SS25 Opioid Agonist-Antagonists & Antagonists (Exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary indication for opioid agonist-antagonists?

A
  • Used if unable to tolerate full agonist
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2
Q

Name the four advantages of opioid agonist-antagonists.

A
  • Analgesia
  • Less respiratory depression (better for COPD, Obesity, diff. airway)
  • Low dependence potential
  • Ceiling effect
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3
Q

Generalized SE of opioid agonist-antagonists.

A
  • same as morphine + dysphoric reactions (ie: fear of impending death)
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4
Q

Sigma (σ) receptors are associated with what side effect?

A

Dysphoria

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5
Q

What is the ceiling effect?

A
  • prevents additional (ie: OD)
  • Drug impacts on body plateaus
  • Higher doses do not increase its effects
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6
Q

Which receptors do opioid agonist-antagonists?

A
  • μ - partial agonist effect or no effect (competitive antagonist)
    κ & σ - partial agonist effect
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7
Q

What receptors does pentazocine bind to?
What type of activity does it exhibit?

A
  • κ & δ receptor partial agonist activity
  • weak antagonistic effects
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8
Q

How potent is Pentazocine?

A
  • 1/5 (20%) as potent as Nalorphine
  • Nalorphine equally potent to Morphine
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9
Q

Pentazocine: Pharmacokinetics
- First pass?
- E1/2?
- Excretion?

A
  • Hepatic: HIGH (80%)
    - only 20% enters circulation
  • E1/2: 2 - 3 hrs
  • Glucoronide conjugates in the urine
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10
Q

Pentazocine:
- Chronic pain dose IV, IM, & PO?
-Which opioid agonist is the PO dose equal to?
- Which opioid agonist is the IM dose equal?

A
  • IV: 10 - 30mg
  • PO: 50 mg (= Codeine 60 mg PO)
  • IM: 20-30mg (= 10mg of morphine)
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11
Q

T/F: Epidural analgesia administration of Pentazocine has a shorter duration than Morphine.

A
  • True
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12
Q

Pentazocine SE:

A
  • increased HR, BP, PAP, LVEDP
    -sedation
    -diaphoresis
    -dysphoria (at high doses)
  • dizziness
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13
Q

Which opioid agonist-antagonist crosses the placental barrier causing fetal depression?

A

Pentazocine

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14
Q

What receptors does Butorphanol (Stadol) bind to?
-What responses are elicited?

A
  • κ = (moderate affinity) analgesia & anti-shivering
  • μ (low affinity) - low antagonism
  • σ (low affinity) - low dysphoria
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15
Q

Potency of Butorphanol

A
  • Agonistic: 20x > Pentazocine
    -Antagonistic: 10 - 30 x > Pentazocine
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16
Q

By what route is Butorphanol rapidly and completely absorbed?

A
  • IM
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17
Q

Butorphanol:
PostOp IM dose:
Indications:

A
  • PostOp: 2 - 3 mg IM
  • Use: Typically post op pain, anti-shivering, migraines
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18
Q

2 to 3 mg of butorphanol is equivalent to _____ mg of morphine.
- Why is this clinically significant?

A
  • 10 mg
  • Ventilation depression
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19
Q

Butorphanol:
- Metabolism?
- E1/2?
- Excretion?

A
  • E1/2: 2.5 -3.5 hrs
  • Metabolism: Hepatic
  • Excretion: Bile > urine
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20
Q

Butorphanol SE:

A
  • same typical side effects: sedation, nausea, diaphoresis, dysphoria (less frequent), vent depression, wdl symptoms,** increased HR, BP, PAP,CO**
  • may difficult to use with other opioid agonist
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21
Q

What drug is an excellent choice for cardiac catheterization patients?
- Why?

A
  • Nalbuphine
  • No increase in BP, PAP, HR, or atrial filling pressures
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22
Q

What receptors does Nalbuphine bind to?
- How potent is it?

A
  • μ receptor agonist
  • Equally potent to morphine (10 mg = 10 mg)
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23
Q

What’s Nalbuphine antagonistic potency?

A
  • 1/4th as potent as Nalorphine
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24
Q

Nalbuphine:
- Metabolism?
- E1/2?
- SE?

A
  • Liver
  • 3 - 6 hrs
  • sedation, dysphoria, wdl symptoms
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25
Q

What receptor(s) does Buprenorphine agonizes?
-What is the analgesic potency?

A
  • μ receptor agonist
  • Affinity 50x > Morphine
  • 0.3 mg IM = 10 mg Morphine
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26
Q

Buprenorphine:
- Onset?
- Duration?

A
  • Onset: 30 mins
  • Duration: 8 hrs (slow dissociation from receptors = prolonged resistance to Naloxone)
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27
Q

Buprenorphine SE:

A
  • drowsiness, N/V, low abuse risk, ventilation depression, pulmonary edema
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28
Q

What is buprenorphine’s greatest use?
- Other uses?

A
  • Opioid use disorder (has low risk of abuse)
  • Post op, cancer, renal colic (stones), MI, epidurals
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29
Q

Which two drugs have resistance to naloxone?

A
  • Buprenorphine and Bremazocine.
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30
Q

Which opioid has high incidence of dysphoria and is therefore not utilized clinically?

A

Nalorphine (σ receptor)

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31
Q

Place the following opioid agonist-antagonist in order of potency to Morphine (low to high).

A
  1. Meptazinol
  2. Pentazocine
  3. Nalorphine = Nalbuphine = Morphine
  4. Dezocine
  5. Bremazocine
  6. Buprenorphine
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32
Q

Dezocine:
Receptors?
CV effects?
IM dose?
Onset?

A
  • μ δ
  • No CV effects
  • 10 -15 mg IM rapid absorption
  • Onset 15 mins
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33
Q

Meptazinol:
Receptors?
CV effects?
IM dose?
Onset?

A
  • mu 1
  • lowest affinity
  • Duration = 2 hrs
  • Protein binding: 25%
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34
Q

Which drugs are pure μ-opioid receptor antagonists?

A
  • Naloxone
  • Naltrexone
  • Nalmefene
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35
Q

T/F: All opioid antagonist are competitive
-Why is this?

A
  • True
  • High affinity for all opioid receptors
  • Bumps the opioid all, binds to receptor, and inhibits activation
36
Q

What receptors is naloxone effective on?

A
  • Nonselective μ, κ, δ
37
Q

Naloxone uses (5)

A
  • Neonate (wdl from mom)
  • Hypovolemic/ septic (↑ CO)
  • Antagonism of general anesthesia at high doses (Physostigmine better)
  • PostOp opioid-induced depression ( must be diluted)
  • Opioid OD
  • Detect dependence (abuser would go into wdls after reversal)
38
Q

Naloxone:
- Duration of action (DOA)?
- Metabolism?
- E1/2?
- 1st pass?
- SE?

A
  • DOA = 30 - 45 mins
  • Metabolism: Liver via glucuronic acid
  • E1/2 = 60- 90 mins
  • 1st pass= Hepatic 20% PO
  • SE: reversal of analgesia, N/V, ↑ SNS, pulm edema, risk for dysrhythmias (ie: VFib) push slow 2 - 3 mins
39
Q

Naloxone Dosages depends on indication:
- IV push?
- Continuous infusion?
- Shock?
- Epidural side effects?

A
  • IV: 1-4 mcg/kg
  • Infusion: 5 mcg/kg b/c DOA
  • Shock: > 1 mg/kg
  • 0.25 mcg/kg/hr
40
Q

Which opioid partial agonists have an effect on MAC?

A
  • Pentazocine
  • Butorphanol
  • Nalbuphine
41
Q

Naltrexone:
- Use
- Duration
- Most effective route

A
  • Alcoholism
  • 24 hr duration
  • PO = most effective
42
Q

Nalmefene:
- Potency compared to naloxone
What is it’s dose, max, & half life?

A
  • Equipotent to naloxone
  • 15 - 25 mcg IV q 2 - 5 mins (max of 1 mcg/kg)
  • E1/2: 10.8 hrs
43
Q

Methylnaltrexone:
- Use
- Is it highly ionized or nonionized? How is this clinically significant?

A
  • Promotes gastric emptying and antagonizes N/V
  • highly ionized (quaternary): Peripheral pain (CRTZ zone - ↓ N/V )
  • No CNS alteration of analgesia
44
Q

Alvimopan:
- receptor and route?
- use
- metabolized
Long term complications?

A
  • μ-selective PO peripheral opioid antagonist for post-op ileus.
  • Metabolism: Gut flora
  • Long - term CV events
45
Q

Which agonist-antagonist has 50 times greater μ receptor affinity than morphine?

A

Buprenorphine

46
Q

What are the tamper/abuse-resistant opioid formulations?

A
  • Suboxone (buprenorphine + naloxone)
  • Embeda (long-release morphine + naltrexone)
  • OxyNal (Oxycodone + Naltrexone)
47
Q
  • Which opioids-agonists have a significant effect on volatiles?
    (Think RAFS)
  • What do they do?
A
  • What do they do?: Decreases anesthetic requirements (↓ MAC)
  • Remifentanil: ↓ MAC 50 - 91%
  • Alfentanil: ↓ MAC up to 70%
  • Fentanyl: ↓ MAC Isoflurane and Desflurane 50%
  • Sufentanil: ↓ MAC Enflurane 70 - 90%

Close CV monitoring. Don’t think percentages are important

48
Q

Per lecture, what dose of Fentanyl affects MAC?

A
  • 3 μg/kg IV 25 - 30 min prior to incision
49
Q
  • Which opioids-agonist-Antagonist effect volatiles?
    (Think BNP)
A
  • Butorphanol (11%)
  • Nalbuphine (8%)
  • Pentazocine (20%)
50
Q

PCA MORPHINE:
- Bolus
- Basal
- Bolus interval

A
  • 1 - 2 mg
  • 0 - 2 mg/hr
  • 6 -10 mins
51
Q

PCA Hydromorphone:
- Bolus
- Basal
- Bolus interval

A
  • 0.2 - 0.4 mg
  • 0 - 0.4 mg/hr
  • 6 - 10 mins
52
Q

PCA Fentanyl:
- Bolus
- Basal
- Bolus interval

A
  • 20 - 50 mcg
  • 0 - 60 mcg/hr
  • 5 - 10 mins
53
Q

PCA basal rates are not typically recommended for opioid- ____- patients

54
Q

Ketamine has analgesic effects with doses greater than _____%.

55
Q

Where are receptors targeted with opioid neuraxial anesthesia (epidural/spinal)?

A
  • Opioid receptors of the substantia gelatinosa (Lamina II).
  • Used for acute and chronic pain
  • No sympathectomy, sensory block, or weakness/motor block
56
Q

Epidural space is vascular. How do we confirm we are not in epidural vein?

57
Q

Epidural space is a _____ space.

58
Q

How much air can be put into epidural space?

A
  • 3 cc (reabsorbed)
59
Q

What is general rule of dosing for epidural v spinal opioids?

A
  • Dose = 5 - 10 x more than spinal dose
60
Q

Diffusion of opioids across the _____ results in systemic absorption.

61
Q

Epidural uptake includes ___ & ___.

A
  • fat; epidural venous plexus
62
Q

Goal for epidural uptake:

A
  • Opiate or LA (local anesthetic) to diffuse across dura into CSF, bathe spinal cord, and enter dorsal horn (Lamina II)
63
Q

Where can opioids be injected during an epidural that results in systemic absorption?
What should be done if this occurs?

A
  • Epidural venous plexus
  • Epinephrine + -caine drug (Epi wash) -keeps drug in epidural space
    Neo also clinically indicated
64
Q

What is Cephalad movement (in regards to epidurals)?

A

Cephalad Movement = the movement of drug up the spinal cord towards the brain

65
Q

What drug attribute decreases cephalad movement?

A
  • High Lipid solubility
  • High to low: Sufentanil&raquo_space;> Fentanyl&raquo_space; Morphine
66
Q

________ exhibits much more cephalad movement than __________.
Why is this?

A
  • Morphine; Fentanyl/Sufentanil
  • Why? Fentanyl & Sufentanil are highly lipid soluble = less cephalad movement towards brain
    -Morphine is less lipid-soluble = more cephalad movement via CSF bulk flow
67
Q

What factors can cause cephalad movement?

A
  • Coughing/ straining (Valsalva)
  • Drug baracity
  • Body position
68
Q

What caution must you take using Valsalva maneuver to induce cephalad movement?

A
  • Risk for unintended high spinal → activates cardiac accelerators → cardiac arrest
69
Q

What is drug baracity?

A
  • Determines how the drug spreads in relation to density
  • High density: Hyperbaric = follows gravity and sinks (settles towards dependent area)
  • Low density: Hypobaric = rises against gravity and floats towards non-dependent area
  • Isobaric: remains at level (ie: Abd. procedures)
70
Q

What LA baracity would affect the R hip of a patient positioned on the L lateral side?

A
  • Hypobaracity; Needs to float up to right him
71
Q

When would epidural CSF levels peak for the following drugs:
- Fentanyl
- Sufentanil
- Morphine

A
  • Fentanyl - 20 mins
  • Sufentanil - 6 mins
  • Morphine - 1 - 4 hrs
72
Q

Which opioid agonist typically used for walking epidurals in OB?

A
  • Sufentanil
73
Q

When would epidural administered plasma levels peak for the following drugs:
- Fentanyl
- Sufentanil
- Morphine

A
  • Fentanyl - 5 - 10 mins
  • Sufentanil - < 5 mins (crosses dura rapidly)
  • Morphine - 10 - 15 min
74
Q

When would intrathecal/cervical administered CSF levels peak for the following drugs:
- Fentanyl
- Sufentanil
- Morphine

A
  • Fentanyl - minimal
  • Sufentanil - minimal
  • Morphine - 1 - 5 hours (via CSF bulk flow)
75
Q

If your patient goes apneic during intrathecal dose, which opioid agonist might have caused this? What part of cord is affected?

A
  • Morphine
  • C3 - C5 (phrenic nerve)
76
Q

Where do we want all spinal anesthetics to go?

A
  • T8 (lower rib cage) per Castillo
77
Q

What is T1 - T4?

A
  • Cardiac accelerators
78
Q

Anatomical point of T4?

79
Q

If given spinal with Lido, what CV effects do you expect to see?
- What can you do pre-op to help prevent this?

A
  • Decrease BP Increase HR
  • 500 cc - 1 L bolus
  • goal SBP > 140 typically
80
Q

What is the most common side effect from neuraxial opioid administration?
Why does this occur?

A
  • Pruritus - face, neck, upper chest
  • Cephalad migration to trigeminal nucleus
  • Prevalent in OB, elderly
81
Q

What are the treatments for neuraxial- induced pruritus?
(Think PANG)

A
  • Naloxone 0.25 mcg/kg/hr IV)
  • Antihistamines
    -Gabapentin
  • Propofol 10 - 20 mg (GABA-a; risk for loss of airway reflexes)
82
Q

Other SE:
- CNS
- Pulmonary
- GI/GU:
- Viral:
- Fetal:

A
  • CNS: Sedation :) , Skeletal muscle rigidity; sz-like (rare)
  • Pulmonary: Resp depression
  • GI: N/V
  • GU: Urine retention (males; sacral interaction affects PNS outflow)
  • Viral: Herpes virus reactivation
  • Fetal: Neonatal Morbidity (No breastfeeding for 24 hrs)
83
Q

What sign would indicate respiratory depression from neuraxial opioid administration?

What is the treatment?

A
  • ↓LOC from ↑CO₂ (hypercarbia)
  • Early: w/in 2 hrs; Late: 6 - 12 hrs post
  • Naloxone 0.25 μg/kg/hr IV
84
Q

If neuraxial opioids induced a reemergence of a herpes virus, how long would this occur after opioid administration?

A
  • 2 - 5 days after epidural opioid
85
Q

Other words for spinal neuraxial opioid block:

A
  • Intrathecal, Subarachnoid