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IFR Regs/Procs Lab (222) > Stage 48 Oral > Flashcards

Stage 48 Oral Flashcards

1
Q

What are 6 airborne Navigation Instruments we use?

A
  1. HSI
  2. RMI
  3. ADF
  4. VOR
  5. GPS
  6. CDI
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2
Q

How would you describe control/performance, and what are the 4 steps?

A
  • Setting attitude and power to achieve a desired performance
    1. Establish
    2. Trim
    3. Cross-check
    4. Adjust
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3
Q

What are the 3 common errors that occur during instrument cross-check/scan?

A
  1. Fixation
  2. Omission
  3. Emphasis
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4
Q

What are the 3 segments of the GPS system?

A
  1. Space (Satellites)
  2. Control (Ground Station)
  3. User (Aircraft)
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5
Q

How many satellites are required for triangulation, and what information will that provide?

A
  • Need a minimum of 3 satellites

- Will provide Lat/Long coordinate only (no altitude)

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6
Q

What is RAIM? How many satellites does is need to function?

A
  • Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
  • An internal check (not augmentation) for bad satellite signals that will kick them out/replace with good ones
    1. 5 Satellites to DETECT a bad signal
    2. 6 Satellites to KICK IT OUT
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7
Q

What is WAAS? What does it augment, and how? (Draw a Picture)

A
  • Wide Area Augmentation System
  • Corrects GPS positioning signal errors
    1. WAAS Satellites send signals to surveyed positions on the ground with known, unchanging coordinates
    2. Satellite signal indications are compared with the real ground station coordinates
    3. Any identified errors are signaled to a Mother-Ground Station
    4. Mother-Ground Station signals a Broad-casting satellite of the error
    5. Broadcasting Satellite sends out the correction to the a/c
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8
Q

If we lose WAAS, how does that limit us?

A
  • Information will not be as accurate
  • En-Route CDI deflection will increase to 5nm either side
  • Airport you’re going to must have another type of approach available
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9
Q

How many satellites must be visible in order to have WAAS?

A

6 Satellites

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10
Q

Describe some aspects of the ADF. What navigation system does it rely on? What limits/errors is it subject to?

A
  • Automatic Direction Finder (airborne)
    1. Relies on NDB ground stations (HH, H, MH)
  • Limited to NDB SSVs and errors
    2. No indication if signal is lost, must listen to Morse Code ID constantly
    3. Transmits on a lower frequency, subject to more interference
    4. Loop antenna and a Sense antenna determine a/c’s Relative Bearing
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11
Q

What is a good rule of thumb for knowing when to start you turn to establish yourself on a DME arc?

A
  • 1% of you GS
    ex: 100 knots…start your turn when you are 1nm our from the arc
  • UND: 0.5nm away
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12
Q

What 3 components are associated with the Localizer system? What equipment makes them up?

A
  1. Guidance (Localizer Antenna and Glideslope)
  2. Range (Marker Beacons (OM, MM, IM) picked up by DME)
  3. Visual (Approach, touchdown and centerline lights)
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13
Q

What is the SSV of a Localizer? What frequencies does it radiate?

A
  1. 35 degrees for 10nm, 10 degrees fo 18nm
  2. Localizer Beam: 3-6 degrees (varies), 700ft wide at Threshold (Localizer antenna always placed to achieve this)
  3. Right “blue” = 150 Hertz, Left “yellow” = 90 Hertz, where they intersect = centerline
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14
Q

What information does the Localizer Antenna provide? Where is it located and why?

A
  • Course deviation to the Left and Right of centerline
  • Full scale deflection shows 2.5 degrees on either side
  • Positioned at the end of the runway to provide 3-6 degrees (varies) path and be 700ft wide at Threshold
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15
Q

What are some common errors when using a Localizer?

A
  1. Reflection - objects below 5,000’ AGL disrupting signal
  2. False Course - Glideslope
  3. Needle deflection when passing over - HOLD YOUR HEADING!
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16
Q

What is the SSV of a Glideslope? What guidance/information does it provide?

A
  • Service Volume is 10 NM
  • Based off a normal 3° glide path so that it intersects the MM at 200 feet and the OM at 1400 feet
  • Course Deviation Up and Down of centerline
  • Full Scale deflection shows 0.7 degrees on either side
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17
Q

If the ADC fails, what instruments will we lose?

A
  1. ASI
  2. VSI
  3. Altimeter
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18
Q

If AHRS fails, what instruments will we lose?

A
  1. Attitude Indicator

2. Heading Indicator

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19
Q

AS SOON AS YOU LOSE 1+ INSTRUMENTS, WHAT DO YOU DO?

A

RUN THE CHECKLIST
THEN: NOTIFY ATC
1. What you’ve lost
2. Whether you can continue operating IFR off the standbys
3. Whether you are in need of assistance now or in the future
- ASK FOR VECTORS

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20
Q

What is Equivalent airspeed?

A
  • Calibrated AS corrected for compression error
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21
Q

What information does an HSI provide? What is one main component of its operation?

A
  1. Gives heading, course selector, glide slope and TO/FR indication (combines heading indicator with CDI)
    - Improves situational awareness
  2. When slaved to a Magnetic Flux Gate, it automatically updates with a/c rotation (adjusts to magnetic currents)
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22
Q

What is the purpose of a flux gate/valve?

A
  • Enables compass to readily accept lines of magnetic from the Earth’s field and still indicate correct magnetic heading
    (peace sign)
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23
Q

What gyroscopic instruments operate on Rigidity?

A
  1. Attitude Indicator

2. Heading Indicator

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24
Q

What gyroscopic instruments operate on Precession?

A
  1. Turn Coordinator

2. Turn-Slip Indicator

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25
Q

What is deviation with a magnetic compass?

A
  • The errors in magnetic indication due to instruments/equpment that could not be eliminated when the a/c was aligned on a compass rose
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26
Q

Define Variation

A

The difference between True North and Magnetic North

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27
Q

What information does the Turn Coordinator provide? How does it know what the airplane is doing?

A
  1. Aircraft YAW (turn rate/heading) and ROLL (attitude)
  2. GYRO is mounted HORIZONTAL and PARALLEL to LATERAL axis allowing it to “feel” precession from a/c YAWING around it
  3. Gyro. GIMBAL is canted 30 degrees up from the LONGITUDINAL axis of the a/c, allowing gyro to “feel” precession from a/c ROLLING around it
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28
Q

What information does the Turn-Slip Indicator provide? How does it know what the airplane is doing?

A
  1. Aircraft YAW (turn rate/heading) only
  2. GYRO is mounted HORIZONTAL and PARALLEL to LATERAL axis, allowing it to “feel” precession from the a/c YAWING around it
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29
Q

What airborne equipment can we uses with NDBs?

A
  • RMI

- ADF

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30
Q

What are the NDB ground stations? What are their SSVs?

A
  1. HH (high homing) - 75nm
  2. H (homing) - 50nm
  3. MH (medium homing) - 25nm
  4. Compass Locator - 15nm
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31
Q

What is Relative Bearing? What is the formula for it?

A
  • The angular difference between a/c heading and the location of the station, measures CLOCKWISE from the nose of the a/c
  • Relative Bearing + Magnetic Heading = Magnetic Bearing
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32
Q

What are the 5 errors that NDBs are susceptible to?

A
  1. Thunderstorm Effect: ADF needle is deflected toward a nearby electrical storm
  2. Night (Twilight) Effect: NDB signals can be refracted by the ionosphere and then return to Earth, causing interference with the normal NDB surface waves, resulting in a fading signal/wandering ADF needle.
  3. Interference: Other NDBs transmitting on similar frequencies (especially at night).
  4. Mountain Effect: Reflections of the NDB signals from mountains.
  5. Coastal Effect: NDB signal bending toward the coastline when crossing it at an angle.
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33
Q

If the ADF fails, what indication will there be?

A

There will be no indication of a failure, that’s why you must listen to the Morse Code ID the whole time you are using it

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34
Q

How does a VOR ground station identify a/c location?

A
  • Transmits 2 VHF radio signals:
    1. Reference phase signal (omni-directional, determines TO/FR indication)
    2. Variable phase signal (rotates uniformly at a rate of 1800 rpm, with its phase varying at a constant rate throughout the 360°)
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35
Q

What major error is VOR subject to?

A
  • LINE OF SIGHT

Ex: Terrain/obstruction blocking a/c recieval of VOR signals, or location of the station

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36
Q

What are the 3 types of VORs and there SSVs?

A
  1. Terminal (1-12’ - 25nm)
  2. Low (1-18’ - 40nm)
  3. High (4 Tiers)
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37
Q

How does a DME measure distance between the station and a/c?

A
  • The TIME delay between a/c interrogator signals being sent out, and the ground beacon transponder reply pulse being received back
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38
Q

What is the purpose of having SSVs?

A
  • To know the MINIMUM ranges in which you are GUARANTEED reception
  • To plan routes always within a SSV of a navaid
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39
Q

What are the regulatory FAA requirements for VOR checks?

A
  • 91.171 requires the VOR receiver to be checked every 30 days if it is to be used for IFR operations
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40
Q

What are the 3 ways to check a VOR and their respective tolerances? Where can you find information on check facilities?

A
  • Information can be found in AFD/Pacific Chart Supplement
    1. VOT/Ground Checks: +/- 4°
    2. Dual VOR Checks: +/- 4 °
    3. Airborne Checks: +/- 6 °
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41
Q

What makes up IFR required equipment for flight?

A 
Generator
Radio (2-way)
Attitude Indicator
Ball (slip-skid Indicator)
Clock (Installed - can count SECONDS)
Altitude Indicator
Rate of Turn Indicator
Directional Gyro.
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42
Q

What is the VOR symbol? What does services does it provide?

A
  • Hexagon with a dot

- Just VOR navigation

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43
Q

What is the VORTAC symbol? What services does it provide?

A
  • Hexagon with dot and 3 black trapezoids on the sides (like TACs)
  • Consists of 2 components: VOR and TACAN
  • Provides VOR, azimuth, and DME navigation
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44
Q

What is the VOR/DME symbol? What does services does it provide?

A
  • Hexagon with a dot in a square

- Provides VOR and DME navigation

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45
Q

What navigation instrument will never be affected by reverse sense?

A

The HSI! And the flag will always point towards the station.

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46
Q

Where are Magnetic Flux Gates usually located?

A
  • On the wingtip of an a/c (away from equipment to avoid interference)
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47
Q

How does the altimeter work?

A
  • Standard temp and pressure is sealed within the aneroid barometer
  • As non-standard temp and pressure change in the atmosphere, the barometer will compress/expand in response
  • The barometer’s compression/expansion is transmitted through mechanical linkage to rotate instrument pointers
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48
Q

What happens to TAS with changing altitude? Why?

A
  • TAS increases with increasing altitude
  • TAS decreases with decreasing altitude
  • As altitude increases, air becomes less dense and therefore Pitot Pressure readings will decrease at a greater rate than the atmospheric presser outside, and vice versa
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49
Q

How does the VSI detect climbs and descents?

A
  • Diaphragm measures change in atmospheric pressure (from static line) for “trend” information
  • Calibrated leak in the back of the casing indicates “rate” information depending on the amount of air entering/exiting
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50
Q

Describe Slant Range and the error it can present

A
  • Measure of distance between an airborne a/c and the station on the ground
  • Increases with proximity to the station, especially at higher altitudes
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51
Q

How many satellites are in orbit?

A
  • 30 Satellites

- Goal is to have at least 6 visible satellites no matter where you are on the Earth

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52
Q

What 2 errors is DME subject to?

A
  1. Slant Range

2. Line of Sight

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53
Q

What is the SSV of a DME?

A

199 NM or 99 a/c

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54
Q

How would you perform a VOR check using a VOT/ground station?

A
  1. Align a/c on designated spot
  2. Tune to VOT
  3. VOR should read either 360 FR or 180 TO
  4. Measure deflecti
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55
Q

If an a/c is sitting on the ground with a pressure of 29.98 “Hg and the pressure level decreases to 29.68 “Hg how will the altimeter be affected?

A
  • The altimeter would show an INCREASE of approximately 300 feet in altitude
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56
Q

How does the ASI work?

A
  • Measures the difference between Pitot pressure and Static pressure
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57
Q

Where is the Outer Marker on an ILS approach located? What does it provide?

A
  • Located 4-7 NM from the end of runway where, glideslope intersects the procedure turn altitude (min. holding)
  • Provides a final approach fix for non-precision approaches
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58
Q

Where is the Middle Marker on an ILS approach located?

A

~3,500’ from the Threshold

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59
Q

What is the power output and the SSV of the Marker Beacons on an ILS approach?

A
  • Have a rated power output of 3 watts or less

- Antenna array is designed to produce a elliptical pattern with dimensions at 1000’ AGL of 2400 ft in width and length

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60
Q

Visual components of ILS?

A

Visual Information – see AIM for information

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61
Q

How do you properly tune and identify an NDB?

A
  1. Monitor the Morse code ident continuously during use

2. If you hear an incorrect or test ident, the NDB must not be used for navigation.

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62
Q

What are some advantages of using a DME?

A

Provides:

  1. Distance in nautical miles
  2. Groundspeed in knots (only reliable going directly to or from the station)
  3. Time to station in minutes (only reliable going directly to the station)
    - Accuracy: ½ mile or 3% of distance; whichever is greater
  4. Can substitute for an OM on an approach
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63
Q

Why do we turn the Master (ALT only) switch off when we get a Low Volts Annunciatior?

A
  • In case the alternator has gone offline due to an overvoltage (protection mechanism)
  • Cycling the ALT master switch can restore power (reset when turned back on)
  • Switch power source to the Essential BUS (Standby Battery)
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64
Q

With an inadvertent icing encounter, why do we turn cabin HT and defrosters on?

A
  • To prevent icing of the windshield
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65
Q

With flight into icing conditions, what signs should you be vigilant in looking for?

A
  • A loss of RPM: This can be a sign of air filter (intake) icing
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66
Q

If you suspect your air filter (intake) has been iced over, what should you do?

A
  • Adjust throttle and mixture to hold steady RPM (Expect 10% drop in performance when automatic alternate air door opens inside the cowling)
  • Land as soon as practical
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67
Q

How does the Flux Gate work?

A

Readily accepts and MEASURES Earth’s lines of magnetic flux to determine correct heading

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68
Q

When do you use the ANDS mnemonic?

A
  • When accelerating/deccelerating on E/W headings
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69
Q

When do you use the UNOS mnemonic?

A
  • When turn to Northerly or Southerly headings
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70
Q

What does AHRS use to sense attitude and heading?

A

Accelerometers and Magnometers

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71
Q

What instrument uses a gyro in our planes? How is it powered?

A

Standby attitude indicator, vacuum!

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72
Q

What 6-pack gyroscopic instruments are powered electrically?

A

Turn coordinator and turn-slip indicator

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73
Q

What 4 requirements are there for flying IFR with GPS as the main NAVAID?

A
  1. Any Non-WAAS GPS must be equipped with RAIM
  2. WAAS GPS must meet standards
  3. MUST CHECK NOTAMs prior to IFR flight
  4. Must have an approved ALTERNATE means of navigation appropriate to flight
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74
Q

What are the 3 different CDI sensitivities with WAAS/Non-WAAS GPS navigation? When do they automatically activate?

A
  1. En-Route (30nm+ from destination) WAAS = 2nm full scale deflection either side
    En-Route Non-WAAS = 5nm full scare deflection
  2. Terminal (~30nm TO/FR) = 1nm full scale deflection either side
  3. Approach (Past Final Approach WP) = 0.3nm full scale deflection either side
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75
Q

How do Satellites determine a/c location?

A

Line of Position!

- Signals from several satellites intersect at the a/c and then are able to triangulate location

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76
Q

What is RAIM? How many satellites does it need?

A
  1. RECEIVER Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

2. 5 to detect a bad signal, 6 to kick it out and replace it

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77
Q

What makes up the major Control Segments of GPS?

A
  • Monitors and Adjusts satellite performance
  • 6 Monitoring Stations across the world (Master control sation in Colo. Springs)
  • 4 Ground Antennas across the world
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78
Q

What are the advantages of GPS navigation?

A
  1. Cheap
  2. Available 24/7
  3. Unlimited # of users
  4. Extremely Accurate
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79
Q

What are the requirements for the Airborne Segment of GPS?

A
  • Must be INSTALLED in a/c

- Must meet IFR operation standards (RAIM or WAAS equipped)

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80
Q

How does GPS function to locate a/c?

A
  • Transmits codes on 2 frequencies (Status Message and Pseudo Random Code)
  • Receiver measures Travel Time and satellite position to determine Altitude
  • Triangulation determines lat/long
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81
Q

What are 3 errors of GPS?

A
  1. LINE OF SIGHT
  2. Space Weather (solar interference)
  3. Terrestrial interference/Jamming/Spoofing
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82
Q

What are some benefits of WAAS?

A
  1. Generates electronic glide path independent of ground equipment/barometric aiding
  2. Manual RAIM calculation not required
  3. Eliminate cold temperature affect
  4. Don’t need to install ground station (cheap)
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83
Q

What is the main difference between GPS and GBAS?

A
  • Ground Based Augmentation System reference facility is on/near the airport being served
  • Allows precise approaches to multiple runways w/ 1 station
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Perfectly
84
Q

What are the 4 components of LAAS?

A
  1. LAAS Ground Facility
  2. Reference Receiver
  3. VHF Transmitter
  4. GPS Satellites
  5. A/c equipment
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85
Q

When ADS-B is mandated, where will ADS-B OUT be required?

A
  • Class A, B, C

- Class E above 10,000’

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86
Q

What is PBN and what are the 2 types?

A
  • Performance Based Navigation
    1. RNAV (Area Navigation)
    2. RNP (Required Navigation Performance)
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87
Q

Why is it important to know the VOR Standard Service Volumes?

A
  • It is the range in which you are gaurunteed a reliable reception without interference
88
Q

What are the 3 classes of VORs?

A
  1. Terminal (T)
  2. Low (L)
  3. High (H)
89
Q

What is the SSV of a Terminal (T) VOR?

A
  • Least Powerful
  • 1,000’-12,000’ AGL
  • 25nm Radius
90
Q

What is the SSV of a Low (L) VOR?

A
  • 1,000’-18,000’ AGL

- 40nm Radius

91
Q

What is the SSV of a High (H) VOR?

A
  • 4 Separate “Shelves”
  • 1,000’-14,500’ AGL, 40nm Radius
  • 14,500’-18,000’ AGL, 100nm Radius
  • 18,000’-45,000’ AGL, 130nm Radius
  • 45,000’-60,000’ AGL, 100nm Radius
92
Q

Where will the HSI’s indication flag always point?

A

THE STATION (like an RMI)

93
Q

What will occur in the Zone of Ambiguity?

A

Your TO/FR flag indication will disappear, as you are crossing a radial that is exactly 90 degrees from the course you have set!

94
Q

What occurs in the cone of confusion?

A

The deflection needle will jump back and forth rapidly, as you are flying directly over the station!

95
Q

LOW frequency navaids/equipment are subject to more ____ than those that use high frequency.

A
  • Interference
96
Q

What is the SSV for a Localizer?

A
  • 2 “Shelves”
  • 35 degrees either side of centerline, extends up runway for 10nm
  • 10 degrees either side of centerline, extends up runway for 18nm
97
Q

What is the standard WIDTH of a Localizer?

A
  • 3-6 degrees, varies, not published

- Beam is always 700ft wide at the Threshold

98
Q

What does 91.205 state about radio navigation above FL240?

A
  • A/c flying at or above FL240 are required to be DME equipped for VOR navigation
99
Q

What are the 4 major parts of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A
  1. Localizer
  2. Glideslope
  3. Marker Beacons
  4. DME
100
Q

What information does a Localizer on an ILS provide?

A
  • Left/Right Guidance
  • Based on ONE single fixed course (I followed by three letter identifier)
  • Very sensitive (only 2.5 degrees of deflection indicated on either side)
101
Q

What information does a Glideslope on an ILS provide?

A
  • Vertical Guidance (Up/Down)
  • 1.4 degrees wide (0.7 degrees deflection indicated on either side)
  • Based off an antenna located on the side of the runway
102
Q

Where do you find the published VOR checks?

A

AF/D

103
Q

When is a VOR check required?

A

For IFR flight using VOR as the means of radio navigation

104
Q

How would you complete a VOR check using Dual VORs?

A
  • Compare 2 independent VOR receivers installed in the same a/c against each other
  • Tune and center both receivers to the same VOR ground facility
  • Bearing readings should be within +/-4 degrees
105
Q

How would you complete a VOR check using airborne checkpoints?

A

Fly over the designated checkpoint while tuned into its assigned radial - deflection should be within +/- 6 degrees

106
Q

Explain the 1st fundamental of BAIF

A
  • Instrument scan/cross check
  • The continuous and logical observation of instruments for attitude and performance information
  • Reading the instruments in a pattern and getting the a/c to do what you
107
Q

Explain the 2nd Fundamental of BAIF

A
  • Interpretation
  • Understanding of the construction and operating principles
  • Knowing what the instrument is telling you and asking “Is this was I want?”
108
Q

Explain the 3rd Fundamental of BAIF

A
  • Aircraft Controls
  • Manipulating controls to get instruments to read what you want
  • Will develop with practice
109
Q

What are 3 Interpretation errors that can occur during BAIF?

A
  1. Looking at the wrong instrument
  2. Misinterpretation of info
  3. Direct vs. Indirect indication
110
Q

What is the proper way to recover from a nose high unusual attitude?

A
  • Power IN
  • Pitch down (to avoid stalling)
  • Level the wings
111
Q

What is the proper way to recover from a nose low unusual attitude?

A
  • Power OUT
  • Level the wings
  • Pitch up
112
Q

An Attitude and Heading Indicator malfunction would indicate what kind of system failure?

A

Vacuum system failure

113
Q

What is oscillation error?

A

The result of all the other errors, and the swinging back and forth of the magnetic compass as it tries to line up

114
Q

Characteristics of the Attitude Indicator?

A
  • Vertical Spin Axis (allowing it to sense rotation about the a/cs lateral axis)
  • Double gimbal mount, allowing the gyro to remain fixed in space as the a/c pitches and rolls around it
  • Horizon disc, allowing gyro to remain on the same PLANE as the a/c
  • Has an Erection Mechanism used to correct the effects of precession induced by friction
115
Q

Characteristics of the Heading Indicator?

A
  • Relies on rigidity
  • Horizontal Spin Axis (allowing it to sense rotation about the a/cs vertical axis)
  • Double gimbal mount
  • Not a North seeking instrument so it must be manually set
  • Air driven
116
Q

Characteristics of the Turn-Slip Indicator?

A
  • Relies on Precession (a/c yawing creates force on horizontal plane causing gyro/gimbal to spin)
  • Shows relationship of inertia and gravity (Ball to the outside of the turn = increased inertia, ball to the inside of the turn = increased gravity)
  • Gyro axis is parallel to a/c lateral axis
  • Gimbal axis is parallel to a/c longitudinal axis (single gimbal mount)
117
Q

Characteristics of the Turn Coordinator?

A
  • Relies on Precession
  • Shows relationship between bank angle and rate of yaw (Ball to the outside of the turn = SKIDDING, ball to the inside of the turn = SLIPPING)
  • Gimbal frame is angled 30 degrees up from longitudinal axis of a/c
  • Senses yaw and roll
118
Q

What is an AHRS? How is it powered?

A
  • Attitude and Heading Reference System
  • ALL ELECTRICAL
  • 3 rate sensors, 3 accelerometers (Determines which way is level and which way is north by using inertial sensors, rate gyros, and magnetometers)
  • 2 axis tilt sensors
119
Q

What is an ADC? What does it do?

A
  • Air Data Computer
  • Receives and processes pitot pressure, static pressure, and temperature
  • Outputs altitude, indicated AS, true AS, and air temp.
120
Q

What would happen if the FRONT of the pitot tube became blocked?

A

The ASI would drop to 0

121
Q

What would happen to the Altimeter if the static port became blocked?

A

Altimeter would be frozen at the altitude it was at when it became blocked.

122
Q

How would the VSI be affected if the static port became blocked?

A

The VSI would indicate 0 (level flight)

123
Q

What would happen if the front AND back of the pitot tube became blocked?

A
  • The pressure inside would become trapped, therefore the ASI would remain frozen at whatever airspeed in level flight
  • ASI would increase if you entered a climb
  • ASI woud decrease if you entered a descent
    (acting like an altimeter)
124
Q

What would happen to the ASI if the static port became blocked?

A

The ASI would give inaccurate readings

125
Q

What 2 ways are the gyros powered?

A
  • Vacuum-driven: Uses suction/air pressure in vanes to maintain upright spinning parallel to ground
  • Electrically-driven: Uses electricity (only the Turn Coordinator in a standard 6-Pack)
126
Q

What instrument(s) would you lose on an EFIS (electronic flight instrument system) if the Magnetometer failed?

A

Loss of Heading indicator.

127
Q

What instrument(s) would you lose on an EFIS if the AHRS failed?

A

Screen background would go black…loss of horizon line and heading indicator.

128
Q

What instrument(s) would you lose on an EFIS if the ADC failed?

A

Loss of Altitude, ASI and VSI

129
Q

Will the EFIS display anything if there is a pitot/static blockage?

A

No, the EFIS does not monitor the pitot/static probes/ports so it will not recognize a blockage

130
Q

What does the STBY Battery in our C172s power?

A

The Essential Bus:

  • ADC/AHRS
  • PFD
  • Nav 1 (engine/airframe, Ess. Bus voltometer)
  • Com 1
  • STBY indicator lights
131
Q

How long will the SBTY Battery last?

A

At least 30 minutes

132
Q

When will the STBY Battery start powering things?

A

When M BUS Volts drops below 20

133
Q

What is Indicated Altitude?

A

Accounts for pressure, but not temperature.??

134
Q

What is Pressure Altitdue?

A

Height above the standard datum (29.92” Hg)

135
Q

What does the pitot probe measure?

A

RAM/Dynamic pressure

136
Q

What happens to IAS as altitude increases?

A
  • IAS decreases with altitude due to decreased pressure in the atmosphere (remember your cute example that sucked)
137
Q

What is TAS?

A

True Airspeed, corrected for non-standard temperature and pressure.

138
Q

What is precession?

A
  • The “rolling over” proportionate to the rate of the a/c’s rotation
  • Any force is “felt” 90 degrees ahead of where it was originally applied
139
Q

What is rigidity in space?

A

When spinning at high speeds, gyros will resist tilting/turning in any direction other than around its spin axis

140
Q

What must a pilot have in order to be granted a Special VFR at night?

A

Instrument rating, and the a/c must be IFR equipped.

141
Q

What are spatial disorientations caused by the vestibular system?

A
  • Vestibular = Ear
    1. The Leans
    2. Coriolis Illusion
    3. Graveyard Spiral
142
Q

What would causes a pilot to become spatially disorientated and enter a Graveyard Spiral?

A

A pilot in a prolonged coordinated, constant-rate turn, will lose the sensation of turning. During recovery to straight and level flight (MOVEMENT OF THE A/C), the pilot experiences the sensation of turning in the opposite direction, so the pilot returns the a/c to the turn.

143
Q

How does the vacuum system in our C172s operate? Draw a picture!

A
  1. Engine Driven Vacuum Pump
  2. Vacuum Regulator
  3. STBY Attitude Indicator
  4. Air Filter
  5. Transducer
144
Q

Draw the Pitot-Static system!

A
  1. Pitot Tube
  2. ASI
  3. VSI
  4. Altimeter
  5. Static Port
  6. Alternate Static Source
145
Q

You experience an engine failure in the clouds. What do you do?

A
  1. Run the checklist
  2. Declare emergency with ATC
    - Ask for vectors to nearest airport with help from GPS
    - Ask for ceilings, check field elevation on MFD
  3. Fly the plane
146
Q

Why do the numbers on the magnetic compass appear to be backwards?

A

The card remains stationary while the a/c moves around it! -12–E–6-

147
Q

What are the 4 service volumes for NDBs?

A
  1. HH (high homing) - 75nm
  2. H (homing) - 50nm
  3. MH (medium homing) - 25nm
  4. Compass Locator - 15nm
148
Q

If the static system becomes blocked, but the pitot tube remains clear, what readings can you expect from the ASI?

A
  • Inaccurate readings!
  • When the a/c increases altitude from where the blockage occurred, ASI will indicated slower than actual
  • Opposite for descents and higher AS indications than actual
149
Q

If the static system become blocked, what happens to the Altimeter and VSI?

A
  • Altimeter freezes at the pressure where it was blocked

- VSI drops to zero

150
Q

What is position error (in regards to the static system) caused by?

A

A/c flying at high AOA with landing gear and flaps set in can disturb the air around the static port

151
Q

How does the Flux Gate Compass System work?

A
  • Lines of flux in the Earth’s magnetic field have a magnet that aligns with lines of flux, and an electrical current that is generated in any wire crossed by them
  • Drives slaved gyros through current induction
152
Q

What errors is the Altimeter subject to?

A
  • Hot/Cold weather error (Indicated alt. vs actual height above the ground)
  • Mechanical error (within 75’)
153
Q

What is the difference between true and absolute altitude?

A
  • True Altitude is height above Sea Level

- Absolute Altitude is the actual distance between an a/c and the terrain it is flying over

154
Q

How would you recognize a Vacuum Failure?

A
  • Low Vacuum annunciator illuminates
  • Check MFD VAC Gauge to see if indications are outside the green
  • Attitude and heading indicators would be inaccurate/failed
155
Q

How does the ADC generate its information?

A

Takes RAM/Dynamic pressure, static pressure and air temperature and calculated ASI, VSI and altitude! look in POH

156
Q

Describe how the magnetic compass works

A
  • Flux gate
  • 2 small magnets are attached to the float/scale
  • These magnets align with Earth’s magnetic fields, and the a/c and compass housing rotate around it!
157
Q

Describe how the magnetic compass works

A
  • Flux gate
  • 2 small magnets are attached to the float/scale
  • These magnets align with Earth’s magnetic fields, and the a/c and compass housing rotate around it!
158
Q

What 2 errors are caused by magnetic dip?

A

Acceleration and Turning errors!!

159
Q

What does VOR stand for?

A

Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range

160
Q

How does the VOR work?

A

Transmits 2 VHF signals:

  1. Reference Phase - omnidirectional to determine TO/FR
  2. Variable Phase - rotates throughout 360 radials to determine location
161
Q

How can you tell if a VOR has failed?

A
  • By listening to the Morse Code ID

- Needle disappears

162
Q

What procedure would you follow if you experienced lost coms in IFR?

A
  • Run the checklist
  • Sqwuak 7600
    Route: Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed
    Altitude: MEA, Expected, Assigned (Highest)
    Clearance Limit: …..
163
Q

What are standard takeoff minimums for departure procedures based off of?

A
  • Climbing at 200ft/NM
  • Being atleast 35’ AGL when crossing the DER
  • Turn when 400’ AGL
164
Q

What does a Cruise Clearance allow you to do?

A

Allows you to climb, descend and cruise at any altitude you want between the MEA and the altitude specified by ATC in the clearance

165
Q

If you are told to climb/descend “at pilots discretion” what does this allow you to do?

A

Allows you to climb/descend at whatever rate you want, as long as you maintain the published MEAs/MOCAs, etc.

166
Q

91.169 discusses:

A

Requirements to plan an alternate, and alternate weather minimums

167
Q

What is an Option Approach?

A

You can END the IAP however you want

168
Q

What is a VFR-on-Top clearance?

A
  • When an IFR pilot is operating in VFR conditions, and can request VFR-on-Top in lieu of an assigned altitude
  • When you want to get through a layer of IFR and then cancel IFR and remain VFR-on-Top
169
Q

When should you advise ATC of a change in true airspeed?

A

When it varies by 10 knots of what you filed

170
Q

What 7 things should be included in a Position Report to ATC? (TIN PEAR)

A
  1. Identification (who you are)
  2. Position
  3. Time
  4. Altitude
  5. ETA and NAME of next reporting point
  6. NAME of preceding reporting point
  7. Remarks

MARVELOUS VFR C500

171
Q

List a few additional reports that should be made to ATC outside of reporting points when in radar contact

A
  • Altitude change
  • If unable to meet 500fpm climb/descend gradient
  • On the Missed
  • Any loss of navaid equipment
  • Unforecasted weather
172
Q

What reports should be made to ATC when NOT in radar contact?

A
  • When leaving the FAF inbound for the approach

- ETA change of 3 minutes

173
Q

How are compulsory reporting points depicted?

A

Shaded/colored in!

174
Q

Unless otherwise specified, Federal (Victor) Airways extend from ____ up to, but not including ____

A

1,200’ AGL - 18,000’ MSL

175
Q

What elements are required when making an Equipment Malfunction Report?

A
  1. A/c ID (who you are)
  2. Equipment affected
  3. Ability to continue under IFR with ATC
  4. Assistnace desired from ATC
176
Q

What is a MOCA? How can you identify one on an EnRoute chart?

A
  • Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude
  • Garuntees obstacle clearance, and reception from the VOR station for 22nm
  • It will be along a Victor airway with an * infront of it
177
Q

What is an MRA? How can you identify one on an EnRoute chart?

A
  • Minimum Reception Altitude
  • The lowest altitude on an airway where an a/c can receive reliable navaid coverage
  • Flag with an “R” in it
178
Q

What is an MCA? How can you identify one on an EnRoute chart?

A
  • Minimum Crossing Altitude
  • The lowest altitude at which a navigational fix can be
    crossed when entering or continuing along an airway
  • Allows a/c to clear all obstacles while
    carrying out a normal climb to the required MEA
  • Flag with an “X” in it (for crossing)
179
Q

What is an MORA? How can you identify one on an EnRoute chart?

A
  • Minimum Off Route Altitude
  • Guarantees 1000’ obstacle clearance in non-mountainous areas when navigation off Federal Airways
  • Big brown numbers
180
Q

Name 5 types of icing and their characteristics

A
  1. Rime - Rough, milky color due to trapped air (freeze faster)
  2. Clear - Glossy, transparent (freeze slower)
  3. Mixed - Combo. of rime and clear ice
  4. Induction - Ice formed in the induction system due to cooling from traveling through the venturi
  5. Structural - The accumulation of ice on the exterior of the a/c
181
Q

What is ODP? When is an ODP created? What format is it provided in?

A
  • Obstacle Departure Procedure, may be flow without ATC clearance
  • Provided textually or graphically
  • Must maintain 200ft/NM climb gradient to get you out of the airspace safely
  • Created when something penetrates the 152ft/NM climb gradient
182
Q

What is the purpose of a STAR?

A
  • Standard Terminal Arrival Route

- To transition IFR a/c from the Enroute segment to a fix within the terminal area where an IAP can be conducted

183
Q

91.121 specifies that a/c should use the current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within ____nm of the a/c

A

100NM

184
Q

What is a SID? When and HOW is a SID published?

A
  • Standard Instrument Departure, need ATC clearance
  • Provided graphically
  • Purpose: To reduce pilot/ATC workload
  • If climb gradient is non-standard it will be noted, gets you to your ROUTE
185
Q

What are the 2 different types of SIDs?

A
  1. Pilot Navigation - Provide your own navigation with minimal ATC assistance
  2. Vectors - ATC assistance based on 400ft above DER before turning
186
Q

What is the purpose of having departure procedures?

A

To provide safe transition and obstacle avoidance from the terminal area to the appropriate en-route structure

187
Q

What type of icing equipment does the C172 have?

A

Anti-Ice: Pitot tube heat!

188
Q

If your instrument currency expires, how do you regain it?

A

Within grace period: Fly with a safety pilot

After grace period: Do an IPC

189
Q

How can you get an IFR clearance at an uncontrolled airport?

A
  • Call FSS over the radio (RCO) before takeoff
  • Call the National Clearance Delivery Line (1-888-766-8267) on the ground
  • Contact Center over the radio when airborne
190
Q

What is the difference between True Course and Magnetic Course?

A

East/West Variation!

TC +/- VAR = MC

191
Q

What does Hold For Release mean?

A

That you can get your clearance, but you cannot leave!

192
Q

What is the Clearance Void Time?

A

The time by which you must be airborne, or else you cannot leave!

193
Q

What documents do you need on-board the a/c for it to be airworthy?

A 
GPS Manuel
MEL
Airworthiness Cert.
Radio License
Registration (Federal/State)
Operating Handbook (POH)
Weight and Balance
194
Q

What are the currency requirements for IFR flight?

A

Within the preceding 6 months:

  • 6 IAPs
  • Intercepting/tracking a course using appropriate navaids
  • Holding
195
Q

What qualifications does your Safety Pilot need to have?

A
  1. Private Pilot’s License
  2. Current Medical
  3. Currency in the category/class you’ll be flying
    - Not required to have instrument rating when in VFR or a CFII
196
Q

What is required by 91.175 to operate an a/c below the DA/DH or MDA?

A
  1. A/c in a continuous position to land on the intended runway
  2. The flight visibility is at or above what is prescribed in the IAP
  3. At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway in sight/identified: Threshold, T-hold Makrings, T-hold Lights, REILs, TDZ/TDZ Markings, TDZ Lights, RWY Markings, RWY Lights
197
Q

What are our takeoff minimums? (Part 91)

A

0 ceiling, 0 visibility

198
Q

Name 12 different types of approaches

A
  1. ILS
  2. GPS
  3. VOR
  4. NDB
  5. No Gyro
  6. ASR
  7. Parallel
  8. Simultaneous
  9. Side-step
  10. Visual
  11. Contact
  12. Option
199
Q

Describe a Visual Approach

A
  • Initiated by ATC or the Pilot
  • NOT an IAP (no missed segment)
  • Separation is provided, obstacle clearance is NOT
    MUST HAVE:
    1. 1000’ ceilings
    2. 3sm vis
    3. Remain clear of clouds
    4. The airport, or the preceding traffic in sight!
200
Q

Describe a Contact Approach

A
  • Refers to visual contact with the ground
  • Initiated by the pilot only
  • Separation is provided, obstacle clearance is NOT
    MUST HAVE:
    1. Reported ground vis of 1sm+
    2. Clear of clouds
    3. ATC Authorization
201
Q

Describe an ASR Approach, where do you find if there is one available? What would you need in order to complete an ASR approach?

A
  • Approach Surveillance Radar
  • Used by approach controllers to descend you to the MDA
  • Provides L/R guidance
  • All you need is 1 COM radio and a compass
  • Found in the front matter of approach plates
202
Q

Describe a No-Gyro Approach

A
  • When you have lost you heading/directional gyro
  • ATC instructs you “Turn R/L” “Stop turning”
  • All turns should be made at standard rate, and hald standard rate once on final approach
  • Most-likely followed by an ASR approach
203
Q

How do you calculate the VDP if one is not provided?

A

Height above TDZE/300

204
Q

How can you identify a Circling-Only IAP?

A 
They will be labeled with letters! 
Ex: 
- RNAV (GPS) Z RWY 13L
- VOR-A
- LOC/DME BC-B
205
Q

Why do we hold?

A
  • Waiting for further clearance
  • Traffic
  • Weather
  • After going missed
206
Q

Circling approach Speeds and Radiuses

A 
A: 0-91 knots, 1.3 nm
B: 91-121 knots, 1.5 nm
C: 121-141 knots, 1.7 nm
D: 141-166 knots, 2.3 nm
E: 166+ knots, 4.5 nm
207
Q

If you are shooting an approach with a MALSR lighting system, what can you expect to see?

A
  • 5 centered single flasher lights (200’ apart) (WHITE)
  • 9 centered light bars (Triple 1000’ from the threshold) (WHITE)
  • 18 lamps along runway threshold (GREEN)
208
Q

If you are shooting an approach with an ALSF-1 lighting system, what can you expect to see?

A
  • Centered ALTERNATING single flasher and bar lights (WHITE)
  • Centered bar lights (Triple bar lights 1000’ from threshold) (WHITE)
  • Staggered (L/C/R) bar lights (RED)
  • 18 lamps along runway threshold (GREEN
209
Q

If you are shooting an approach with an ALSF-2 lighting system, what can you expect to see?

A
  • Centered ALTERNATING single flasher and bar lights (WHITE)
  • Centered bar lights (Triple bar lights 1000’ from threshold) (WHITE)
  • Left/Right bar lights (RED)
  • 18 lamps along runway threshold (GREEN)
210
Q

What types of NOTAMs are important for IFR flight?

A

NOTAM (D): Civil, Gives info on distant airports/airspace
NOTAM (L): Military, Gives info on local airports
FDC NOTAM: Regulatory in nature, changes to an IAP, airway, or TFR

211
Q

IFR 2-way radio communications failure procedures for Route, Altitude and Clearance Limit

A 
*Squawk 7600*
Route:
1. Assigned
2. Vectored
3. Expected
4. Filed
Altitude: (highest)
1. MEA
2. Expected
3. Assigned
Clearance Limit:
- Were you cleared to a fix from which an approach begins?
- Did you recieve an EFC time?
1. Yes/EFC time - commence descent then
2. Yes/NO EFC time - commence descent at filed ETA
3. No/EFC time - leave clearance limit at EFC time, go to a fix where an IAP begins and remain there until your filed ETA
4. No/NO EFC time - get to clearance limit and proceed to a fix where an IAP begins and remain there until your filed ETA
212
Q

What are the 4 parts of an area forecast?

A
  1. Precautionary Statements
  2. Header
  3. Synopsis
  4. Outlook
213
Q

How often are Area Forecasts issued? How long are the valid?

A

3x a day - covers an 18 hour period

214
Q

What does a Radar Summary Report show? When are they issued?

A
  • Echo intensity, movement, and location

- Every hour at :35

215
Q

What does a Radar Summary Chart show?

A
  • Precipitation

IFR Regs/Procs Lab (222) (6 decks)

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