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IFR Regs/Procs Lab (222) > IFR > Flashcards

IFR Flashcards

1
Q

If the static ports were to be iced over, what would the VSI indicate?

A

ZERO! No indication!

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2
Q

As air temperature increases, TAS and True Altitude will ____.

A

Increase!

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3
Q

If the Remote compass is reading 120 and the Magnetic compass is reading 110, how do we adjust the gyro and OBS?

A

Select Free Gyro, and turn OBS CLOCKWISE

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4
Q

What does the MACH meter indicate?

A

The ratio of an a/c’s TAS to the speed of sound

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5
Q

How could you identify and SKIDDING turn on a ball and slip indicator?

A

The ball would be rolled to the OUTSIDE of the turn

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6
Q

How many degrees are represented by full scale deflection off a VOR?

A

10-12 degrees

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7
Q

When executing a VOR check, what should the needles be indicating?

A

TAIL should be pointing to the true radial, HEAD should be pointing to the reciprocal within +/- 4 degrees

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8
Q

When executing a VOT check, what radial should the CDI align with?

A

360, meaning the TAIL should be pointing to 360 and the HEAD to 180

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9
Q

What is the max tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the a/c is directly over the airborne checkpoint?

A

+/- 6 degrees of the designated radial

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10
Q

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because:

A

High AOA and High gross weight

HEAVY AND SLOW!

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11
Q

What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?

A

The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway!

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12
Q

If both the ram air and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected if large power changes are made?

A

Remain CONSTANT in level flight, even during power changes!

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13
Q

What does the mini a/c of the turn coordinator display?

A

First the rate of BANK, and once stable, the rate of TURN

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14
Q

During normal flight with a vacuum driven attitude indicator, control pressures normally should not move the horizon bar more than:

A

One half bar width, with not more than an additional one half bar width from normal flight deviations

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15
Q

What system has malfunctioned if your heading indicator is not moving?

A

Vacuum or electrical system

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16
Q

The loss of an alternator or generator in an a/c with all electronic flight displays is considered to be:

A

An EMERGENCY!

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17
Q

If the ADC is malfunctioning, which information becomes unreliable?

A

PFD ASI, Altimeter, and VSI

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18
Q

When landing on a wet runway, you being to hydroplane. You should:

A

Raise the nose to increase aerodynamic drag

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19
Q

When logging flight time as simulated instrument conditions, what information must be entered in you logbook?

A
  • Location
  • Types of IAPs
  • Name of Safety Pilot
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20
Q

What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?

A

The IAPs may be made in an a/c, approved instrument ground trainer, or any combination of these.

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21
Q

When (where) are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?

A

Class A airspace

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22
Q

A certified commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night OR in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least:

A

An instrument rating in the same category and class of a/c

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23
Q

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway? (In regards to centerline and traffic avoidance)

A

Climb on the center line of the airway except when maneuvering around traffic in VFR conditons

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24
Q

What procedure do you follow if your DME fails at or above FL240

A

Notify ATC of the failure, and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

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25
Q

You should maintain VFR cruising altitudes based on the direction of the:

A

MAGNETIC course

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26
Q

What weather minimums do you need in Class E, during the day, to operate on Special VFR under 1,200’ AGL?

A

1 sm, Clear of Clouds!

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27
Q

For an IFR flight, if the airport of intended destination does NOT have an IAP, are you required to plan fuel for an alternate?

A

YES! Even if the weather is forecast to be VFR!

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28
Q

What is the minimum altitude for IFR flight?

A

2,000’ above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous areas, and 1,000’ above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

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29
Q

Operating in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?

A

Class E with IMC, and Class A

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30
Q

When departing uncontrolled airspace (G) in IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive clearance before entering:

A

ANY CONTROLLED AIRSPACE (A, B, C, D or E)

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31
Q

When making an IAP at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?

A

The PUBLISHED landing minimums for the procedure

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32
Q

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the VASI is in sight?

A

Continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the elctronic GS (minimums do not change)

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33
Q

In mountainous areas, no person may operate an a/c under IFR below 2,000’ above the highest obstacle that is within a horizontal distance of __NM from the course flown.

A

4 NM from the course flown

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34
Q

In the US, an operable transponder equipped with with Mode C is required in all controlled airspace at and above ____

A

10,000’ MSL

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35
Q

If an un-pressurized a/c is operated above 12,500’ MSL and up to 14,000’ MSL for a period of 2 hours and 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental O2?

A

1 hour and 50 minutes, because at that altitude the minimum flightcrew is required to be on O2 for flight lasting more than 30 minutes

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36
Q

A/c being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least:

A

A slip-skid indicator

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37
Q

Where (what altitude) is DME required under IFR?

A

At or above FL240 if VOR navigation equipment is required

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38
Q

What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly without providing passengers with supplemental O2?

A

Up to and INCLUDING 15,000’

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39
Q

What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?

A

Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used

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40
Q

Which publication covers procedures required for a/c accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots

A

NTSB Part 830

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41
Q

Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?

A

A Compass Locator or Precision Radar may be substituted for an ILS outer or middle marker

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42
Q

If the glideslope were to become inoperative during an ILS approach, what minimums would be an appropriate substitution?

A

LOC minimums

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43
Q

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other a/c?

A

When weather conditions premit

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44
Q

You are cleared VFR on Top with a course of 180. What altitude should you fly?

A

An EVEN thousand, plus 500’ (0-179 = ODD, 180-359 = EVEN)

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45
Q

What is the rule prescribed regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an OFF AIRWAY IFR flight over non-mountainous terrain?

A

Remain 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of your course

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46
Q

No person may operate an a/c in controlled airspace under IFR unless they file a flight plan, and:

A

Have received CLEARANCE prior to entering controlled airspace

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47
Q

In what airspace is your a/c required to be equipped with a transponder?

A
  • Class A (a/c must be IFR equipped)
  • Class B (Mode C capability, 4096 with auto pressure reporting)
  • Class C
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48
Q

If you wish to fly into Class B without a transponder, what must you do?

A

Put in a request for the propsed flight to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight

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49
Q

Where are VFR on Top operations prohibited?

A

Class A

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50
Q

What airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

A

Class E extending upward from 700’+ above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace

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51
Q

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

A

700’ AGL or more to the base of the overlaying controlled airspace

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52
Q

What is the floor of Class E airspace when it has been designated in conjunction with an airway?

A

1,200’ AGL!!!

Federal Airways are generally Class E airspace areas that extend from 1,200’ AGL up to but not including 18,000’ MSL

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53
Q

What altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D? What are it’s normal lateral limits?

A
  • 2,500’ AGL

- 4 NM

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54
Q

What is the upper limit for Class A?

A

60,000’ MSL

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55
Q

What altitude is normally the upper limit for Class B?

A

10,000’ MSL

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56
Q

What does declaring “minimum fuel” to ATC imply?

A

An advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible

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57
Q

When ATC has not imposed any climb/descent restrictions and a/c are within 1,000’ of assigned altitudes, both pilot’s should attempt to climb/descend at a rate between:

A

500’-1,500’ per minute

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58
Q

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?

A

Maintain an optimum climb on the center line of the airway w/o intermediate level-offs until 1,000’ below assigned altitude, then 500’-1,500’ per minute

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59
Q

What clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance?

A
  • Destination airport
  • Altitude
  • DP Name
  • Number
  • Transition if appropriate
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60
Q

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though rules had not been violated?

A

When priority had been given

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61
Q

When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC?

A

When requested by the pilot, and conditions are indicated to be suitable

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62
Q

What ATC clearance should instrument pilots request in order to climb through clouds/poor vis and continue the flight VFR?

A

VFR on Top

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63
Q

When on a VFR on Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on:

A

MAGNETIC course

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64
Q

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a non-radar environment?

A

The same reports that are required for any IFR flight

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65
Q

When may a pilot file a composite flight plan? What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?

A
  • Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR

- Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance

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66
Q

Which equipment type determines the code entered into Block 3 as a suffix to the “a/c type/special equip” on the flight plan form?

A

DME, transponder and RNAV

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67
Q

For IFR planning, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

A

Fixes selected to define the route

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68
Q

You are departing a non-towered airport with an IFR clearance containing a void time. If not off by the void time, you must:

A

Advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, or your intentions

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69
Q

When not in radar contact, you should ALWAYS report:

A

Departing the FAF inbound

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70
Q

What should you do if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?

A

Report the malfunction to ATC immediately

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71
Q

Unless otherwise specified, the minimum en route altitude along a Jet Route is:

A

18,000’ MSL

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72
Q

During the en route phase of flight, ATC says “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?

A

Resume normal position reporting

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73
Q

In what situation will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?

A

When the pilot requests it!

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74
Q

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?

A

Automatically when ATC instructs you to contact tower

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75
Q

You are in IMC and have 2-way radio communication failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?

A

Squawk 7600, continue flight on ASSIGNED route, and fly the last ASSIGNED altitude of the MEA, whichever is higher!!

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76
Q

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing a/c will normally be routed to the fix by:

A

An Instrument Departure Procedure, or radar vectors

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77
Q

Which source of info would provide the latest status of airport conditions, like runway closures, lighting, and snow?

A

(D) NOTAMs

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78
Q

What airspace exists from the surface to 1,200’ AGL, BELOW the Federal Airways

A

Uncontrolled airspace, making it Class G (Federal Airways are Class E)

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79
Q

How can a pilot determine if a GPS is approved for IFR flight?

A

Flight Manual Supplement!

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80
Q

To operate under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to:

A

Entering controlled airspace, including Class A.

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81
Q

When filling out a flight plan for a composite flight plan, you should:

A

Check both VFR and IFR

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82
Q

What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly w/o using supplemental O2 after 30 minutes?

A

12,500’

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83
Q

What are the supplemental O2 requirements of an un-pressurized a/c AT 15,000’?

A

The CREW must use O2 for the entire time above 14,000’

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84
Q

It has been a month since you flew as PIC in IFR. Assuming you do not fly anymore, how long until you need to have an IPC to act as PIC in IFR?

A

5 CALENDAR MONTHS***

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85
Q

On an IFR flight plan from KDAL to KSAT (2 hour ETE), the weather requires you to file an alternate that is 20 minutes from KSAT. You require a minimum fuel supply of _:__

A

3:05

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86
Q

When operating under IFR, you must track the centerline of an ATC assigned airway except for when you are:

A

Executing shallow clearing turns while climbing in VMC

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87
Q

Immediate changes in flight data affecting IAPs, aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions are provided by:

A

FDC NOTAMs

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88
Q

You are given “CRUISE 7,000 FT” in you ATC clearance. The IFR route in your clearance has an MEA of 5,000’ so this clearance authorizes you to:

A
  • Cruise at any intermediate altitude between 7,000’ and the MEA
  • The term “Cruise” may be used instead of “Maintain” to assign a block of airspace
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89
Q

If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological values should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?

A

Ground vis of 1/2 SM

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90
Q

1/2 SM ground vis = ____ RVR

A

2,400

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91
Q

How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000?

A

Set the altimeter to 29.92

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92
Q

What altitude is indicated when altimeter is set to 29.92?

A

PRESSURE altitude

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93
Q

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicated height above:

A

The standard datum plane

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94
Q

What is the normal glidepath for a 2-bar and 3-bar VASI?

A

3.00 degrees

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95
Q

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will:

A

Constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

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96
Q

The Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of:

A

A single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path (red, green, and amber)

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97
Q

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the NEAR bar as:

A

WHITE, and the far bar as red

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98
Q

If an a/c is on a glidepath higher than 3.5 degrees, what will the PAPI look like?

A

ALL WHITE (normal glidepath = 3 degrees)

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99
Q

If an a/c is on a glidepath lower than 2.5 degrees, what will the PAPI look like?

A

ALL RED (normal glidepath = 3 degrees)

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100
Q

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

A

REIL

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101
Q

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

A

Arrows leading to the threshold mark

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102
Q

What night operations are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?

A

Taxi and takeoff operations, provided the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights

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103
Q

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes above 1,500’?

A

IFR LOW Altitude En Route Charts

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104
Q

A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to:

A

Vacate 4,000’ w/o notifying ATC

105
Q

How many degrees are represented by each “clock” direction?

A

30 degrees…..12 x 30 = 360

106
Q

ATC advises “Traffic 2 o’clock,” while you are holding a 20 crosswind correction to the right. Where do you look for the traffic?

A

40 degrees to the right of the a/c’s nose

107
Q

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and no control tower/FSS station?

A

By radio or telephone to any FSS or ATC facility once you’re on the ground

108
Q

When may a pilot cancel IFR prior to completing the flight?

A

Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A

109
Q

Which types of airspace are depicted on En Route LOW Altitude Charts?

A

Limitations of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace

110
Q

For IFR operations off established airways below FL180, VOR navaids used to define the “route of flight” should be no more than ___ NM apart

A

80 NM

111
Q

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding patter?

A

When over OR abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs LATER

112
Q

When a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within:

A

The 1 minute time limit or specified DME distance

113
Q

When more than 1 circuit of the holding pattern is needed to prepare for the IAP, additional circuits can be executed only if:

A

The pilot advises ATC and they approve

114
Q

Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

A

When they deem it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR”

115
Q

While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92 in your area. At what PRESSURE altitude are you flying?

A

25,000’ (When your altimeter is set to 29.92, it is already indicating PRESSURE altitude!)

116
Q

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?

A

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for shot intervals

117
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic and terrain?

A

Makes them look FARTHER than they actually are

118
Q

What does “resume own navigation” imply

A

You should navigate as filed or cleared/resume responsibility for you own navigation

119
Q

The MEA ensures:

A

Acceptable navigation signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements

120
Q

Acceptable navigation signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance of only ___ NM from the VOR

A

22 NM

121
Q

What does an inverted H in the corner of a nav box indicate?

A

That HIWAS is available

122
Q

What is the function of RCO?

A

Provide a Remote communications outlet for that FSS station

123
Q

Within a/c movement areas, ‘destination signs’ identify the:

A

Direction to specified destinations

124
Q

The ‘runway threshold bar’ marking indicates:

A

Beginning of runway available for landing

125
Q

In IFR, and abrupt head movement during a turn can trigger what illusion?

A

Coriolis Illusion

126
Q

Roll upsets caused by ice accumulations forward of the ailerons can be remedied by:

A

Reducing AOA by reducing airspeed or extending flaps with level wings

127
Q

If you experience icing during an approach, you should:

A

Retract flap as needed and disengage autopilot

128
Q

How can you be sure the wing is free of ice?

A

Conduct a tactile and visual inspection

129
Q

During or after flight in icing conditions, you experience vibrating/buffeting following flap deployment. This is most likely due to:

A

Incipient tail plane stall as a result of negative tail plane angle after flap deployment

130
Q

What is true regarding Supercooled Liquid Droplets?

A
  • SLD can occur aloft w/o any precipitation

- They Splash and Splatter below +5 degrees C

131
Q

Residual ice, after cycling of the deicing boots, will:

A

INCREASE as ASI or temperature DECREASE

132
Q

What is true regarding ice accumulation and its characteristics?

A

Ice on the wings is undetectable and will reduce lift/performance

133
Q

Where will the pilot first notice ice accumulations?

A

Air temp probe …. pitot tube

134
Q

Which NOTAMs are included in the FAA Notice to Airman Publications (NTAP)?

A

All permanent NOTAMs

135
Q

In a/c equipped with an MFD, the substitute display or the backup instrument mode is known as the:

A

Faildown or Standby instrument

136
Q

What type of emergency represents an “urgency” condition?

A

Poor weather at primary destination and a concern about not having enough fuel to reach the alternate

137
Q

When ATC clears you for a descent, you should:

A

Begin the descent at an optimum rate consistent with a/c performance

138
Q

What does an * symbol next to a tower frequency represent?

A

Part-time tower operations

139
Q

In low visibility conditions, why are certain intersections circled in color?

A

To indicate well known hazardous spots on airport

140
Q

How would you properly report level at 21,000’ MSL to ATC?

A

“level at two one zero”

141
Q

Who may update an installed GPS device?

A

A pilot

142
Q

A displaced threshold will:

A

Decrease available landing distance

143
Q

When VFR on Top, what altitude can you select?

A

Any altitude

144
Q

What is the purpose of Class E airspace transitions from en route to the terminal area for IFR operations?

A

Provides controlled airspace to contain IAPs

145
Q

Oh what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360 turn with a bank of approx. 15 degrees?

A

90 and 270

146
Q

If RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, you must:

A

Covert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility

147
Q

What point should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

A

The point of 1st intended landing

148
Q

A VOR receiver with normal 5-dot course sensitivity shows a 3-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. How far off course is the a/c?

A 
3 NM 
(60-1 rule....@ 60 NM from the station each dot = 2 degrees, so @ 30 NM from the station, each dot = 1 degree)
149
Q

What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

A

The pull of the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field

150
Q

When an a/c is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precedes and incorrectly indicate a:

A

Climb! (And deceleration would indicate a descent)

151
Q

What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

A

The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes

152
Q

What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

A

After 5 mins, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the a/c and check for proper alignment after taxi turns

153
Q

As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, what instruments are primary for pitch, bank and power respectively?

A

Pitch: Altimeter
Bank: Heading Indicator
Power: Manifold/Tachometer

154
Q

For maintaining level flight at a constant thrust, which instrument would be the LEAST appropriate for determining the need for pitch change?

A

Attitude indicator

155
Q

The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?

A

Power only

156
Q

What instruments are primary for pitch, bank and power when TRANSITIONING/ENTERING into a constant airspeed climb from straight and level?

A

Pitch: ATTITUDE
Bank: Heading
Power: Manifold/Tachometer

157
Q

What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?

A

Airspeed!

158
Q

What percent of the VSI should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb/descent?

A

10 percent!!

159
Q

To level off at a higher airspeed than the descent speeds, when should additional power be added?

A

100-150 feet above the desired altitude to be leveled off at

160
Q

To MAINTAIN the airspeed from a descent once leveled off, the pilot should lead the desire altitude by ___ feet.

A

50 feet

161
Q

What is the primary BANK instrument once a standard rate turn is established?

A

Turn coordinator

162
Q

What is the primary PITCH instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn?

A

ALTIMETER

163
Q

What is the initial primary and supporting bank instrument when establishing a level standard rate turn?

A

Primary: Attitude indicator
Supporting: Turn Coordinator

164
Q

While recovering from unusual flight attitudes w/o the authorize indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reach when:

A

ASI and ALTIMETER stop their movement prior to reversal, and VSI trend is reversed

165
Q

If an a/c’s attitude indicator tumbles while in unusual flight attitudes, what instrument should be relied on to determine pitch?

A

ASI and Altimeter

166
Q

During standard rate turns, which instrument is considered to be primary for bank?

A

Turn slip indicator or turn coordinator

167
Q

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by full scale deflection of the CDI?

A

10 degrees

168
Q

When using VOR navigation what is considered to indicate the passage of the station?

A

The first positive, complete reversal of the TO/FR indicator

169
Q

What angular deflection from a VOR is represented by 1/2 scale CDI deflection?

A

5 degrees!

170
Q

After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale defection. What is the indication if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?

A

The a/c is flying away from the radial

171
Q

As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?

A

10-20 degrees

172
Q

DME is usable:

A

1 or more miles away from each 1,000’ above the facility

173
Q

When tracking inbound on the localizer, what is the proper procedure regarding drift correction?

A

Drift correction should be established before the OM, followed by heading corrections no greater than 2 degrees

174
Q

Why is it best to avoid thunderstorms in the dissipating stage?

A

Downdrafts

175
Q

Frontal waves normally form on:

A

Slow moving cold fronts and stationary fronts?

176
Q

Which is a characteristics of LLWS as it relates to low level temp inversions?

A

Allow airspeed to go above normal climb and approach speed??

177
Q

When are severe weather watch (WW) bulletins issued?

A

Unscheduled and issued as required??

178
Q

You’re navigating on an IFR flight using GPS with RAIM. You lose RAIM, what do you do?

A

Report loss of RAIM to ATC and continue navigating while actively monitoring alternate means of nav????

179
Q

What weather phenomenon poses the greatest hazards to a/c when operating near thunderstorms?

A

Lightning??

180
Q

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on:

A

Air temperature!!!

181
Q

Weather variations result from:

A

Heating over the Earth’s surface???

182
Q

If while on an IAP, approach control advises you of inop equipment, you must:

A

Increase minimums to that of the inoperative equipment

183
Q

What is the relationship between winds at 2,000’ AGL and winds at the surface?

A

The winds at 2,000’ tend to parallel the isobars, while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker

184
Q

Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate:

A

Turbulence at and below the cloud level???

185
Q

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

A

Abrupt change in temp lapse rate??

186
Q

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

A

It changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil??

Causes early airflow desperation and loss of lift?

187
Q

While airborne, what is the max variation between the 2 indicated bearings when checking 1 VOR system against another?

A

Idk

188
Q

Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?

A

Slant range distance in NM

189
Q

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distances to the VORTAC

A

High altitudes close to the VORTAC

190
Q

For operations off established airways at 17,000’ MSL H class VORTAC facilities used to define the route should be no farther than ____ NM

A

200 NM

191
Q

What is the meaning of a single coded ID received only once every 30 seconds (1350 Hz) from a VORTAC?

A

The DME component is operative and the VOR component is INoperative

192
Q

DME may be used in lieu of ___ on an ILS

A

OM

193
Q

What is the difference between the SDF and LDA facility? (width)

A 
SDF = course width 6 OR 12 degrees
LDA = course width approx. 5 degrees
194
Q

What is the difference between LDA/SDF and an ILS localizer?

A

LDA/SDF are not aligned with the runway

195
Q

What range facility on an ILS is identified by the LAST 2 letters of the localizer ID group?

A

MIDDLE compass locator (just 2 letter coded signal = Compass Locator)

196
Q

What height is the glideslope at the MM on an ILS?

A

200’

197
Q

Unauthorized IFR GPS may be used in IFR flight to:

A

Aid in situational awareness

198
Q

During IFR en route and terminal operations using GPS for navigation, ground based navigation facilities:

A

Must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage

199
Q

If there is a control tower and an FSS located at the airport, what service does FSS provide when the tower is closed?

A

Airport Advisory Service

200
Q

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

A

When departing from a runway intersection

201
Q

What is one condition required before “timed approaches from a holding fix” may be conducted?

A

If more than 1 missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal

202
Q

What is true regarding STARs

A

They are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures

203
Q

If you execute the missed approach before reaching the DA/MDA, you must:

A

Fly to the MAP at or above DA/MDA before making any turns

204
Q

How much separation between a/c is provided on Parallel ILS approaches

A

1 1/2 miles

205
Q

Where may you use a surveillance approach?

A

At airports for which civil radar IAP minimums have been published

206
Q

What are the weather minimums to request a Contact Approach?

A

1sm flight vis, Clear of Clouds

207
Q

At what point is a pilot expected to execute a sidestep maneuver?

A

As soon as possible after the runway/rwy environment is in sight

208
Q

Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?

A

Attitude Indicator, Altimeter and VSI

209
Q

Failure of the Attitude Indicator and Heading would indicate:

A

A vacuum system system failure

210
Q

To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be:

A

Increased if the ground speed is increased??

211
Q

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that:

A

The ceiling is more than 5,000 ft and visibility is 5 miles or more

212
Q

Where can wind shear associated with thunderstorms be found?

A

On all sides of the thunderstorm and directly under??

213
Q

Hazardous weather meeting AIRMET or SIGMET criteria:

A

Must be used in conjunction with the FA to dermine hazardous weather info for the flight???

214
Q

‘VRB’ indicates winds are:

A

6 knots of less

215
Q

“WND” in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be:

A

Sustained surface wind speed of 20 knots or stonger

216
Q

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter!

217
Q

Your gyroscopic heading indicator has failed. You are flying heading 180 and you turn right to heading 270. As you begin the turn, you can expect the magnetic compass to:

A

Indicate a turn to the right!

218
Q

What conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?

A

Clear skies, little/no wind, small temperature/dew point spread over land

219
Q

Which is true concerning airplane structural icing?

A

Airplane tailplane is a better ice collector than the wings??

220
Q

A/c operating under IFR with TSO-C129/C196 GPS for en route navigation must also have:

A

The required navigation equipment for the flight

221
Q

When using a TSO-C129/C196 GPS for en route navigation and IAPs, any required ALTERNATE airports must have:

A

An approved operational IAP other than GPS

222
Q

Structural icing will most likely form on the:

A

TAIL

223
Q

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

A

REIL!!!!!

224
Q

A characteristic of the stratosphere is:

A

Relatively small changes in temp with an increase in altitude??

225
Q

Why is there a note stating a temp limitation for executing this approach with Baro-VNAV equpment?

A

The decision altitude and final approach segment height above obstacles or terrain is unsafe when temps are lower than charter

226
Q

The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate:

A

Vis less than 3 miles and/or ceiling less than 1,000’

227
Q

Prior to using a GPS procedure or waypoint, the pilot should verify the validity of the database by:

A

Determining that the waypoints and transition names coincide with the names found on the procedure chart

228
Q

When approach a fly-by waypoint/fix, you must:

A

Use turn anticipation to avoid over-flying the fix

229
Q

Which condition is favorable when you experience supercooled large droplet icing?

A

Ice can splash on structure below +5 degrees C

230
Q

Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment is not in sight?

A

When you reach the established approach point and determine visibility is less than 1/2 mile

231
Q

Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight and level flight?

A

ALTIMETER

232
Q

The ‘runway hold position’ sign denotes:

A

An entrance to a runway from a taxiway

233
Q

A Contact Approach is an approach procedure that may be used in lieu of:

A

Conducting a SIAP

234
Q

In the 2 months predeing your IFR flight you have logged 3 IAPs, intercepting and tracking courses and holding in an aviation training device. What else is required?

A

3 IAPs and UNUSUAL ATTITUDES in an aviation training device

235
Q

If RAIM is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should:

A

Select another type of navigation and approach system

236
Q

If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting “timed approaches from a holding fix”?

A

The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP

237
Q

What information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide w/o request during an ASR approach?

A

When to commence descent to MDA, the a/c’s position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP

238
Q

When may a pilot make a straight-in landing if using an IAP having only circling minimums?

A

A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land!

239
Q

During a “no-gyro” approach and PRIOR to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns:

A

Standard rate unless otherwise advised

240
Q

After being handed off to the final approach controller during a “no-gyro” approach, the pilot should make all turns:

A

One half standard rate

241
Q

How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000’?

A

ATC periodically advises the proper altimeter setting

242
Q

What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?

A

UPsloping runways!!

243
Q

An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of:

A

Tumbling backwards

244
Q

What does the RVR value depicted on some straight in IAP charts represent?

A

The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving a/c

245
Q

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?

A

A procedure turn is not authorized

246
Q

How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?

A

IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box

247
Q

Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

A

Use the highest minimum required by any SINGLE component that is unusable

248
Q

Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn/slip indicator to determine if the:

A

Needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid

249
Q

What indications should you observe on the turn/slip indicator during taxi?

A

The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the DIRECTION of the turn

250
Q

An a/c that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microbust of:

A

90 knots

251
Q

If squalls are reported at you destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?

A

Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting at least 1 minutes

252
Q

The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of:

A

SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, AWW, and Center Weather Advisories

253
Q

Distance from the TDZ marker to the FIxed Marker (1,000’ Marker) is:

A

1,000’

254
Q

The general charcteristic of the Troposphere is:

A

Temp DECREASES as altitude INCREASES

255
Q

What is a characteristic of stable air?

A

Stratiform Clouds

256
Q

Winds at 5,000’ on a particular flight are southwesterly while surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is due to:

A

Friction between the wind and the surface

257
Q

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

A

STANDARD AIR TEMPERATURE

258
Q

What should be the indication on the MC when you roll into a turn to the left from a southerly heading?

A

Compass will indicate a large change to an easterly heading AHEAD of the a/c’s heading

IFR Regs/Procs Lab (222) (6 decks)

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