Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy > Spring Test 3 > Flashcards

Spring Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

3 functions of the cerebellum

But the primary function is:

A
  1. Regulates equilibrium
  2. Muscle tone and posture
  3. Motor Coordination for voluntary movements (in near future and during execution)

Motor adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The three deep nuclei of the cerebellum are the:

The _ has two parts, the _ and the _

A

Dentate
Interposed Nucleus
Fastigal

Interposed nucleus
Emboliform
Globose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The three cerebellar peduncles connect the _ and the _

A

Cerebellum

Brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The inferior cerebellar peduncle has two parts:

Where do they get their inputs from?
What do they do?

A

Restiform body:
inputs from spinal cord and brainstem
monitors muscle and limb movement

Juxtarestiform body:
interconnects vestibular nuclei and cerebellum
Doesn’t say what it does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Middle cerebellar peduncle does what 2 things

A
  • Gets Afferent from contralateral basis pontis

- relays motor signals from cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Superior cerebellar peduncle contains what

A

Mostly efferent fibers to red nucleus and VL thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inferior olivary nuclei are involved in what two things

A

Motor learning

Acquisition of new motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The three layers of the cerebellar cortex are the

A

Molecular layer
Purkinje cell layer
Granule layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cortical afferent fibers are _

Cortical efferent fibers are _

A

Excitatory

Inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Synonym for excitatory is _

Synonym for inhibitory is _

A

Glutaminergic

GABAnergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mossy fibers synapse at _

A

Granule cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Granule cell axons are called _

They travel perpendicular and through _

A

Parallel fibers

Purkinje cell axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_ cells inhibit granule cells

A

Golgi cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The three main functions of the cerebellum are:

A

Equilibrium
Muscle tone and posture
Coordinating voluntary movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is fractionated somatotopy

A

Body part is represented in multiple places in cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are the homunculi oriented in the cerebellum

A

Axial muscles more toward midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The three functional subdivisions of the cerebellum and the nucleus that each is associated with

A 
Vestibulocerebellum
   -fastigial nucleus
Spinocerebellum
   -dentate nucleus
Pontocerebellum
   -interposed nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Vestibulocerebellum functions (2)

A

Control of eye movement in response to head movements

Balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Spinocerebellum has what functions

A

Posture and gait

Coordination of trunk and limb movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Neo/pontocerebellum functions

A

Planning the timing of movements

Coordination of speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 other important functions of the cerebellum

A

Cognition
Speech
Emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The diencephalon is made up of what 4 parts

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Epithalamus
Subthalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The limbic system is made up of what 3 things

A

Hippocampus
Hypothalamus
Amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which sensory pathways don’t relay in the thalamus

A

Olfaction only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What divides the different thalamic nuclei

A

Internal medullary lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which thalamic nuclei division is the largest

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Thalamic nuclei consist of what two types of neurons

A 
Projection neurons (output from thal.)
Interneurons (inhibitory)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The two types of thalamic inputs are

A

Specific inputs (from a thalamic nucleus to cortex)

Regulatory inputs (from cortex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Three categories of thalamic nuclei

A
  1. Relay nuclei
  2. Association nuclei
  3. Intralaminar & midline nuclei
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Relay nuclei receive input from a _ source and project to the _

A

Subcortical

Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why is the reticular nucleus particularly important

A

Everything has to pass through it, so it is a major regulatory nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why is the reticular nucleus unique?

A

It has no projections to cortex (unlike all other thalamic nuclei)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Reticular nucleus output:

A

Inhibitory axons to thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

8 thalamic relay nuclei

A 
Anterior
Lateral dorsal
VA
VL
VPL
VPM
MGN
LGN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The two main association nuclei

A

DM

Pulvinar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The DM is associated with what part of the brain

A

Prefrontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pulvinar is associated with what area of the brain

A

Parietal-Occipital-Temporal complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The LP nucleus
Type:
Input:
Output:

A

Association
Parietal lobe
Parietal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The putamen and globus pallidus make up the _

A

Lenticular nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What passes through the internal capsule

A

Thalamocortical and corticothalamic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The five parts of the internal capsule and what they are made of

A
  1. Anterior limb
    a. Lenticular nucleus
    b. Caudate
  2. Posterior limb
    a. Lenticular nucleus
    b. Thalamus
  3. Genu (b/t A&P limbs)
  4. Retrolenticular (b/h lenticular nucleus)
  5. Sublenticular part (b/n lenticular nucleus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hypothalaums is important in what 5 functions

A 
Autonomic
Endocrine
Emotional
Somatic
Maintaining homeostasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The 4 longitudinal regions of the hypothalamus are:

The 3 medial-lateral regions of the hypothalamus are:

A

Preoptic
Anterior
Tuberal
Posterior

Lateral
Medial
Periventricular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does the hypothalamus control the pituitary

A

Superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries supply the pituitary and transmit hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do pituitary hormones get to the rest of the body

A

Capillaries from pituitary drain into cavernous sinus then to systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

3 main types of hypothalamic connections

A
  1. Interconnected with limbic system
  2. Output to pituitary
  3. Interconnects visceral/somatic nuclei
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The two arteries that supply the pituitary

A

Superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Parvocellular: end in _
3 nuclei

Magnocellular: end in _
2 nuclei

A

Median eminence
Preoptic
Ventromedial
Arcuate

Posterior lobe
Paraventricular
Supraoptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Parvocellular nuclei control what part of the pituitary?

Magnocellular nucleI?

A

Anterior pituitary

Posterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Two hormones from posterior part?

A

ADH
Oxytocin

The rest are anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Anterior hypothalamus has what autonomic effects

Posterior?

A

Anterior = parasympathetic

Posterior = sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The two hypothalamic nuclei that control feeding?

Stimulation and lesion of each do what

A

Lateral and ventromedial nuclei

Lateral:
Stimulation = feeding
Lesion = refuse food

VM:
Stimulation = refuse food
Lesion = feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus is involved in feeding as well as _

A

Rage and fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

3 steps in cortisol release in males

A
  1. Corticotropin RH released by paraventricular nucleus
  2. ACTH release in pituitary
  3. Increase in cortisol from adrenal gland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what area is activated in males in fight or flight response

A

lateral prefrontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

other than the 4 F’s, what are 2 other hypothalamic functions

A

sleep/wake

memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

2 key areas for hypothalamic input

A

forebrain, esp limbic sys.

brainstem/spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The main functions of the limbic system are

A

Feelings

Emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Amygdala functions

A

Emotional responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hippocampus functions

A

Learning

Memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Main source of Afferent to hippocampus

2 minor sources

A

Entorhinal cortex

Septal nuclei
Fornix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

3 zones of the hippocampus

A

Dentate
Hippocampus proper (CA1-4)
Subiculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The two important Efferent from the hippocampus go to the _ and _ front the _ and _

A

Fornix from the subiculum

Sensory cortex from entorhinal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The fímbria of the hippocampus is continuous with the

A

Fornix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

6 steps of papez circuit

A
  1. Cingulate gyrus
  2. Entorhinal cortex
  3. Hippocampus
  4. Fornix
  5. Mammillothalamic tract
  6. Anterior nucleus of thalamus to cingulate cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Consolidation is what

A

Storing new info in long term memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

HM had only what kind of memory

A

Working memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Left hippo does what

Right?

A

Language

Spatial tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Novel material is more _, as it is more familiar, it moves _

A

Anterior

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

3 nuclei in the amygdala and what they do

A

Medial - olfaction
Central - emotional responses
Basolateral - emotional responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Amygdala Afferents come from

A

Sensory association areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

General sense of emotional and physical discomfort/comfort to the amygdala comes from _

A

Orbital cortex and cingulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Visceral sensory to amygdala comes from

A

Brainstem and PAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Vision, taste, hearing, somatosensory to amygdala comes from

A

Cortex and thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Stria terminalis is what

A

An amygdala efferent from central nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Ventral amygdalofugal pathway is what and synapses with what

A

Amygdala efferent

Synapses with nucleus accumbens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Fibers leave the amygdala through what two pathways

A

Stria terminalis

VAG pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Amygdala output to ventral striatum is involved in what

A

Drive related info to influence decisions about movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Kluver-Bucy syndrome is what

A

No fear, male = hypersexual, attention to all sensory stimuli, eat weird things, recognize nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Nucleus accumbens is aka

A

Ventral striatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Limbic loop is what

A

Limbic system to ventral striatum -> ventral pallidum -> dorsomedial nucleus of thalamus

VS dopamine release from ventral tegmental area in midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The 4 main parts of the basal ganglia are the:

A

Striatum
Globus pallidus
Subthalamic nucleus
Substantial nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The striatum is made of what 3 parts

A

Caudate
Nucleus accumbens
Putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The lenticular nucleus is made of what things

A

Putamen

Globus pallidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The _ separates the P and GP from the C

A

Posterior limb of the internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The two types of substantia nigra are: and they are distinguished by _

A

Compact and Reticular
Pigmented neurons in compact
Reticular is closer to CP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Huntington’s disease is caused by degeneration of what

A

Striatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Huntington’s disease symptoms are:

A

Chorea(rapid movements of face and limbs)
rigidity
cognitive disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When does Huntington’s set in

A

About 50 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Basal ganglia movement disorders (3)

A

Involuntary movement (chorea)
Difficulty initiating movement
Perturbed muscle tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The 4 circuits of the basal ganglia and what they do

A 
Motor loop
   -learned movements
Cognitive loops
   -motor intentions
Limbic loop
   -emotional aspects of movement
Oculomotor loop
   -voluntary saccades
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

T/F the basal ganglia initiates motor movements

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the BG’s role in motor control?

A

Influence descending motor pathway by modulating cortical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

1-4 of the BG motor loop

A
  1. Somatosensory and motor cortex
  2. Striatum (mostly putamen)
  3. GPi
  4. VA/VL in thalamus

Then back to somatosensory/motor cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

BG cognitive loop is involved in what two things

A

Motor learning

Planning movements ahead (esp. complex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When a motor task is practiced extensively, which loop is involved?

A

Motor loop (instead of cognitive loop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The cognitive loop steps

A

Prefrontal cortex
Caudate
Globus Pallidus
VA

Back to prefrontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Limbic loop does what

A

Gives expression to emotions (smile, gesture, aggressive posture etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Steps in the limbic loop

A

From inferior prefrontal cortex
Through ventral striatum
Ventral pallidum
DMN

Back to inferior prefrontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The BG oculomotor loop goes from what parts

A

Frontal eye field & posterior parietal cortex

Caudate

SN reticular part

VA

Then back to 1st

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What part of the oculomotor loop is activated when eyes are fixed on an object?

A

SN reticular part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is disinhibition and of what part is it a major feature

A

It is stopping the inhibition by adding a silent neuron after the inhibiting neuron

It’s a major feature of neuronal activity in the basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Basic circuit of basal ganglia

A

Cerebral cortex
Striatum
GPi
Thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

If the GPi is less active, what happens to the thalamus and cortex (direct pathway)

A
  • Less inhibition on thalamus
  • Increased thalamic excitation to cortex
  • More cortical output
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

5 steps in direct pathway

A
  1. (Excitatory) Corticostriate fibers activate (inhibitory) neurons in striatum
  2. Striatum inhibits GPi
  3. Thalamus disinhibited
  4. Thalamus activates cortex
  5. Increased cortical output
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

In general, the indirect pathway does what

A

Disfacilitates neurons to suppress unwanted movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Main difference between direct and indirect BG pathways

A

Indirect has excitation of GPi ultimately resulting in less cortical output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is in the indirect pathway that isn’t in direct

A

Subthalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Hemiballismus symptoms

A

Flailing limb movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Parkinson’s disease is due to what

A

Degeneration of dopaminergic fibers in the substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Substantia nigra reticular part input is similar to that of the _

A

GPi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Nigrostriatal fibers have two pathways _ and _ based on _

A

D1/D2

Dopamine receptor expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

D1 receptors are _, D2 receptors are _

A

D1: facilitatory
D2: inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How to treat parkinson’s?

A

Levodopa - replace dopamine lost

Pallidotomy - take out globus pallidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

From an external view, how can you tell if you are looking at a R or L tympanic membrane

A

The lateral process of the malleus will point up and to the side it’s on (up/right for right side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Approximately, what are the dimensions of the middle ear cavity

A

10 x 10 x 6 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The two regions of the middle ear are:

A

Tympanic cavity proper

Epitympanic recess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Superiorly, the epitympanic membrane is continuous with the _

A

Aditus of the mastoid antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

The _ m. Runs parallel to auditory tube, the _ m. Runs perpendicular to it

A

Levator veli palatini

Tensor veli palatini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The walls of the middle ear:

A 
Roof: tegmen tympani
Floor: jugular wall
Lateral: tympanic membrane
Medial: inner ear
Ant: carotid wall
Post: mastoid wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The promontory in the middle ear is _ and it it is on the _ wall

A

Protuberance facing tympanic membrane

Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

The oval window is also called _ and receives _ and is located _

Round window is also called _

A

Fenestra vestibuli
Receives base of stapes
Under base of stapes on medial middle ear

Fenestra cochlea
(Membrane covered)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The two prominences on the medial wall of the middle ear are the _ that covers the _ and the _ that covers the _

A

Facial canal
Facial nerve

Lateral semicircular canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What tendon is on the medial wall of the middle ear

A

Tensor tympani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is the origin of the stapedius and on what wall is it

A

Pyramidal eminence

On posterior wall (mastoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Pharyngotympanic tube and middle ear have what kind of epithelial tissue

A

P tube: ciliated pseudostratified columnar

mid. Ear: simple squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

The tympanic membrane is attached to the _ bone, which is attached to the _, which is attached to the _ which is attached to the oval window

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The two muscles of the middle ear are:

What do they do

A

Tensor tympani
Stapedius

Act to reduce oscillations of ossicles
Protects inner ear from injury during loud noises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the smallest striated muscle in the body

A

Stapedius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Stapedius is innervated by _

A

CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Tensor tympani m. Is innervated by+

A

CN V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Middle ear arteries:

Veins:
Drain to?

A

Tympanic branches (ant., inf., sup., stylomastoid, caroticotympanic)

Accompanying veins.
Drain to sup. Petrosal sinus or pterygoid plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Chorda tympani passes between _ and _ in the middle ear, then goes and travels with _ and eventually supplies _ with _

A

Malleus and incus
Lingual n.
Anterior 2/3 tongue with special sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Greater petrosal is a branch off _
Carries _ fibers to _
Joins _ to form _

A

Geniculate ganglion of VII
P-symp fibers to pterygopal. Gang
Deep petrosal to form n. Of pterygoid canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Tympanic plexus covers _

It’s formed by _ nerves

A

Promontory in middle ear

Caroticotympanic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Lesser petrosal n. Comes off the _

A

Tympanic plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Lesser petrosal carries _ to otic ganglion

A

P-symp fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Otic ganglion supplies _ to the _

A

P-symp to the parotid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

The cochlea begins at the _ and ends at the _

A

Oval window

Round window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

The fluid between bony and membranous labyrinths is _ it is similar to _ and _ and has a _ charge

A

Perilymph
Extracellular fluid and CSF
+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Fluid in membranous labyrinth is _. It is similar to _ and has a _ charge

A

Endolymph
Intracellular fluid
- charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Endolymph is secreted by _ cells

A

Stria vascularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Endolymph is reabsorbed in the _

A

Endolymphatic sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Auditory and vestibular receptors are _ within the _

A

Hair cells

Membranous labyrinth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

The apical part of stereocilia projects into _ and the basal surface synapses with _ of _

A

Endolymph

Peripheral processes of CN VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Tallest stereocilia

Project into what

A

Kinocilium

Gelatinous mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

How are stereocilia connected

A

At the tip

148
Q

What determines which stimulus hair cells are more sensitive to

A

Subtle Differences in physical arrangements

149
Q

What is the auditory receptor organ

A

Organ of corti

150
Q

The cochlea is suspended in _ and filled with _

A

Perilymph

Endolymph

151
Q

Cochlea does _ turns

A

2 3/4

152
Q

Trace sound from ossicular chain to round window

A 
Ossicular chain
Oval window
Scala vestibuli
Helicotrema
Scala tympani
Round window
153
Q

How can the cochlea determine
Intensity
Frequency
Location

A

I: determined by rate and number of nerves firing
F: location on basilar membrane/organ of corti
L: compares stimuli b/t ears

154
Q

Cochlear implants work when _ are damaged but _ are intact

Electrodes enter _ into _

A

Cochlear hair cells
VIII endings

Round window into scala tympani

155
Q

Ascending auditory info

A

Hair cells
Primary afferents
Dorsal/ventral cochlear nucleus(synapse)

Dorsal cochlear nucleus
Lateral lemniscus

Ventral cochlear nucleus
Superior olivary nucleus
Trapezoid body
Lateral lemniscus

Lateral lemniscus
Inferior colliculus
MGN
transverse temporal gyri

156
Q

3 main functions of vestibular system

A

Regulate posture
Coordinate eye movements
Coordinate head movements

157
Q

The 2 bony parts and 2 membranous parts of the vestibular division

A

Bony: 1 vestibule
3 semicircular CANALS

Memb: 2 otolithic organs (saccule/utricle)
3 semicircular DUCTS

158
Q

An ampulla of a semicircular duct contains 2 main things:

A

Crista (supporting cells)

Cupula (gelatinous mass)

159
Q

The cupula responds to _

A

Angular acceleration

160
Q

The semicircular ducts are not able to detect _

A

Continuous rotation

161
Q

Tuft of hair cells of utricle and saccule

A

Macula

162
Q

Gelatinous mass that kinocilium project into

A

Otolithic membrane

163
Q

The movements that the
Utricle
Saccule
Detect

A

U: forward/backward and side/side
S: forward/backward and up/down

164
Q

Vestibular primary afferents

A

Hair cells
Peripheral processes of vestibular division of CN VIII
Vestibular ganglion
Cerebellum and vestibular nuclei

165
Q

The 4 vestibular nuclei in the vestibular nuclear complex on each side

A

Inferior
Superior
Medial
Lateral

166
Q

4 things are projected into the vestibular nuclei:

A

Cerebellum
Spinal cord
Visual info
Contralateral vestibular nuclei

167
Q

6 projections out of vestibular nuclei

A 
Spinal cord
Cerebellum
Nuclei of III, IV, VI
Contralateral vestibular nuclei
Thalamus -> cerebral cortex
Visceral nuclei
168
Q

Vestibular nuclei projection to the spinal cord can be divided into two parts: what are they and what do they control?

A

Lateral vestibulospinal tract
-stabilize posture (ipsilateral)
Medial vestibulospinal tract
-stabilize head (bilateral)

169
Q

Vestibular projections to nuclei of CN III, IV, and VI do what

A

Generate eye movements that compensate for head movements

170
Q

What is nystagmus and what does it do

A

Small rapid eye movements

Keep images on retina during movement

171
Q

How does alcohol affect balance

A

Alcohol penetrates inner ear, makes it so cupula density is different than endolymph

172
Q

3 senses that work together for position

A

Vestibular
Proprioceptive
Visual

173
Q

Heart starts beating when

A

Start of week 4, first organ to function

174
Q

In general, 3 movements the heart does to develop

A

Folds
Loops
Septates

175
Q

Progenitor heart cells migrate through primitive streak into _

A

Splanchnic layer of lateral plate mesoderm

176
Q

Primary heart field

A

Horseshoe shaped cluster of cells

177
Q

_ induces PHF to form blood islands and vessels

A

Endoderm

178
Q

_ form when blood islands unite in the cardiogenic region

A

Endocardial tubes

179
Q

The endocardial tubes fuse during _ folding to form _

A

Lateral

Primordial heart tube

180
Q

Initially, the heart tube is attached to pericardial cavity via the _

When that disappears, the _ forms

A

Dorsal mesocardium

Transverse pericardial sinus

181
Q

The three canal parts of the heart tube after folding

A

Primary interventricular foramen
Atrioventricular canal
Sinoatrial canal

182
Q

The two parts of the bulbus cordis are

A

Truncus arteriosus

Conus cordis

183
Q

Circulation through primary heart

A 
Sinus venosus
Primordial atrium
AV canal
L ventricle (primordial)
IV foramen
R Ventricle
Conus cordis
Truncus arteriosus
Aortic sac
Pharyngeal aa.
Dorsal aortae
184
Q

Sinus venosus receives blood from what 3 paired veins

A

Vitelline
Umbilical
Common cardinal

185
Q

Remodeling of the three veins due to blood flow causes the _ horn of sinus venosus to become larger than the left

A

Right horn

186
Q

The coronary sinus comes from which horn

A

Left sinus horn

187
Q

The smooth part of the right atrium comes from the

A

Sinus venarum

188
Q

The septa form from

A

4 av endocardial cushions

189
Q

At week 4, a crest of tissue called _ grows from the roof of the atrium. Then _ forms and eventually _ forms through both of them

A

Septum primum
Septum secundum
Foramen ovale

190
Q

Truncal and bulbar ridges are formed from

A

Neural crest cells

191
Q

How does the aorticopulmonary septum form

A

180˚ twist of truncal and bulbar ridges

192
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect

A

Ventricular septal defect

193
Q

What is VSD

A

Failure of IV septum to completely form

194
Q

4 symptoms of tetralogy of fallot

A

Pulmonary artery stenosis
VSD
Dextroposition of aorta
R ventricular hypertrophy

195
Q

Other names for aortic arch arteries

A

Pharyngeal arch arteries

Branchial (gill) arch arteries

196
Q

7 aortic arches, dorsal aorta, aortic sac and all their derivatives

A
  1. maxillary a
  2. Stapedial/ hyoid a
  3. Common carotid
  4. L-part of aortic arch
    R- part of r. Subclavian
  5. L-pulmonary a/ductus arteriosus
    R-pulmonary a
    7th segmental a. - subclavian
    Dorsal aorta
    -L descending thoracic aorta
    -R part of r subclavian
    Aortic sac
    -L part of aortic arch
    -R brachiocephalic trunk
197
Q

What does the left recurrent laryngeal get stuck on to make it sit lower than the right

A

Ligamentum arteriosum (6th arch)

198
Q

The intercostal and lumbar aa form from _

A

Intersegmental arteries

199
Q

Vitelline a. Forms two arteries

A

Celiac a.

Superior mesenteric a

200
Q

Umbilical a. Forms the - and with a secondary connection with the dorsal aorta, forms the _. After birth, proximal portions become the _ and _

A

Inferior mesenteric a.
Common iliac a.
Internal ilian
Superior vesical

201
Q

The three major veins in the embryonic venous system are:

A

Vitelline veins
Umbilical veins
Cardinal veins

202
Q

Umbilical veins carry _ from placenta to embryo

A

Oxygenated blood

203
Q

How do hepatic sinusoids form

A

Liver cords invade vitelline veins

204
Q

IVC and SVC come from part of the _ veins

A

Vitelline

205
Q

Ductus venosus forms from _

A

Umbilical veins

206
Q

L umbilical v will become _

Ductus venosus becomes _

A

Ligamentum teres hepatis

Ligamentum venosum

207
Q

Posterior cardinal veins become what 2

A

Common iliac veins

Sacral portion of IVC

208
Q

Ant. Cardinal veins become what 3

A

Brachiocephalic v
Int. Jugular
Ext. jugular

209
Q

Supracardinal vv become what 4

A

Intercostal v
Hemiazygous v
Azygous v
Segment of IVC inf. To kidneys

210
Q

Subcardinal vv become what 3

A

(Kidneys and around kidneys)
Renal veins
Gonadal veins
Renal segment of IVC

211
Q

Common cardinal v becomes what

A

SVC

212
Q

6 primary lymph sacs

A

Jugular (2)
Iliac (2)
Retroperitoneal
Cisterna chyli

213
Q

Basic functions of the cortex

A

Language
Abstract thinking
Adapt to environment

214
Q

Neocortex has _ layers

A

6

215
Q

Most prevalent type of neuron

A

Pyramidal cells

216
Q

T/F pyramidal cells are inhibitory

A

False, excitatory glutamate synapses

217
Q

Dendritic spines are involved in what

A

Modified as a result of learning

218
Q

Length of pyramidal cells vs. non-pyramidal cells

A

Pyramidal are long and can extend to other places

Non are short and remain in cortex

219
Q

Non-pyramidal cells make _ synapses

A

Inhibitory (GABA)

220
Q

3 types of nonpyramidal cells

A

Spiny stellate (excitatory)
Smooth stellate
Bipolar

221
Q

Five sources of afferents to cortex

Where theyre from

A

Association fibers (from ipsi. Cortex)
Commissural fibers
Thalamocortical fibers (relay/assoc. nuc)
Non-specific thalamocortical fibers (intralam. Nuc)
Cholinergic and aminergic (basal forebrain, hypothal., brainstem)

222
Q

All efferents from cortex are _ cells and all are _

A

Pyramidal cells

Excitatory

223
Q

6 types of efferents from cortex

A 
Short association (sens to motor)
Long association (pref. To motor)
Commissural (contra cerebrum via cc)
Primary sensory/motor cortex
Thalamus
Corticopontine/spinal/bulbar
224
Q

Commissures do what

A

Interconnect the cerebral hemispheres

225
Q

Smell crosses at the

A

Anterior commissure

226
Q

What is alexia without agraphia and how is it caused

A

Can write but can’t read

From white matter damage (disconnection syndrome)

227
Q

What are association bundles

A

Nerves that interconnect areas of one hemisphere

228
Q

Neocortex shows _ specialization

A

Regional

229
Q

4 types of cortical regions

A

Primary motor
Primary sensory
Association
Limbic

230
Q

3 parietal lobe functions

A

Initial processing of tactile and proprioceptive info (postcentral)

Language comprehension (left inf. Parietal lobe)

Complex aspects of spatial orientation and directing attention

231
Q

Primary visual cortex is in _

A

Banks of calcarine sulcus

232
Q

LGN gets input from _ and is arranged how

A

Eyes

In 6 layers

233
Q

LGN projects to _

A

Primary visual cortex

234
Q

How do optic radiations end and where

A

Retinotopically above and below calcarine sulcus

Inferior above calcarine
Superior below

Macula posterior
Peripheral anterior

235
Q

What does the primary visual cortex do in vision

It is an example of _

A

Breaks down visual info into component parts

Distributes this info to specialized parts

Example of simultaneous parallel processing

236
Q

In the cortex, neurons are functionally arranged in +

A

Columns

237
Q

The gustatory part of the cortex is in what two places

A

Frontal lobe

Insula

238
Q

T/F the primary olfactory cortex is neocortical

A

FALSE, it is paleocortical

239
Q

Unimodal association cortex does what

Multimodal?

A

Elaborating on business of primary area

High level intellectual functions

240
Q

The dominant hemisphere is the _

A

One that produces and comprehends language (usually left)

241
Q

Why does the left lateral sulcus extend farther than the right

A

The planum temporale is larger on left

242
Q

Language areas are near the left lateral sulcus which is close to _

A

Motor cortex controlling mouth

243
Q

Broca’s area is where

Wernickes?

A

Broca: inferior frontal gyrus

Wernicke: posterior part of superior temporal gyrus

244
Q

Two types of aphasia and what causes them

A

Nonfluent:

  • few written/spoken words
  • can comprehend language
  • damage in broca’s area

Fluent:

  • word salad
  • can write
  • make up new words
  • don’t comprehend language wellq
245
Q

Damage to broca’s area does what?

Wernicke’s?

A

B: motor areas can’t generate language (frontal lobe)
-can still comprehend
W: words generated but no meaning

246
Q

What connects wernickes and brocas areas

A

Arcuate fasciculus

247
Q

With which parts of language does the right hemi deal?

A

Musical aspects of speech (prosody)

Emotional content

248
Q

Damage to parietal cortex results in

A

Sensory specific agnosia
Can’t recognize faces
Can’t perceive movement

249
Q

Right parietal lobe damage results in trouble with _

A

Left half of body

Ignore left half of body

250
Q

Apraxias comes from injury to _

A

Left parietal lobe

Lack of action

251
Q

Two types of prefrontal cortex, functions

A

Dorsolateral - working memory, problem solving

Ventromedial - damage makes people impulsive, inappropriate

252
Q

Fibrous rings and fibrous trigones of the heart are made of _ tissue

A

Dense irregular

253
Q

The fibrous skeleton of the heart is in which layer

A

Myocardium

254
Q

Three components of the endocardium

A

Endothelial cells
Subendothelial layer
Subendocardial layer

255
Q

R AV Valve:

L AV Valve

A

Tricuspid

Bicuspid/mitral

256
Q

Three layers of the heart valves

A

Spongiosa - loose conn. Covered in endothelium, on atrial side of valve

Fibrosa - core of valve, dense irregular extensions from skeletal rings

Ventricularis - dense connective tissue with layers of elastic, on ventricular side of valve

257
Q

Two types of cardiac conducting cells

A

Nodal cardiac cells

Purkinje fibers

258
Q

Heart conducting cell path

A 
SA node
AV node
AV bundle (of His)
R/L bundle branches
Purkinje fibers
259
Q

Blood in arteries first goes through _ or _ arteries, then _ or _ arteries, then arterioles or _ vessels

A

Elastic or conducting
Muscular or distributing
Resistance

260
Q

Layers of blood vessels

A 
Tunica Intima (interna)
 -endothelium
 -basal lamina
 -subendothelial layer
Tunica media
Tunica externa (adventitia)
261
Q

Thickest layer in arteries/veins

A

A: media
V: externa

262
Q

Elastic arteries, muscular arteries, small arteries, arterioles diameter

A

Elastic > 10 mm > muscular > 2 mm > small > 0.1 mm > arterioles > 100 µm

263
Q

Three types of capillaries

A

Continuous
Fenestrated
Discontinuous

264
Q

Fenestrated capillaries are found in _

A

Endocrine glands

265
Q

Discontinuous capillaries are found in which 3 places

A

Liver
Spleen
Bone marrow

266
Q

Another name for AV anastamoses is

A

Metarteriole-thoroughfare channel

267
Q

Blood flow through capillary beds is regulated by

A

Precapillary sphincters

268
Q

Precapillary sphincters contract/relax

A

Relax: blood to capillary beds
Contract: blood to AV anastomoses

269
Q

Size of veins

A

10, 1, .1, 0.01

270
Q

Valves in veins are a part of the _ layer

A

Tunica intima

271
Q

3 functions of lymphatic system

A 
Drain interstitial fluid
Alternative transport route
 -hormones
 -nutrients
 -waste
Immune response
272
Q

Organs included as components of lymphatic system

A

Spleen
Bone marrow
Thymus

273
Q

Lymphatic vessels begin as _ and travel within _

A

Blind ended capillaries

Loose connective tissue

274
Q

Why do lymphatic capillaries have high permeability

A

Tubes lack continuous basal lamina

275
Q

Extracellular fluid vs. lymph

A

Lymph once it’s in lymphatic vessel

276
Q

T/F there is a central pump in the lymphatic system

A

FALSE

277
Q

Two main lymphatic channels

A

Thoracic duct - majority of body

R lymphatic duct - RUL, right thorax, right head/neck

278
Q

Lymphatic vessels vs. blood vessel slides

A

No RBCs in lymphatic vessels

279
Q

Lymphocytes

A

B, T, NK

280
Q

B cells are what % of lymphocytes

T cells?

NK?

A

20-30

60-80

5-10

281
Q

Diffuse lymph. Tissue is found where

A

Alimentary canal
Resp. Tract
Genitourinary tract

282
Q

T/F diffuse lymphatic tissue is surrounded by connective tissue capsule

T/F lymph nodes are surrounded by connective tissue capsule

A

FALSE

FALSE

283
Q

1˚ vs. 2˚ nodules

A

Secondary has light staining germinal center in middle

284
Q

Two areas of secondary nodules

A

Germinal center - response to antigen, when lymphocyte binds antigen, returns, proliferates

Mantle zone - small lymphocytes

285
Q

Aggregations of lymphatic nodules are found in what 3 places

A

Tonsils
Peyer’s patches
Vermiform appendix

286
Q

Tonsils on slides

A

Have tonsillar crypts

Have lymphatic nodules

287
Q

MALT

GALT BALT

A

Mucosa
Gut
Bronchus

288
Q

T/F lymph nodes are encapsulated

A

TRUE

289
Q

Reticular cells do what

A

Make and secrete reticular fibers and ground substance

Supporting role

Express surface molecules to attract T/B/dendritic cells

290
Q

FDC’s

A

Follicular dendritic cells
Long cytoplasmic processes b/t B cells in germinal centers
Trap antigens
Stimulate B cells

291
Q

Parenchyma of lymph node is divided into what two parts

A

Cortex

Medulla

292
Q

Cortex has which two parts

A 
Superficial (nodular)
 -1˚ nodules - small lymphocytes
 -2˚ nodules - germinal centers
Deep (paranodular)
 -majority of T cells
293
Q

Medulla consists of what

A

Medullary cords separated by medullary sinuses

294
Q

Filtration of lymph occurs where

A

Sinuses (subcapsular, trabecular, medullary)

295
Q

From blood, lymphocytes enter lymph nodes through

A

HEV

296
Q

What happens in the thymus after puberty

A

T cell differentiation and proliferation are reduced

297
Q

The thymus looks like

A

A giraffe

298
Q

The lines around the spots of the thymus are

A

Trabeculae

299
Q

Thymus medulla characteristic feature, made of _

A

Thymic (Hassall’s) corpuscles

Type VI epithelioreticular cells (flattened nuclei, eosinophilic)

300
Q

Epithelioreticular cells in cortex and medulla of thymus

A

I, II, III in cortex

IV, V, VI in medulla

301
Q

Spleen contains two pulps

A

Red: filters blood
Splenic sinuses
Splenic cords (billroth)

White: splenic artery, central artery
PALS - lymphocyte agg. Around central art.

302
Q

Splenic sinus wall

A

Lattice to let blood cells pass through

Macrophage processes extend b/t cells to look for antigen

303
Q

Lung bud separates from foregut how

A

Tracheoesophageal septum forms

304
Q

Laryngeal cartilages and musculature arise from phary arch

A

4/6

305
Q

Epiglottis forms from

A

Mesenchyme of caudal hypopharyngeal eminence

306
Q

Lary mm. From 4th arch are innervated by _

Lary mm arising from 6th arch are innervated by _

A

Superior laryngeal n.

Recurrent laryngeal n.

307
Q

Lung bud divides into how many bronchial buds

A

2 primary buds
Right: 3 secondary, 10 tertiary
Left: 2 secondary, 8 tertiary

308
Q

Splanchnic mesoderm becomes _

Somatic mesoderm becomes _

A

Visceral pleura

Parietal pleura

309
Q

Pseudoglandular period
Canalicular period
Terminal sac
Alveolar

A

PG: 5-16
Can: 16-26
TS: 26 to birth
Alv. 8 mo to childhood

310
Q

Why can’t babies born up to 16 weeks (pseudoglandular) survive

A

No terminal sacs

311
Q

Surfactant production begins

A

20-22 weeks

312
Q

3 functions of resp system

A

Air conduction
Air filtration
Gas exchange

313
Q

Olfactory epithelium

A

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

314
Q

2 functional divisions of resp sys

A

Conducting div

Respiratory div

315
Q

Epithelial types of the three parts of the pharynx

A

Naso: ciliated ps columnar
Oro: non-ker strat squamous
Lary: non-ker strat squamous

316
Q

Vestibular folds covered in _

Vocal folds covered in _

A

Respiratory ep

Non-ker strat squam

317
Q

Why is there no cartilage on the posterior side of the trachea

A

Esophagus needs room to expand

318
Q

How does the resp system change as you get farther on

A

Less cartilage
More smooth muscle
Shorter ps columnar ep cell

319
Q

80% of terminal bronchiole epithelium, what do they do

A

Clara cells, make surfactant

320
Q

Respiratory bronchiole epithelium

A

Cuboidal

321
Q

Progression from respiratory bronchioles

A

Resp bronchioles
Alveolar duct
Alveolar sacs
Alveoli

322
Q

Alveolar duct walls

A

Almost no walls

323
Q

of alveoli per lung

A

150-250 million

324
Q

What separates alveoli

A

Interalveolar septa

325
Q

5 cells of alveoli

A 
Type I alveolar (squamous)
Type II alveolar (cuboidal)
Alveolar macrophages (dust cell)
Endothelial cells
Fibroblasts
326
Q

Air-blood barrier is made of

A
  1. Surface lining and cytoplasm of alveolar cells
  2. Fused basal laminae of alveolar cells/capillary endothelial cells
  3. Cytoplasm of endothelial cells
327
Q

The four important parts of a rib

A

Head
Tubercle
Angle
Costal groove

328
Q

The pectoral region of the thoracic wall is supplied by _ a/v and _ nn

A

Internal thoracic a/v

Lat/ant. nn. Of 4th to 6th intercostal nn

329
Q

Pec minor is enveloped in

A

Clavipectoral fascia

330
Q

Intercostally, from sup to inf. The order of the vessels/nerves is:

A 
V
A
N
N
A
V
331
Q

Obfusion of the lung

A

White stuff over the lung in the radiograph

332
Q

Pneumothorax vs. hemothorax

A

Air in pleural cavity

Blood in pleural cavity

333
Q

Where do you do a pleural tap

A

ICS 6/7

lower you’ll hit diaphragm, liver, spleen

334
Q

_ lung has horizontal fissure

A

R

335
Q

R lung has _ depressions

L lung has _ depressions

A

S/IVC

Aorta

336
Q

Tracheal bifurcation is at _ level

A

T4

337
Q

3 things in the root of the lung

A

Bronchi
Pulmonary vessels
Pulmonary ligament

338
Q

Sympathetic trunk for lungs

A

Paravertebral

Dilates lungs

339
Q

What does the vagus do to the lungs

A

Constricts bronchioles

340
Q

The _ nn pass posteriorly to the root of the lung, but the _ pass anteriorly

A

Vagus n

Phrenic
Pericardiacophrenic vessels

341
Q

Pericardiacophrenic vessels are branches of

A

Int. Thoracic and

Brachiocephalic

342
Q

Divisions of the mediastinum

A 
Superior
Inferior
 -ant.
 -mid.
 -post.
343
Q

The mediastinum extends from _ to _

A

Thoracic inlet

12th thoracic vertebra

344
Q

The two parts of the pericardium

A

Fibrous (attached to diaphragm)

Serous (parietal/visceral)

345
Q

8 things to pierce pericardium

A 
SVC
IVC
Aorta
Pulm trunk
4 pulm vv.
346
Q

Pericardial effusion

A

Fluid in cavity, compression of heart

347
Q

Auscultation points for heart

A

L/R 2nd rib

5th rib space next to sternum, midclavicular

348
Q

Interventricular septum is supplied by

A

R/L coronary arteries. R does sup 1/3

349
Q

Great cardiac vein

Middle cardiac vein

A

Anterior

Posterior

350
Q

The _ is used for coronary artery bypass grafts

A

Great saphenous vein

351
Q

Heart receives sympathetic innervation from _

Parasymp from _

A

T1-T5

Vagus

352
Q

Superior mediastinum ends at

A

Sternal angle

353
Q

Aortic arch begins and ends at

A

T4-T5

354
Q

3 great arteries from aortic arch

A

Brachiocephalic trunk
L common carotid
L subclavian

355
Q

Phrenic nerves come from _

A

C3-C5

356
Q

Tracheal bifurcation is called

A

Carina

357
Q

The _ side off the carina is shorter, wider and more vertical

The _ side off the carina is longer and things get stuck here

A

R

L

358
Q

Arteries to esophagus

A

Thoracic
Bronchial
Ascending L gastic

359
Q

Hiatal hernia types

A 
Sliding
 -stomach slides into thorax
Paraesophageal
 -fixed is dangerous
 -fundus moves into thorax
360
Q

The two spaces posterior to the posterior mediastinum

A

Danger space

Retropharyngeal

361
Q

The L vagus makes the _ and the R vagus makes the _

A

L-anterior

R-posterior

362
Q

The azygous v drains what

Hemiazygous and accessory azygous drain what

A

Azy - intercostal vv. From R side to SVC

Hemiazy/acc azy - L thorax to azy

363
Q

The thoracic duct enters at

A

Venous angle between L subclavian and L IJV

364
Q

Chylothorax

A

Lymph in pleural cavity from lymphoma or trauma during thoracic surgery

365
Q

The splanch are _ fibers
The greater splanch gets fibers from:
Lesser:
Least:

A

Pregang symp (gang on organs)
G: T5-T9
L: T10/11
Least: 12

366
Q

Parasymp to thoracic cavity come from

A

vagus

367
Q

3 thoracic plexuses

A

Cardiac
Pulmonary
Esophageal

Anatomy (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions