
fertilization must occur close to time of ovulation (around 12-24 hours)

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34
Q

why is the due date important

A

to make sure the fetus is meeting all of the milestones
if too early or too late, the fetus could be in danger
if they need to induce, want to make sure it is not too early or too late to take the fetus out

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35
Q

what are the stages of development?

A

pre-embryonic (fertilization to end of 2nd week)
embryonic (3-8th week of gestation)
fetal (3rd month, 9 weeks to birth)

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36
Q

what is the time frame for pre embryonic stage

A

after fertilization to end of the 2nd week of gestation

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37
Q

what occurs in pre-embryonic period

A

germ cells (3 germ layers) develop - gastrulation
nervous and cardiovascular system start to develop

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38
Q

what is gastrulation

A

process of cellular rearrangement which involves migration, invagination and differentiation of the epiblast

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39
Q

process by which the 3 germ layers are acquired

A

gastrulation

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40
Q

rapid process which a blastula becomes a gastrula

A

gastrulation

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41
Q

through the process of gastrulation, what is the course of all 3 germ layers in the embryo?

A

epiblast

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42
Q

what forms the bilaminar germ disc?

A

epiblast and hypoblast

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43
Q

2nd week there are how many layers

A

2

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44
Q

3rd week there are how many layers

A

3

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45
Q

Two sheet-like discs

A

bilaminar disk

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46
Q

upper layer of bilaminar disk

A

epiblastl

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47
Q

lower layer of bilaminar disk

A

hypoblast

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48
Q

what layers are in the trilaminar disk

A

ecto meso and endo

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49
Q

what is the primitive streak

A

transient structure who forms on day 15 of human development and marks the start of gastrulation

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50
Q

process that the inner cell mass converts into the trilaminar disc made up of the 3 layers

A

gastrulation

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51
Q

what marks the beginning of organogenesis

A

neural tube and notochord

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52
Q

where does the primitive streak originate from

A

anterior epiblast

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53
Q

appears as an elongated groove (primitive groove) on the caudal midline of the bilaminar disc

A

primitive streak

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54
Q

local thickening of epiblast at the cephalic end of the p.s. of the embryo

A

hensen’s node

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55
Q

the embryonic organizer

A

hensen’s node

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56
Q

primitive backbone is eventually replaced by the vertebral column in mammals

A

primitive node

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57
Q

contains the depression called a primitive pit

A

primitive node

58
Q

what organizes the cells where they need to go and keeps them where they need to be?

A

primitive node

59
Q

primitive backbone that turns into the vertebral column?

A

notocord

60
Q

What gives rise to all fetal tissues and organs?

A

germ cells

61
Q

3 places with no mesoderm

A

Where notochord is
Where procordal plate is (rostral)
Cloacal plate (caudal)

62
Q

epiblast is derived from

A

inner cell mass

63
Q

epiblast lies

A

above the hypoblast

64
Q

epiblast gives rise to

A

3 primary germ layers
ecto meso endo

65
Q

what are progenitor cells

A

descendants of stem cells that can differentiate to form 1 or more kinds of cells
they cannot divide and reproduce indefinitely

66
Q

what day do we see epiblast cells appear

A

day 8 of development

67
Q

epiblast cells make up

A

columnar epithelium with dense microvilli

68
Q

what do microvilli do

A

move things where they need to go

69
Q

what becomes the loose mesenchym of the p streak

A

epiblast cells when they undergo epithelial to mesenchymal transition during gastrulation

70
Q

what does ectoderm give rise to

A

organs and tissues that maintain contact with the OUTSIDE world
all external features come from this

71
Q

what develops from the ectoderm

A

CNS
PNS
Schwann cells
sensory epithelial of the ear nose and eye

72
Q

what develops from the mesoderm

A

heart, vascular system, male and female reproductive organs, spleen

73
Q

what develops from the endoderm

A

Gastrointestinal system is the main one
epithelial lining of eustachian tube, respiratory tract and lymphatic cavity

74
Q

what happens in the embryonic period

A

cells become differentiated into the organ structures
all major organ systems begin and/or undergo major development
3rd to 8th week of gestation
major period of organ development

75
Q

what is the significance of thalidomide

A

BP medication that used in 50’s for adults and found in Europe that it could be used for morning sickness
wasn’t approved for pregnant women
when babies are born the upper and lower limbs were not formed (hand where elbow should be) - skeletal limb abnormalities
called thalidomide babies
didn’t see in US because it was developed in europe
only affected the limbs

76
Q

what is organogenesis

A

development of organs/systems
process which the ecto meso and endo develop into internal organs of the organism

77
Q

exposure to teratogens (drugs, infections, toxins) during this period can result in either death or major congenital anomalies affecting multi organ systems

A

embryonic

78
Q

development of brain and spinal cord begins at

A

week 3

79
Q

what develops from the neural tube

A

CNS

80
Q

what develops from the neural crest cells

A

PNS

81
Q

forebrain

A

prosencephalon

82
Q

midbrain

A

mesencephalon

83
Q

hindbrain

A

rhombencephalon

84
Q

formed by closure of ectodermal tissue in the early vertebrate embryo

A

neural tube

85
Q

band of neuroectodermal cells that lie dorsolateral to developing spinal cord

A

neural crest cells

86
Q

develop into a variety of tissues
including spinal and autonomic ganglia and connective tissue around the brain and spinal cord

A

neural crest cells

87
Q

seen when neural tube has incomplete development

A

neural tube defects

88
Q

what is spina bifida

A

vertebrae overlying the spinal cord are not fully formed and remain unfused and open
if opening is large enough a portion of the spinal cord will protrude through the opening of the bones
may or may not have fluid filled sac surrounding the spinal cord (encased in a cyst)

89
Q

most common birth defect - 1/1000 births

A

spina bifida

90
Q

split spine

A

spina bifida

91
Q

will surgery after birth fully restore normal function of affected part of spinal cord in spina bifida?

A

no, can be closed but not a guarantee 100% fix

92
Q

after having one child with SB, risk for a second increases by _%

A

4, environment plays more of a role than genes

93
Q

incidence of sb can be decreased by 70% when the mom takes

A

daily folic acid supplements early in pregnancy

94
Q

S.B. believed to be caused by

A

combination of genetic and environmental factors

95
Q

what is encephalocele

A

sac containing meninges/brain/CSF forms outside skull due to bone defects
results when other parts of brain remain unfused
most common location is lumbar and sacral areas

96
Q

used interchangeably with spina bifida

A

myelomeningocele

97
Q

most significant and common encephalocele and leads to disability in most affected individuals

A

myelomeningocele

98
Q

what is myelomeningocele

A

fluid filled sac containing neural tissue protruding from the back
form of spina bifida

99
Q

what is chiari malformation

A

most common form
when lower part of the cerebellum pushes into the opening
evelops when part of the skill is smaller than normal or misshapen, forcing the cerebellum to be pushed down into the foramen magnum and upper spinal canal
causes pressure on cerebellum and brainstem that can affect functions controlled by these areas and block flow of CSF

100
Q

usually noticed in adolescence or adulthood

A

chiari malformation

101
Q

which type of CM is the most severe

A

Type IV

102
Q

What is arnold-chiari II malformation

A

can co-exist with encephalocele or spinal bifida
involves the cerebellum and brainstem tissue pushing into the foramen magnum

103
Q

causes hydrocephalus - collection of fluid on the brain

A

arnold chiari II

104
Q

usually results in partial or complete paralysis below the spinal opening with myelomeningocele

A

arnold chiari II

105
Q

what is a dermoid cyst

A

can occur in combo with spina bifida
benign tumor, remnant of p streak and contains all 3 germ layers

106
Q

represents the last place of separation between the superficial ectoderm and neuroectoderm

A

dermoid cyst

107
Q

what is anencephaly

A

portion of the neural tube that becomes the cerebrum doesn’t close
will be born without front part of the brain (forebrain) and thinking and coordinating part of the brain (cerebrum?)
remaining parts are not covered by bone or skin

108
Q

Is anencephaly compatible with life

A

no, usually are stillborn or die after birth

109
Q

what is the most common cause of anencephaly

A

maternal zika virus

110
Q

does the maternal zika virus affect the auditory system?

A

yes

111
Q

deficiency of brain tissue and cranium and not compatible with life

A

anencephaly

112
Q

microcephaly

A

small brain

113
Q

is microcephaly compatible with life

A

yes

114
Q

What are the most common locations of sb?

A

can happen anywhere due to the groove but we don’t know for certain why it is mostly the lower back

115
Q

what happens if the neural tube doesn’t develop the way it is supposed to?

A

spinal bifida

116
Q

describe the development of the cardiovascular system

A

development begins at week 3 of gestation
primitive heart divides into two ventricles at week 4
by week 7 septum communication between the two chambers closed off

117
Q

describe the development of the respiratory system

A

begins at week 3
at week 4 laryngotracheal tube present
by 8 weeks, developed but needs to mature to be able to breath once it is born

118
Q

what is the laryngotracheal tube present at week 4

A

precursor to trachea and larynx

119
Q

what happens with the respiratory system in premature babies

A

lungs are not mature enough to sustain life so they give medication to cause lung maturation so they are not on o2 as long
high levels of 02 causes damage to eyes and ears

120
Q

when does the primitive gut

A

develops around week 4
foregut, midgut and hindgut

121
Q

describe the development of the urinary system

A

begins early in embryonic development
kidneys around week 4
produce urine around week 11

122
Q

describe when we determine fetus gender

A

determined at fertilization
gonads begin developing at week 7
external genitalia not distinct until fetal period; ultrasound determination is b/w 18-22 wks

123
Q

what are the external visible features at the end of the embryonic period (8 weeks)

A

head makes up 50% of the embryo’s length
facial features and ears are clearly distinguishable
ears are low set
future eyes visible
formation of upper and lower limbs visible

124
Q

describe the fetal period

A

everything is laid down and the organs just need to mature
3rd month (9 weeks post fertilization to birth)
rapid growth and maturation of organs and tissues occurs
characterized by maturation of tissues and organs and rapid growth of the body
mom starts to show and gain weight

125
Q

what are characteristics of the fetal period

A

fetus looks more human
Relative head size decreases
Completion of the development of the organ systems
Hair appears on the head and body
Fetus gains weight gain from the development of subcutaneous fat
Fetus is getting ready for extrauterine life

126
Q

few physical malformations arise during this time because

A

major organ systems have been established

127
Q

what are developmental disorders believed to occur during the fetal period

A

autism
learning disabilities
dyslexia
adhd
CAPD
language issues (delay, dyslexia etc)

128
Q

why do they smack the baby right after birth?

A

to cry so the lungs can expand and they start breathing

129
Q

when does pregnancy start

A

first day of the last menstrual period
this is the getstational age of the fetus

130
Q

when must fertilization occur after ovulation

A

12-24 hours

131
Q

what joins to create a zygote

A

egg and sperm

132
Q

by day 10-12, zygot becomes

A

embryo

133
Q

development of the head and neck formation by branchial and pharyngeal arches and can be seen
hillocks arise on branchial clefts

A

week 5

134
Q

Arm and leg buds develop
EAC formation begins
begins with invagination of 1st pharyngeal cleft

A

week 6

135
Q

External ears begin to show
Septum communication between the two chambers of the heart closed off
Hillocks enlarge and fuse to form pinna

A

week 7

136
Q

Lungs are developed but need to mature to be able to breath once it is born
middle ear formation begins

A

week 8

137
Q

arms, hands, fingers, feet, and toes fully formed
fingernails and toenails develop
external ears form

A

week 10

138
Q

Fetus opens and closes fists and mouth
bones hardening
facial features more prominent
Produce urine

A

week 11

139
Q

B/w ____weeks, can determine sex by ultrasound

A

18-22

140
Q

middle ear formation ends
formed by tubotympanic recess - extension of the 1st pharyngeal pouch

A

week 21

141
Q

EAC formation ends
ends with recanalization (opening/passage) of the meatal plug

A

week 26

142
Q

pinna formation complete

A

week 30

AUDE 5310 Embryology & Genetic Conditions (18 decks)

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