SS25 Induction Drugs (Barbs & Propofol) (Exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is MAC?

A
  • Monitored Anesthesia Care
  • Also known as Conscious sedation or Procedural Sedation
  • Combo of sedatives & analgesics to depress LOC for patient’s to be able to tolerate unpleasant procedures & surgeons to perform effectively
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 5 components of General Anesthesia (GA)?
(MAASH)

A
  • Hypnosis, analgesia, muscle relaxation, sympatholysis, amnesia

High dose Propofol has all of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What organs utilize the most blood supply?
What organs utilize the least?
What organs are in between these two groups?

A
  • Vessel-rich group = 75% CO (brain, heart, liver, kidneys)
  • Skeletal muscles & skin = 18% CO
  • Fat = 5% CO
  • Vessel poor group (Bone, tendons, cartilage, skin, hair, nails) = 2% CO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F: All anesthetics go to vessel-rich group.

A
  • True (esp. induction)
  • A part of 75% CO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When the drug is administered via CVC, does it travel through cardiopulmonary circuit or systemic circuit first?

A
  • cardiopulmonary circuit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the stages of general anesthesia (GA)?

A
  • Stage 1: Analgesia
  • Stage 2: Delirium
  • Stage 3: Surgical Anesthesia
  • Stage 4: Medullary paralysis (all of ALL reflexes (CNS/CV), severe hypotension, death)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe Stage 1: Anesthesia

A
  • Begins with initiation of an anesthetic agent and ends with LOC
  • Lightest level of anesthesia
  • sensory and mental depression
  • able to open their eyes on command, breathe normal, maintain reflexes, tolerate mild stimuli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If stage 1 anesthesia is maintained, what is it called?

A
  • Conscious sedation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the four upper airway reflexes are we suppressing during stage 1 anesthesia?

A
  • Sneezing, Coughing, Swallowing, and Gagging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

During induction, when would one most likely see laryngospasm?

A
  • Stage 2
  • danger zone; violent/ exaggerated responses
  • Starts with LOC to the onset of automatic rhythmicity of VS
    -CV instability excitement, dysconjugate ocular movements, emesis
  • rapid stage!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What population may have a prolonged stage 2 and why?

A
  • Pedis
  • Inhaled induction takes longer for LOC and autonomicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During emergence, when would one most likely need to be re-intubated?

A
  • Stage 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which stage would we like to extubate in?

A

Stage 1: Able to protect airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristics of Stage 3:

A
  • Absence of response to surgical incision
  • depression of all 5 GA components of nervous system (MAASH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the mechanism of action of barbiturates?

A
  • Potentiate GAGA-a channel activity ( directly mimics) causing Cl⁻ influx & cellular hyperpolarization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Do barbiturates have analgesic effects?

A
  • No, will have to add multimodal or opioid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What other receptors do Barbiturates act on?

A
  • Glutamate
  • adenosine
  • n-Ach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  • What do barbiturates do to CBF & CMRO₂ ?
  • How is this accomplished?
A
  • ↓ CBF & ↓ CMRO₂ by 55% via cerebral vasoconstriction (coupled)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What drug class is represented by the figure below?
-What is the clinical significance of graph?

A
  • Barbiturates (Thiopental)
  • Rapid re-distribution from brain to other tissues
  • VRG→ muscle group → fat → VPG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Barbiturates:
- Onset
- Reversal gradient:
- What can cause the drug to re-enter circulation?

A
  • Onset: 30 secs & rapid awakening d/t rapid uptake
  • Reversal of gradient
  • At 5 mis: 50% total dose gone
  • At 30 mins: 10% of total dose remaining
  • Lengthy context-sensitive half-time for (d/t fat “reservoir” accumulation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  • What’s the initial site of redistribution from VRG?
  • Considerations?
A
  • Skeletal Muscle = Lean tissues (18% CO)
  • Considerations: shock patient (decreased perfusion) and elderly (decreased muscle mass)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is equilibrium between plasma concentrations & skeletal muscle concentrations reached?

A
  • Equilibrium at 15 mins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is the main reservoir for barbiturates?
What does this mean clinically?

A
  • Fat (5%): Drug reservoir; can re-dose or cause cumulative effect
  • Must dose per IBW or lean body weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Barbiturates: Thiopental
- Metabolism?
- Excretion?

A
  • Metabolism: Hepatic 99%
  • Excretion: Renal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Barbiturates: Protein bound (in a percentage).
- Clinical significance?

A
  • 70 - 85% Albumin bound
  • Able to re-bind to Albumin carrier and re-enter VRG (ie: brain) = re-hypnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F: In pedis, the E1/2 is prolonged with barbiturate use

A
  • False
  • shorter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What’s the effect on redistribution if the drug has a high protein binding capacity?

A
  • Longer duration of action d/t context- sensitive half-time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the characteristics of a non-ionized barbiturate?

A
  • Favors Fat - Lipophilic
  • Favors acidosis
  • Readily crosses BBB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the characteristics of an ionized barbiturate?

A
  • Hater = Lipophobic
  • Favors alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why might barbiturates be considered cerebro-protective?

A
  • Barbs = ↓CBF & ↓CMRO₂ 55%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Regarding barbiturates, are S-isomers or R-isomers more potent?
Which is used clinically?

A
  • S-isomer barbiturates are more potent
  • Trick question! Racemic mixtures are only ones used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How would one differentiate thiobarbiturates vs oxybarbiturates?

A
  • Thiobarbiturates: thiopental, thiamylal.
  • Oxybarbiturates: methohexital (current ECT treatment), phenobarbital, pentobarbital.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Thiobarbiturates result from the replacement of Oxybarbiturate’s oxygen with a _____ atom.
- How does this effect solubility and potency?

A
  • Sulfur atom
  • Higher lipid solubility
  • greater hypnotic potency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Thiopental (Sodium Pentothal):
- Dose?
- E1/2 compared to methohexital?
- Fat/blood coefficient?

A
  • 4 - 5 mg/kg IV
  • E1/2: Longer than methohexital (Thiopental is more lipid soluble)
  • 11→ indicates longer duration of action (use IBW)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The greater the ratio of fat to body weight, the less is the blood volume (ml/kg). Why?

A
  • Adipose/fat tissue has reduced blood supply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How much Thiopental is present in the brain 30 mins post-administration?
- Why?

A
  • Only 10%
  • Rapid redistribution, skeletal muscles, & decrease doses in shock elderly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does a partition coefficient describe?
- What are the 2 types?

A
  • The distribution of a drug at equilibrium between two substances that have the same temp, pressure, and volume.
  • Blood:gas and Fat:blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the blood-gas coefficient?

A
  • The distribution of an anesthetic between blood and gas at the same partial pressure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What would a high blood-gas coefficient indicate?

A
  • Correlates with a higher solubility of anesthetic in blood → slower induction time
    -The blood basically acts as a pharmacologically inactive reservoir (drug wants to stay in blood)
  • Inhalant agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

_____ agents have fat to blood coefficients.

A
  • Induction agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which is more lipid soluble, Thiopental or Methohexital?
- Why?

A
  • Thiopental
  • Sulfur atom → lipid soluble & greater hypnotic potency
42
Q

At a normal pH, _____% of methohexital is non-ionized.

At a normal pH, ____% of Thiopental is non-ionized.

What does this mean in regards to induction for comparing these drugs?

A
  • 76%
  • 61%
  • Methohexital for induction has a faster metabolism and recovery due to its increased lipid-solubility.
43
Q

Which barbiturate causes excitatory phenomena of myoclonus and hiccups?

A

Methohexital

44
Q

How would methohexital infusions differ from induction?

A

Very lipid-soluble so:
- Induction: clears quickly
- Infusion: persists from infusion

45
Q

Methohexital:
- IV dose?
-Rectal (PR) dose?

A
  • IV Dose: 1.5 mg/kg
  • PR dose: 20 - 30 mg/kg
46
Q

What is the seizure profile of Methohexital?

A
  • Decreases seizure threshold→ induces seizure (ie: 1out 3 patients during temporal lobe resection)
  • Decrease duration of seizure by 35 - 45% in ECT therapy compared to Etomidate
47
Q

What CV side effects would occur with Thiopental 5 mg/kg administration in a normovolemic patient?

A
  • Transient SBP decrease of 10-20mmHg
  • Transient HR increase of 15-20 bpm (compensation)
48
Q

Barbiturates (Thiopental) blunts _____ response.
- CV considerations?

A
  • Baroreceptor response
  • Caution for Hypovolemia, CHF, & β-blockade
49
Q

Thiopental can have a __________ response due to __________ release coupled with previous exposure to the drug.

A
  • anaphylactoid ; histamine
50
Q

Barbiturates: Ventilation SE

A
  • Dose-dependent medullary & pontine centers respiratory depression
    (Less sensitive to CO₂ levels)
  • Delayed return to spontaneous ventilation (slow frequency (RR) and decreased tidal volume (shallow breathing)
  • Stage 4 territory = over anesthetized
51
Q

What would occur with accidental arterial administration of a barbiturate?
What is the treatment?

A
  • Immediate, limb-threatening vasoconstriction
  • obscures distal arterial pulses → permanent nerve damage risk
  • Tx: Vasodilators Lido or Papaverine
52
Q

What type of IntraOp monitoring would prefer barbiturates?
- Why?

A
  • SSEP (Somatosensory Evoked Potential) monitoring
  • desired use of barbs over volatiles b/c volatiles suppress sensory output which would cause SSEP not to work
53
Q

When would CYP450 enzyme induction be seen with a barbiturate infusion?
How long could it last?
- What drugs would be affected?

A
  • 2-7 days post-infusion
  • Could last up to 30 days
  • Accelerates metabolism of anticoags, phenytoin, TCAs, digoxin, corticosteroids, bile salts and Vit K → may need supplementation
54
Q

Barbiturates: Renal SE

A
  • Transient ↓RBF and ↓GFR
  • May need IV fluids
55
Q

For Propofol, what are the doses for:
1. Induction
2. Conscious sedation
3. Maintenance
4. Anticonvulsant
5. Sub-hypnotic
6. Anti-pruritic

A
  1. Induction = 1.5 - 2.5 mg/kg IV
  2. Conscious sedation = 25 - 100 mcg/kg/min
  3. Maintenance = 100 - 300 mcg/kg/min
  4. Anticonvulsant: 1mg/kg IV
  5. Sub-hypnotic (N/V): 10 -15 mg/kg, followed by 10 mcg/kg/min
  6. Anti-pruritic: 10 mg IV
  • Tip: maintenance has highest dose range for Prop
56
Q

Pediatric dose for Propofol?
- Why?

A
  • Require higher dose
  • Larger central distribution volume, Higher clearance rate, Higher metabolism
57
Q

Propofol:
- How long should I push IV injection?
- Onset
- Duration
- E1/2
- Potency compared to barbiturates

A
  • Rapid (<15 secs)
  • 30 secs
  • Duration: very short acting
  • E1/2: 0.5 - 1.5 hrs
  • Equipotent to barbs
58
Q

What is the most common concentration of a 1% solution Propofol?

59
Q

What are Propofol clinical uses?

A
  • Induction (1% soln)
  • Continuous IV infusion
    1. Prop only
    2. TIVA - Total/Balanced IV Anesthesia
    3. ICU: 2% soln used to ↓ lipid use
    4. Status Epileptics
60
Q

What are the following characteristics of propofol:
- Elimination ½ time.
- Volume of distribution
- Clearance (mL/kg/min)

A
  • E ½ time = 0.5 - 1.5 hrs
  • Context sensitive half-time: 40 mins (8- hr infusions)
  • Vd = 3.5 - 4.5 L/kg
  • Clearance = 30 - 60 mL/kg/min
61
Q

What are the inactive ingredients in propofol?
- Why is one particularly important? (Think allergies)

A
  • 1.2% Lecithin (from egg yolks) → Anaphylaxis with egg allergy
  • 2.25% glycerol
  • 10% soybean oil
  • Tip: typically if allergy to egg yolk, NOT given; allergy to egg white = OKAY to give
62
Q

What are the disadvantages of propofol’s inactive ingredient composition?

A
  • ↑ bacterial growth (6 hrs of use from spike; green discoloration)
  • ↑ plasma triglycerides with prolonged infusions
  • Pain on injection
63
Q

Differentiate Commercial Prop preps: Ampofol, Aquavan, Non-lipid Cyclodextrins.

A
  • Ampofol: low-lipid, no preservative, high pain on inject
  • Aquavan: prodrug with less injection pain but not used often b/c causes dysesthesia (burning sensation esp. women genitals) an slower onset, larger Vd, and high potency
  • Non-lipid w/ Cyclodextrins (Solubilizing Agent): in trials; study shows even higher injection pain
64
Q

Prop MOA (2)

A
  • Selective modulator of GABA-a that increases Cl⁻ conductance → postsynaptichyper polarization
  • Potentiates Glycerine → partial hypnotic effect
65
Q

How does propofol cause immobility through spinal cord-depression?

A
  • Trick question! Immobility from propofol is not from drug-induced spinal cord depression.

  • Side bars:
  • Volatiles alter spinal motor function
  • Spinal motor neuron excitability measured by H reflexes
66
Q

What are the clearance characteristics of propofol?

  • cleared intravascularly NOT from body
A
  • The clearance of propofol from plasma (lung first pass uptake) exceeds hepatic blood flow
  • Tissue uptake > CYP450
67
Q
  • What metabolizes propofol?
  • What are the metabolites?
A
  • CYP450 and UGT1A9
  • Water-soluble sulfate and glucuronic acid metabolites
68
Q
  • What is the context-sensitive half-time of propofol?
  • Is this a relatively Low or High context-sensitive (CS) half-time?
A
  • 40 minutes (for an 8 hours infusion)
  • Very Low CS ½ time.
69
Q

Differentiate blood pressure and heart rate changes that occur with propofol vs thiopental.

A
  • Propofol: ↓BP & ↓HR
  • Thiopental: ↓BP & ↑HR
70
Q

Does propofol cross the placenta?
- What are the consequences of this?

A
  • Yes but is rapidly cleared from neonatal circulation.
  • Beaware of ion trapping
71
Q

Do cirrhosis and renal dysfunction have significant effects on propofol metabolism?

A
  • Cirrhosis: No, similar awakening time with alcoholic and normal patient
  • Renal dysfunction: No influence on prop clearance via IV
72
Q

What drug is the induction drug of choice?
Dose?

A
  • Propofol
  • 1/5 - 2.5 mg/kg IV
73
Q

What is the induction dose of propofol in adults? Children?

A
  • Adults: 1.5-2.5 mg/kg IV
  • Pediatrics: higher doses due to larger central volume and clearance rate.
74
Q

What is the induction dose of propofol in the elderly?

A
  • 25 - 50% lower than regular adult dose
75
Q

What plasma propofol levels would correlate with unconsciousness on induction?
What about awakening?

A
  • Unconsciousness: 2 - 6 μg/mL
  • Awakening: 1 - 1.5 μg/mL
76
Q

What is the conscious sedation dose of propofol?

A
  • 25 - 100 mcg/kg/min IV
77
Q

What are the characteristics of propofol in the context of conscious sedation?

A
  • Anticonvulsant use
  • DOC for brief GI procedures
  • ICU patients on MV postop
  • ↓ risk of PONV
  • Prompt recovery w/ low residual sedation
  • Minimal analgesia and amnestic properties (adjunct opioid or multimodal)
  • Midazolam or opioids as adjuncts.
78
Q

What is the sub-hypnotic dosing for propofol?

A
  • 10 - 15 mg IV, followed by 10 mcg/kg/min
79
Q
  • What are the anti-emetic properties of propofol?
  • MOA?
  • Which dose would you give?
A
  • More effective than ondansetron; CIMV, PONV
  • MOA: Depresses subcortical pathways & direct depression of vomiting center
  • Give sub-hypnotic dose (10 - 15 mg IV, followed by 10 mcg/kg/min)
80
Q

What is the anti-pruritic dosing of propofol?

A
  • 10 mg IV
  • Pruritus secondary to neuraxial opioids or cholestasis
81
Q

What is the anti-convulsant dosing of propofol?

82
Q

List “other” category benefits of propofol?

A
  • Bronchodilator
  • Anti-emetic
  • Anti-pruritic
  • Anti-convulsant
  • Low dose analgesia
  • Potent Antioxidant
  • Does not trigger MH
83
Q

Explain figure.

A

Respiratory resistance after tracheal intubation the least after Propofol induction and most with Etomidate

84
Q

Propofol: CNS effects:

A
  • DECREASED CMRO₂, CBF, and ICP
  • CPP (support MAP)
  • Myoclonus can occur. Does NOT produce seizures tho
85
Q

T/F: Auto-regulation of CBF and PaCO2 are maintained.
- What term describes the relationship?

A
  • True
  • CBF and PaCO2 is coupled
86
Q

T/F: Propofol EEG changes similar to Isoflurane.

A
  • False; Prop EEG similar to Thiopental
87
Q

EEG waves one word descriptions per lecture:
Alpha
Beta
Delta
Gamma
Theta

A
  • Alpha: awake
  • Beta: Concentration
  • Delta: Deep Sleep
  • Gamma: Thinking/Testing
  • Theta: Light Sleep
88
Q

Does Propofol cause SSEP suppression?

A
  • No
  • Exceptions: Nitrous or volatiles added
89
Q

Which would decrease blood pressure more, thiopental or propofol?

A
  • Propofol
  • Decreased SBP greater than Thiopental
90
Q

What is the mechanism for propofol-induced hypotension?
* What conditions will these effects be exaggerated?

A
  • SNS inhibition → vascular smooth muscle relaxation = ↓SVR
  • ↓ ICF Ca⁺⁺ = ↓ contractility
  • Hypovolemia, elderly, and LV compromise
91
Q

How is propofol-induced hypotension from induction usually counteracted?

A
  • Intubation (laryngoscopy stimulation)
92
Q

Mechanisms of bradycardia with propofol administration:

A
  • ↓SNS response by direct effect on muscaranic receptors
  • Baroreceptor reflex
    depression
  • Profound bradycardia & asystole (documented even in healthy patient)
93
Q

Propofol black box warning in pediatrics?

A
  • Profound bradycardia (fatal)
  • Pre-medicate pedis with Glycopyrolate
94
Q

Propofol: Pulm effects
How does this change with opioids?
- What intraOp technique can counteract negative effects?

A
  • Dose-dependent ventilation depression (apnea)
    (painful surgical stimulation by surgeon counteracts)
  • Synergistic with opioids (increased risk)
  • Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction reflex remains intact
95
Q

Propofol: Hepatic/Renal effects

A
  • LFTs/ creatinine are normal
  • Hepatocellular injury
  • Propofol Infusion Syndrome
96
Q

What is Propofol Infusion Syndrome?
- What dose is associated w/ syndrome?

A
  • Lactic acidosis thought to occur from poisoning of electron transport chain and impaired oxidation of fatty acids.
  • High doses > 75 mcg/kg/min longer than 24 hrs
97
Q

Propofol infusion syndrome: - - S&S?
- Diagnostics?
- Is it reversible?
- Late stage complication?

A
  • Urine changes, lactic acidosis, brady-dysrhythmias, rhabdomyolysis
  • ABG & Lactic
  • Reversible in early stages
  • Late stage = CV Shock (ECMO)
  • severe, refractory bradycardia in KIDS
98
Q

What relatively benign condition(s) can occur from prolonged propofol infusions?
Why does this happen?

A
  • Urine: Green (phenols) and/or cloudy (uric acid crystals)
  • No alterations in renal function
99
Q

What is the worst side effect in children who have propofol infusion syndrome?

A
  • Severe, refractory, fatal bradycardia
100
Q

Propofol: Other organ effects

A
  • Injection pain (10% of patients (give Lido prior and/or use larger vein)
  • ↓ IOP (benefit for trendelenburg position)
  • PLT aggregation inhibition (insignificant clotting risk)
  • Allergic reactions (ie: lecithin)
  • Prolonged myoclonus (sleep w/ involuntary movement)
  • Abuse/misuse (15% in HCWs)