SS25 Induction Drugs (Etomidate & Ketamine) (Exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

In general, thiobarbiturates are much more _____ soluble and have a greater _______ than oxybarbiturates.

What atom do thiobarbiturates have in lieu of an oxygen in the second position (like oxybarbiturates)?

A
  • Lipid; potency
  • Sulfur
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2
Q
A
  • Goal: Surgical stimulation at peak time
  • Study table
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3
Q

What is unique about Etomidate’s organic chemical structure?

A

It is the only carboxylated imidazole containing compound.

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4
Q

Etomidate:
- water-soluble vs lipid-soluble?
- Is it a weak acid or weak base?

A
  • H₂O-soluble at acidic pH.
  • Lipid-soluble at physiologic pH
  • weak base
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5
Q

What percentage of etomidate is propylene glycol? What is the result of this?

A
  • 35% propylene glycol resulting in pain on injection.
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6
Q

What additional route can Etomidate be given?
- Clinical significance?

A
  • Sub-lingual
  • Only drug with direct systemic absorption in oral mucosa that bypasses hepatic metabolism
  • great for pediatrics
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7
Q

Why does etomidate have a low incidence of myoclonus?

A
  • Trick Question! Etomidate has a high incidence of myoclonus, just like all other induction agents.
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8
Q

Etomidate MOA?

A

Indirect & Direct opening of Cl⎺ channels of GABA-a receptors → hyperpolarization

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9
Q

Etomidate;
- Onset?
- Peak?
- Protein bound percent & which protein?
- E1/2?

A
  • Onset: 1 minute
  • Peak: 2 min
  • 76% Albumin bound
  • E1/2: 2- 5 hrs
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10
Q

Etomidate:
- Vd
- Clearance? Compared to Thiopental?
- What is the result of this clearance?

A
  • Large Vd (2.2 - 3.5 L/kg)
  • CL: 10 - 20 mL/kg/min
  • 5x faster than Thiopental = prompt awakening
  • No hangover or accumulative drug efffect
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11
Q

Etomidate:
- Metabolism?
- Elimination?

A
  • Metabolism: Hydrolysis via CYP450 & plasma esterases
  • Elimination: Urine 85% & Bile 10 - 13%
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12
Q

What is the induction dosage range for etomidate?

A
  • 0.3 mg/kg
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13
Q

What is the best use for etomidate?

A
  • Induction for unstable cardiac patients (patients with no cardiac reserve; low EF/ low LVEDP)
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14
Q

What needs to be used concurrently with etomidate when performing a laryngoscopy? Why?

A
  • Need Opioid, Etomidate has NO analgesic effects.
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15
Q

What is Etomidate’s most common side effect?
- How often does this occur?
-Risk factors (3) per lecture?

A
  • Involuntary Myoclonic Movements (Thalamocortical Tract)
  • 50 - 80% of Etomidate administrations (highest of all the induction drugs)
  • Seizure history, vaping, cannabis use
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16
Q

What should be administered with etomidate to prevent involuntary myoclonic movements?

A
  • Fentanyl 1-2 mcg/kg IV
  • Opioids and benzos both help lessen occurence
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17
Q

Etomidate has a dose dependent inhibition of the conversion of cholesterol to _________.
- What is this condition termed as?
- What does this mean clinically?

A
  • Cortisol
  • Adrenalcortical Suppression with prolonged use: inhibits stress = catecholamines depletion
  • Prolonged mechanical ventilation, severe hypotension
  • More common with continuous use vs. induction dose
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18
Q

What can you give to pre-medicate if patient is increased risk for Adrenalcortical Suppression?

A
  • Solumedrol or Prednisone
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19
Q

How long does adrenocortical suppression with etomidate last?
- What two pathologies do you want to avoid the use of Etomidate in?

A
  • 4 - 8 hrs
  • Sepsis & hemorrhage (anything where you need an intact cortisol response)
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20
Q

Compare Etomidate and Thiopental to plasma cortisol levels.

A
  • Compared to Thiopental, Etomidate will lower plasma cortisol concentrations greatly.
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21
Q

T/F: Etomidate is a direct cerebral vasoconstrictor.

A
  • False!
  • Etomidate is a Direct Cerebral Vasoconstrictor
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22
Q

What effects does Etomidate have on CNS?

A
  • Direct Cerebral Vasoconstrictor
  • Decreases ↓CBF & ↓CMRO₂ by 35- 45%
  • ↓ICP

(Prop and Thiopental does this as well)

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23
Q

Etomidate:

  • EEG compared to Thiopental?
  • Can Etomidate induce seizures?
  • Is SSEP amplitude increased or decreased affected? How does this effect the monitoring?
A
  • Similar EEG to Thiopental but more frequent excitatory spikes
  • May activate seizure foci
  • Increases SSEP amplitude; can cause false positive imopulse (signal may not detect nerve is in danger of being cut during neuro sx)
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24
Q

Etomidate CV effects:

A
  • Most cardioprotective
  • Minimal changes in HR, SV, SVR, CO, contractility,
  • Decreased PAP
  • Mild decrease in MAP
  • No intra-arterial damage

(Remember: Thiopental causes Gangrene)

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25
Q

Though Etomidate is great for cardiac patients, what condition can result in significant hypotension if not treated prior to induction?

A
  • Hypovolemia
  • Esp. high dose induction (0.45 m/kg IV)
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26
Q

Histamine-induced hypotension via Etomidate is prevented by what med?

A
  • Trick question! Etomidate does NOT release histamine.
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27
Q

Etomidate: Pulm effects

A
  • No change in minute ventilation
  • Transient increases RR q 3 - 5 mins offsets Vt decreases (compensatory)
  • Less ventilation depression than barbiturates
  • Rapid IV produces apnea
  • Stimulates CO₂ medullary centers → emerge breathing earlier (avoids CO2 narcosis)

(Etomidate not as lipid soluble as barbs)
(MV = Vt x RR)

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28
Q

Ketamine:
- Derivative?
- What type of anesthesia does it produce?

A
  • Phencyclidine derivative (PCP; “angel dust”)
  • Dissociative anesthesia
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29
Q

Ketamine:
- Primary receptor type?
- What 2 components of GA does Ketamine provide?

A
  • NMDA receptor antagonist
    -Amnestic and intense analgesic properties
30
Q

Ketamine: dissociative anesthesia S&S

A
  • Zonked state: “Eyes open but no one’s home”
  • Non-communicative but awake
  • Hypertonus & purposeful skeletal muscle movements
  • Cataleptic state (slow nystagmic gaze)

Hypertonus = Risk for Rhabdo!
-Also, maintain safety (restraints, etc.)

31
Q

What are ketamine’s 2 advantages over Propofol & Etomidate?

A
  • No pain at injection (no propylene glycol)
  • Profound analgesia at subanesthetic doses.
32
Q

What are the 2 disadvantages of ketamine?

A
  • Emergence delirium (Dissociation)
  • Abuse potential (PCP)
33
Q

What is Benzethonium Chloride? What is it’s relevance?

A
  • Ketamine preservative that adds to its effect
  • Inhibits ACh receptors
34
Q

Differentiate S (+) Ketamine, R (-) Ketamine, & Racemic mixtures,

A
  • S (+) Ketamine (left-handed isomer)
    1. More intense analgesia = 2x > Racemic; and 4x > R (-)
    2. ↑metabolism & recovery
    3. Less salivation
    4. ↓ incidence of emergence rxns
  • Racemic
    1. Inhibits Catecholamine uptake back into postganglionic sympathetic nerve endings (cocaine-like effect)
    2. Less fatigue
    3. Less cognitive impairment

R (-) Ketamine - R handed optical isomer

35
Q

Ketamine: MOA?

A
  • Non-competitive inhibition of NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors and decreases pre-synaptic release of glutamate

Glutamate most abundant excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS
- Glycine = obligatory co-agonist

36
Q

Ketamine: Secondary receptor sites? (A lot)

A
  • Opioid (μ, δ, κ & weak σ)
  • Weak GABA-a -sedation effects
  • Muscaranic: Anticholinergic properties = increase salivation, emergence delirium, bronchodilation, sympathomimetic)
  • MOA: antinociceptive; may activate descending inhibitory pathway
  • VG Na channels- local anesthetics effects

Others: n-Ach, L-type Ca channels, MOA

37
Q

Ketamine:
- Onset?
- Peak? (IV & IM)

A
  • Onset: Similar to Thiopental (rapid)
  • Peak IV: 30 sec - 1 min
  • Peak IM: 2 - 5 min (mostly for pediatric patients)
38
Q

Ketamine: Induction DOAs
- Loss of consciousness (onset)
- ROC (return of consciousness)
- Full consciousness:
- Amnesia persists after ROC

A
  • LOC (onset): 30 secs - 1 min
  • ROC: 10 - 20 mins
  • Full consciousness: 60 - 90 mins
  • Amnesia persists after ROC: 60 - 90 mins (won’t remember the drive home postop)
39
Q

Ketamine:
- Protein bound percent?
- Lipid solubility?
- CL?
- What is the result of this?
- Vd?
- E1/2?

A
  • PPB = Trick Question! NOT plasma bound
  • Highly lipid soluble (5-10x greater than thiopental)
  • CL: high CL from brainto tissues
  • Vd = 3 L/kg (LARGE)
  • E ½ = 2 - 3 hours
40
Q

Ketamine:
- Clearance:
- Metabolism:
- Excretion:

A
  • Clearance: high hepatic clearance (1 L/min)
  • Metabolism: CYP450
  • Excretion: Kidneys
41
Q

What is the primary metabolite of ketamine?
- Significance?

A
  • Norketamine: active metabolite (⅓-⅕ potency and prolonged analgesia
42
Q

In what patient population is ketamine tolerance most often seen?

A
  • Burn patients: Abuse & dependence potential
43
Q

Ketamine Induction dose:
- IV
- IM
-PO

A
  • IV: 0.5 - 1.5 mg/kg
  • IM: 4 - 8 mg/kg
  • PO: 10 mg/kg
44
Q

Ketamine Maintenance dose: IV & IM

A
  • IV: 0.2 - 0.5 mg/kg for analgesia
  • IM: 4 - 8 mg/kg

IM dose same for Induction & Maintenance;
IV dose same as regular analgesic dose

45
Q

Ketamine: Subanesthetic/ analgesic dose:

A
  • IV: 0.2 - 0.5 mg/kg
46
Q

Ketamine: Postop sedation & analgesia
- What type of sx is this dose used in?

A
  • 1 - 2 mg/kg/hr
  • Pediatric cardiac sx
47
Q

Ketamine:
- Neuraxial epidural
- Spinal/ Intrathecal

A
  • Epidural: 30 mg
    -Spinal: 5 - 50 mg in 3 cc of saline

Intrathecal/spinal/subarachnoid

48
Q

Ketamine is a potent sialagogue.
- Clinical significance?

A
  • Excessive secretions during intubation
  • Watch for coughing/ laryngospasm
49
Q

What first line drug do you use to treat ketamine-induced salivary secretions?

  • Dose?
  • Other drugs options?
A
  • First line: Glycopyrrolate: 0.2 mg
  • Atropine, Scopaline (emergence delirium)
50
Q

Ketamine: Clinical uses (8)
- Include rationale for each

A
  • Acutely hypovolemic patients - stimulates SNS
  • Asthmatics & MH patients - bronchodilator
  • Pediatric induction - difficult to manage
  • Cardiac sx - CAD cocktail - prevent iscemia
  • Burn & skin dressings/ procedures
  • Reversal of opioid tolerance
  • Psych dx (OCD, PTSD, Depression)
  • Restless Leg Syndriome (10mg/kg PO)

OTHER PEDI CHOICES: NASAL PRECEDEX, PO VERSED

51
Q

Bonus: What volatiles and IV anesthetics induce bronchodilatory properties?
SHIPMK

A
  • Sevo
  • Halothane
  • Isoflurane
  • Propofol
  • Midazolam
  • Ketamine
52
Q
  • Why would we use a CAD cocktail?
  • What’s the ingredients?
A
  • Help avoid cardiac event; synergisticaly reduces risk of dysrhythmias during sx
  • Diazepam 0.5 mg/kg IV
  • Ketamine 0.5 mg/kg IV
  • Continuous Ketamine IV infusion: 15 - 30 mcg/kg/min
53
Q

When would you do an IM induction of a patient?
- What’s the IM dose again?

A
  • Uncooperative and difficult to manage patients; not just kids
  • 4 - 8 mg/kg IM
54
Q

When do we avoid Ketamine us?

A
  • Systemic/ Pulmonary HTN - (increase up to 44%)
  • ↑ICP - Ketamine is potent cerebral vasodilator
55
Q

Explain mechanism of Ketamine on ICP.

A
  • Potent cerebral vasodilator
  • ↑ICP via ↑CBF by 60%
  • ↑CMRO₂ & ↑ glucose
56
Q

At what dose of Ketamine will the ICP plateau?

A
  • 0.5 - 2mg/kg IV

Start low

57
Q

Due to Ketamine’s increased excitatory EEG activity, how much does seizure potential increase with administration?

A
  • Trick question. No increase in seizure potential with ketamine
  • Myoclonus may occur

Outlier: Etomidate alters sz threshold

58
Q

Ketamine increases SSEP amplitude. This may be reduced by _________ gas use.

59
Q

Ketamine: CV effects
How can CV effects be blunted?

A
  • SNS stimulation ( ↑ in SBP, PAP, HR, CO, CMRO₂,)
  • ↑Epi & NE
  • Blunted via pre-med with benzo’s, inhaled anesthetics, or nitrous gas
60
Q

You just gave Ketamine and you patient’s BP and CO dropped significantly (marked hypotension).
- What happened?
- How do you treat it?

A
  • Most sympathetic drug
  • Depleted catecholamine stores
  • Give Epi - direct acting, non-selective
  • direct myocardial depressant
  • No histamine release

Etomidate: most CV stable

61
Q

Ketamine: Pulm effects

A
  • No depression of ventilation with CO₂ response maintained.
  • ↑ salivary excretions
  • Intact upper airway tone & reflexes.
  • Bronchodilator + no histamine release.

Good for pulm patient, with healthy heart

62
Q

Ketamine-induced emergence delirium S&S:

A
  • Psychedelic effects (5-30% of patients)
  • Visual, auditory, proprioceptive illusions
  • Morbid & vivid dreams in color/hallucinations up to 24 hours
  • Not an adverse reaction
63
Q

Ketamine-induced emergence delirium MOA:

A
  • Depression of inferior colliculus & medial geniculate nucleus
64
Q

Ketamine-induced emergence delirium prevention

A
  • IV benzo 5 mins prior
  • Clonidine or Precedex
65
Q

Ketamine other systems effects :

A
  • Inhibit cytosolic free [Ca] = Enhances non-depolarizing NMBAs (ie: Rocuronium)
  • Inhibit plasma cholisterases = Prolong apnea from Succinylcholine
  • PLT aggregation inhibition (low significane)
66
Q

Ketamine: Most common drug interactions

A
  • Volatiles (Iso, Sevo, Des) → hypotension
  • Non-depolarizing NMBAs → enhanced
  • Succinylcholine → prolonged
67
Q

What are the risks and benefits of Ketamine use in OSA?

A
  • Benefits: Preservation of Upper airway reflexes (on subanesthetic doses) & Ventilatory function
  • Risks: Psych effects, SNS activation, hypersalivation

Bronchodilator

68
Q

Which induction agent has the highest analgesic properties?

69
Q

Ketafol

A
  • Ketafol = Propofol & Ketamine mixture
  • Not approved FDA but facility trumps FDA
  • **Propofol is NOT chiral = unstable **
  • Not recommended to mix Prop with any drug
  • Prop + Lido (lipid bubbles = PE)
  • Prop + Succ (BBW peds) - some facilities approved; Pre-treat Glycopyrolate
70
Q

Sterile Prep USP 797

A
  • Sterile compounding
    -Immediate use rule: Single dose meds
  • Able to draw up within 4 hrs pre-op (new)
  • PPE
  • Aseptic