Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Reticular layer is made of ___ ___ tissue

A

Dense irregular

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2
Q

Innermost layer of pacinian corpuscle is ___ cells

A

Schwann

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3
Q

Hair follicles are in ___ skin only

A

Thin

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4
Q

Eccrine sweat glands are involved in ___

A

Thermoregulation

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5
Q

Eccrine sweat glands are ___ ___ ___ glands

A

Simple coiled tubule

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6
Q

Apocrine sweat glands are associated with ___ ___ and become functional at ___. They are located in ___ and ___ regions

A

Hair follicles
Puberty
Axillary, pubic

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7
Q

Thick skin is located on the ___ of the ___ and the ___ of the ___

A

Palms of the hands

Soles of the feet

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8
Q

Keratinocytes make up ___% of cells in epidermis

A

85

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9
Q

Stratum basale is made of ___ ___ epithelium

A

Simple cuboidal

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10
Q

Stratum basale are dark colored because they are filled with ___ that make ___

A

Ribosomes

Keratin

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11
Q

Stratum granulosum has ___ granules

A

Keratohyalin

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12
Q

5 layers of epithelium

A
B
S
G
L
C
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13
Q

___ cells have endocrine functions in epithelium

A

Langerhans

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14
Q

Langerhans cells are located in the ___ ___

A

Stratum spinosum

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15
Q

Merkel’s cells are associated with ___ neurons

A

Sensory

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16
Q

The two layers of the dermis are the ___ and the ___ layer of dermis

A

Papillary and the reticular

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17
Q

Papillary layer of the dermis is made of ___ ___ tissue and the reticular layer of the dermis is made of ___ ___ tissue

A

Loose connective

Dense connective

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18
Q

The ___ ___ looks like a red onion

A

Pacinian corpuscle

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19
Q

The 4 epidermal derivatives are:

A

Hair follicles/ hair
Sweat glands
Sebaceous glands
Nails

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20
Q

The 6 functions of the integumentary system are:

A
Exocrine
Protective
Immunologic
Sensory
Homeostasis
Endocrine
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21
Q

Epidermis is derived from ___

A

Ectoderm

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22
Q

Dermis is derived from ___

A

Mesoderm

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23
Q

The ___ layer of epidermis is not present in thin skin

A

Stratum lucidum

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24
Q

Melanocytes are ___ % of epidermal cells

A

5%

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25
Q

Langerhans’ cells are ___% of epidermis

A

4

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26
Q

Merkel’s cells are ___% of epidermis

A

6

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27
Q

Keratin filaments are classified as ___ ___ or ___

A

Intermediate filaments

Tonofilaments

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28
Q

Keratinocytes participate in formation of the water barrier via production of ___ ___

A

Lamellar bodies

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29
Q

Production of intermediate (keratin) filaments begins in the ___ ___

A

Stratum basale

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30
Q

Cells in stratum spinosum are attached to other cells via ___

A

Desmosomes

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31
Q

Bundles of intermediate filaments are called ___

A

Tonofibrils

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32
Q

Production of ___ ___ and ___ ___ begins in stratum spinosum

A

Keratohyalin granules

Lamellar bodies

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33
Q

Conversion of granular cells to cornified cells is called ___

A

Keratinization

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34
Q

Lamellar bodies are released within the ___ ___

A

Stratum granulosum

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35
Q

Cells in stratum corneum are filled 85% filled with ___

A

Keratin

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36
Q

Melanin is synthesized and stored in ___ of the melanocytes

A

Melanosomes

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37
Q

Melanocyte cell bodies are located in the ___ ___ and the processes extend into the ___ ___

A

Stratum basale

Stratum spinosum

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38
Q

Antigen presenting cells (langerhan’s cells) are found in the ___ ___

A

Stratum spinosum

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39
Q

Langerhan’s cells are derived from ___ ___

A

Bone marrow

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40
Q

Antigen from langerhan’s cells go to ___ ___

A

T lymphocytes

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41
Q

Merkel’s cells are located in the ___ ___

A

Stratum basale

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42
Q

The three major types of skin cancer are ___ ___ ___, ___ ___ ___ and ___ ___

A

Basal cell carcinoma
Squamous cells carcinoma
Malignant melanoma

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43
Q

___ ___ ___ is the most common type of skin cancer and resembles cells of stratum basale

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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44
Q

___ ___ is the most serious form of skin cancer

A

Malignant melanoma

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45
Q

Reticular layer of the dermis is made of ___ ___ ___ tissue

A

Dense irregular connective

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46
Q

There are fewer cells in the ___ ___ of the dermis

A

Reticular layer

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47
Q

Pacinian corpuscles are found in the ___ and the ___

A

Dermis and the hypodermis

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48
Q

Pacinian corpuscles are ___ ___ ___ surrounded by a capsule of ___ ___

A

Myelinated nerve endings

Concentric lamellar

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49
Q

Pacinian corpuscles detect ___ and ___

A

Pressure and vibration

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50
Q

___ ___ are located within dermal papillae of hairless cells

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

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51
Q

Flattened ___ ___ form lamellae of meissner’s corpuscles

A

Schwann cells

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52
Q

Meissner’s corpuscles detect ___ ___

A

Light touch

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53
Q

Eccrine sweat glands are ___ ___ ___ glands

A

Simple coiled tubular

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54
Q

*

A

So

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55
Q

Chrondroblasts are derived from ___

A

Mesenchyme

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56
Q

Chondroblasts ___ the extracellular matrix

A

Secrete

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57
Q

Chondrocytes ___ the extra cellular matrix

A

Maintain

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58
Q

Eccrine glands secrete by ___ secretion

A

Merocrine

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59
Q

The ___ portion of eccrine glands stain darker

A

Duct

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60
Q

Apocrine glands are ___ ___ glands

A

Coiled tubular

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61
Q

___ sweat glands are wider

A

Apocrine

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62
Q

The secretory portion of apocrine ducts are made of ___ ___ epithelium and the duct portion of apocrine glands are made of ___ ___ epithelium

A

Simple cuboidal

Stratified cuboidal

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63
Q

Sebaceous glands are found everywhere but ___ skin

A

Thick

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64
Q

Sebaceous glands secrete by ___ secretion

A

Holocrine

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65
Q

The two types of ossification are ___ and ___ ossification

A

Intramembranous and endochondral

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66
Q

Chondroblasts come from ___ ___ cells

A

Mesenchymal stem

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67
Q

The two mechanisms of cartilage growth are ___ and ___ growth

A

Appositional and interstitial

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68
Q

The three types of cartilage are ___, ___ and ___ cartilage

A

Hyaline, elastic and fibrocartilage

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69
Q

___ cartilage is the most common in the body

A

Hyaline

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70
Q

Type ___ collagen fibers are unable to been seen in hist. Sections

A

II

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71
Q

6 locations of hyaline cartilage

A
Articular surfaces
Nose
Larynx
Tracheal rings
Epiphyseal plates
Fetal bone models
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72
Q

T/F perichondrium is present in hyaline cartilage

A

T, not around articular cartilage (would be easily damaged)

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73
Q

High concentration of ___ ___s make hyaline cartilage basophilic

A

Sulfated GAGs

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74
Q

How to tell chondrocytes from chondroblasts

A

Chondroblasts are towards the periphery and chondrocytes are isolated in matrix

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75
Q

Elastic cartilage has a ECM made of type ___ collagen

A

II

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76
Q

4 places elastic cartilage is found

A

Auricle
Auditory canal
Auditory tube
Epiglottis

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77
Q

T/F: perichondrium is present in elastic cartilage

A

T

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78
Q

Fibrocartilage has type ___ collagen

A

I

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79
Q

3 general places for fibrocartilage

A

Intervertebral discs
Pubis symphysis
Major tendon-bone anchorages

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80
Q

T/F perichondrium is present in fibrocartilage

A

F

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81
Q

Osteoblasts come from ___ ___ cells but osteoclasts come from ___

A

Mesenchymal stem cells

Monocytes

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82
Q

The 5 types of bone based on shape are:

A
Long
Short
Flat
Irregular
Sesamoid
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83
Q

The 3 different parts of a long bone are:

A

Epiphysis
Metaphysis
Diaphysis

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84
Q

___ fibers connect the periosteum to the bone

A

Sharpey’s

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85
Q

4 cell types in bone

A

Osetogenic cell
Osteoblasts
Osteocytes
Osteoclasts

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86
Q

GAGs are a type of _ _ _

A

BMP

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87
Q

Osteocalsin is a ___ _ dependent protein that signals for ___ of osteoid and for inorganic to be laid on organic portion

A

Vitamin K

Calcification

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88
Q

The inorganic part of bone ECM is made of ___ ___

A

Hydroxyapatite crystals

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89
Q

___ ___ become ___ which become osteocytes

A

Osteogenic cells

Osteoblasts

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90
Q

___ have a ruffled border

A

Osteoclasts

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91
Q

___ or ___ bone has lamellae

A

Lamellar or mature bone

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92
Q

The ___ line is the outer boundary of each osteon

A

Cement

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93
Q

What are the 5 zones at the epiphyseal plate?

A
Rest zone
Zone of proliferating cartilage
Zone of hypertrophy
Zone of calcified cartilage
Zone of ossification
Real
Pubs
Have
Coke
Only
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94
Q

The ___ of ___ ___ stains most basophilic

A

Zone of proliferating cartilage

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95
Q

In muscle, cytoplasm is called ___

A

Sarcoplasm

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96
Q

___ muscle is strong, quick and discontinuous

A

Skeletal

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97
Q

___ muscle is strong, quick and continuous

A

Cardiac

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98
Q

___ muscle is weak, slow and involuntary

A

Smooth

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99
Q

The 4 special characteristics of muscle tissue are

A

Excitability
Contractility
Extensibility
Elasticity

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100
Q

Skeletal muscle has ___, ___ nuclei

A

Peripheral, oval nuclei

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101
Q

Skeletal muscle cells have ___ nuclei

A

Multiple

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102
Q

In a cross section of skeletal muscle, the nuclei are at the ___

A

Periphery

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103
Q

In cardiac muscle, the nuclei are located in the ___

A

Center

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104
Q

Cardiac cells have ___ nuclei

A

1

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105
Q

Smooth muscle is different than the others because it is ___

A

Nonstriated

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106
Q

Smooth muscle have ___ nucle* per cell

A

One

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107
Q

Smooth muscle can sometimes have a ___ nucleus

A

Corkscrew

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108
Q

The three types of skeletal muscle are:

A

Type I
Type IIa
Type IIb

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109
Q

Type I fibers are ___, ___ oxidative fibers

A

Slow, red oxidative

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110
Q

Type IIa fibers are ___, ___ ___ glycolytic fibers

A

Fast, intermediate oxidative

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111
Q

Type IIb fibers are ___, ___ ___ fibers

A

Fast, white glycolytic

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112
Q

Type I fibers have many ___ and lots of ___

A

Mitochondria and lots of myoglobin

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113
Q

Type 1 skeletal muscle fibers derive energy from ___ ___ ___ of fatty acids

A

Aerobic oxidative phosphorylation

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114
Q

An example of type I fibers are ___ muscles because they are have slow, continuous contractions over long periods of time

A

Posture

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115
Q

In muscle fibers, ___ gives the fibers a pale or white appearance

A

Glycogen

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116
Q

Type IIa fibers have many ___ and lots of ___ AND ___

A

Mitochondria and lots of myoglobin AND glycogen

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117
Q

Type IIb fibers have fewer ___ and ___ but lots of ___

A

Mitochondria and myoglobin

Glycogen

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118
Q

Type IIb fibers produce energy from both ___ ___ and ___ ___

A

Oxidative metabolism and

Anaerobic glycolysis

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119
Q

Type IIb fibers derive energy primarily from ___ ___

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

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120
Q

A bands are the portion of the sarcomere where ___ is located

A

Myosin

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121
Q

Triads are made of 2 ___ of ___ ___ and one _ ___

A

Tubules of sarcoplasmic reticulum

T tubule

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122
Q

A fine control motor unit is made of __ motor neuron and __ muscle fiber

A

1

1

123
Q

Motor neuron activation and muscle fiber contraction (16 steps)

A
  1. Action potential travels to axon terminal
  2. Calcium enters axon terminal
  3. Calcium triggers release of ACh
  4. ACh diffuses from axon terminals to motor end plate in muscle fiber
  5. ACh binds to nicotinic receptors on motor end plate, increasing Na and K permeability
  6. Na moves in to the fiber and K moves out, creating end plate potential
  7. Local currents depolarize the adjacent muscle cell, creating action potential that travels to T tubules
  8. Action potential in T tubules stimulates release of Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum
  9. Ca binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin to unblock binding sites on actin
  10. Myosin binds to actin
  11. Cross-bridge binding triggers release of ATP hydrolysis products from myosin, producing an angular movement of each cross bridge
  12. ATP binds to myosin, breaking actin-myosin cross-bridge
  13. ATP bound to myosin is split, energizing myosin cross-bridge
  14. Repeat 10-13
  15. Ca in cytosol decreases as Ca is moved into SR
  16. Ca is removed from troponin and actin site is blocked again
124
Q

The 3 connective sheaths associated with skeletal muscle:

A

Endomysium
Perimysium
Eipmysium

125
Q

4 components of a muscle (organ)

A

Skeletal muscle tissue
Vessels
Nerve fibers
Connective tissue

126
Q

There are larger mitochondria in ___ muscle

A

Cardiac

127
Q

___ muscle cells are long, cylindrical, but ___ cells are short fat and branched

A

Skeletal

Cardiac

128
Q

___ muscle has intercalated discs

A

Cardiac

129
Q

___ muscle cells have a simple SR, whereas ___ muscle cells have more complex SR

A

Cardiac

Skeletal

130
Q

Smooth muscle looks ___ when it is in a contracted state

A

Twisted

131
Q

There is ~__ L of blood in a body, or %-% total body weight

A

6 L

7%-8%

132
Q

The two parts of blood are ___ ___ and ___

A

Formed elements

Plasma

133
Q

The two types of formed elements are ___ and ___ ___

A

Cells

Cell fragments

134
Q

Hematocrit is the volume of ___ ___ ___ in a sample of blood

A

Red blood cells

135
Q

Normal hematocrit for men is __-__%

Normal hematocrit for women is __-__%

A

39-50%

35-45%

136
Q

Plasma is __% water, __% protein and __% other salutes

A

92
7
1

137
Q

3 primary plasma proteins are

A

Albumin
Globulins
Fibrinogen

138
Q

___ makes up half of the plasma proteins

A

Albumin

139
Q

Albumin exerts ___ ___, helps maintain ___ ___

A

Concentration gradient

Osmotic pressure

140
Q

Blood smears are stained with ___ ___

A

Wrights’ stain

141
Q

The diameter of a RBC is ___ µm
Edge thickness of RBC is ___µm
Central thickness of RBC is ___µm

A
  1. 8
  2. 6
  3. 8
142
Q

Lifespan of an RBC is ___ days

A

120

143
Q

Each hemoglobin protein binds __ O2 molecules

A

4

144
Q

Leukocytes are classified on the presence of ___ ___ and ___ ___

A

Polymorphonuclear Granulocytes

Mononuclear Agranulocytes

145
Q

The 3 types of polymorphonuclear granulocytes are:

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

146
Q

Multilobed nuclei and specific granules are contained in ___ ___

A

Polymorphonuclear granulocytes

147
Q

___ ___ have no specific granules, contain azurophilic granules and have rounded nuclei

A

Mononuclear agranulocytes

148
Q

___ are the most numerous leukocytes

A

Neutrophils

149
Q

Neutrophil granules contain ___ and ___

A

Lysozyme and peroxidases

150
Q

___ have nuclei with several lobes

A

Neutrophils

151
Q

___ are first responders to infection

A

Neutrophils

152
Q

___ accumulate as pus

A

Neutrophils

153
Q

___ have a light, bilobed nucleus

A

Eosinophils

154
Q

___ are the least abundant leukocyte

A

Basophils

155
Q

Eosinophil granules contain ___, ___ and ___

Basophil granules contain ___, ___ and ___ ___

A

Peroxidase, histaminase and arylsulfatase

Histamine, serotonin and heparin sulfate

156
Q

Lymphocytes are __-__% of leukocytes

A

26-28%

157
Q

Nuclei in lymphocytes are ___, ___ and slightly indented

A

Dark, large

158
Q

The three types of lymphocytes are:

A

T Lymphocytes
B Lymphocytes
Natural Killer Cells

159
Q

___ lymphocytes produce antibodies

A

B

160
Q

___ lymphocytes have cell-mediated immunity

___ lymphocytes have humoral immunity

A

T

B

161
Q

___ differentiate into macrophages

A

Monocytes

162
Q

___ have a grey foamy texture

A

Monocytes

163
Q

Monocyte vs. lymphocyte

A

Monocyte is larger and has lighter colored horseshoe nucleus, lymphocyte is smaller and has a darker nucleus

164
Q

Most common to least common leukocytes

A
Neutrophil
Lymphocyte
Monocyte
Eosinophil
Basophil
165
Q

Thrombocytes are derived from ___

A

Megakaryocytes

166
Q

Monocytes come from ___ stem cells

A

Hematopoietic

167
Q

A HSC can become a ___ or a ___

A

Common myeloid progenitor

Common lymphoid progenitor

168
Q

CLPs can only become (3 things)

A

NK cells
T cells
B cells

169
Q

CMP can become (7 things, Ed)

A
Dendritic cell
Neutrophil
Mast cell
Eosinophil
Macrophage
Platelets
Erythrocytes
Do
Not
Make
Extra
Mashed
Potatoes
Ed
170
Q

Potentiality and mitotic rate are ___ related

A

Inversely

171
Q

The steps to become an erythroblast:

A
HSC
CMP
MEP
ErP
PE
BE
PE
OE
PEc
172
Q

Granulocytes go from ___ to ___ to ___ to ___ to mature cells

A

Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte

173
Q

Megakaryocytes send out ___ that break off as platelets

A

Extensions

174
Q

Bone marrow cellularity =

A

100 - age +/- 10%

175
Q

The trapezius m. Does what 3 things

A

Elevates, depresses and retracts scapula

176
Q

What nerves Innervate the trapezius m.?

A

Accessory nerve and C3 and C4

177
Q

What a/v supply the trapezius?

A

Transverse cervical

178
Q

Lat. dorsi does what 3 things

A

Adducts, extends and medically rotates humerus

179
Q

What nerve and which vessels supply the lat

A

Thoracodorsal n.
Thoracodorsal vessels
Intercostal vessels

180
Q

Which 3 nerves innervate the levator scapula

A

C3, C4 and dorsal scapular nerves

181
Q

Rhomboid major and minor do what

A

Retract (adduct), and elevate scapula

182
Q

What vessels and nerve supply the rhomboid muscles

A

Dorsal scapular n and vessels

183
Q

Splenius capitus muscle 3 functions

A

Draw head backward
Extend neck
Rotate head/face (ipsilaterally)

184
Q

Splenius cervicis m actions

A

Bilaterally extend neck

Rotate head/face ipsilaterally

185
Q

Splenius capitus and cervicis Nerve innervation

A

Posterior rami of the middle and lower cervical n.

186
Q

The 3 muscles that make up the deep suboccipital triangle are:

And the other that is there but isn’t part of the triangle is:

A

Obliquus capitus superior
Obliquus capitus inferior
Rectus capitis posterior major
Rectus capitis posterior minor

187
Q

The nerve that serves the occipital region is the ___ ___ nerve (_ _)

The vessels to the occipital region are the:

A

Greater occipital nerve (C2)

Occipital a/v

188
Q

The deep muscles of the back are the ___ ___ and the ___ and ____

A

Erector spinae
Multifidus
Rotatores

189
Q

The three minor deep muscles of the back are the ___, ___ and the ___

A

Interspinalis
Intertransversarius
Levatores costarum

190
Q

The superficial and intermediate muscles of the back are supplied by the ___ ___ but the deep muscles are supplied by the ___ ___

A

Ventral rami

Dorsal rami

191
Q

The two functions of the serratus anterior are

A

Protracts scapula

Holds scapula to body wall

192
Q

Serratus anterior is innervated by the ___ ___ nerve and supplied by the ___ ___ vessels

A

Long thoracic nerve

Lateral thoracic vessels

193
Q

Triangle of auscultation is between the _ and _ ribs

A

6 and 7

194
Q

The boundaries or the lumbar triangle are the ___ ___, ___ ___ and the iliac crest

A

Latissimus dorsi

External oblique

195
Q

The ___ ___ vein connects the cephalic and basilic

A

Median cubital

196
Q

Superiorly, the cephalic vein runs in the ___ groove

A

Deltopectoral

197
Q

The three motor neurons of the upper arm are the:

The two cutaneous nerves of the upper arm are the:

A

Musculocutaneous, median, ulnar

Medial brachial, medial antibrachial cutaneous

198
Q

What is different about the brachialis m. from the coracobrachialis and the biceps brachii?

A

Brachialis is innervated by the radial n. As well as the musculocutaneous

199
Q

The triangular interval contains the ___ ___ and the ___ ___ ___

A

Radial n.

Deep brachial a.

200
Q

All of the origins of the triceps brachii are ___ to the ___ muscle

A

Deep to the deltoid

201
Q

The cubital fossa contains the ___ ___ ___, ___ ___ and the ___ ___

A

Biceps brachii tendon
Brachial artery
Median nerve

202
Q

Medially, the clavicle articulates with the ___ at the ___ joint

Laterally, the clavicle articulates with the ___ at the ___ joint

A

Manubrium at the sternoclavicular joint

Scapula at the acromioclavicular joint

203
Q

The bump on the lateral side of the clavicle is the ___ ___

A

Conoid tubercle

204
Q

T/F the scapula has bony articulations with the back

A

False

205
Q

On the humerus, the greater tubercle is ___ and the lesser tubercle is ___

A

Lateral

Anterior

206
Q

The ___ n. and the ___ ___ a. lie in the radial groove of the humerus

A

Radial nerve

Profunda brachii a.

207
Q

The ___ epicondyle is smaller than the ___ epicondyle

A

Lateral is smaller than the medial

208
Q

The two parts of the condyle are the ___ (on the radial side) and the ___ (on the ulnar side)

A

Capitulum and the trochlea

209
Q

The olecranon is on the ___

A

Ulna

210
Q

The dorsal tubercle is found on the ___

A

Radius

211
Q

The first row of carpal bones, from medial to lateral are the ___, ___, ___, and the ___

The second row of carpal bones from medial to lateral are the ___, ___, ___, and the ___

A

Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquertum, and the Pisiform

Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, and the Hamate

Salt
Lake
Takes
Piss

To
Ten
Cali
Hospitals

212
Q

The radius articulates with the ___ of the humerus

A

Capitulum

213
Q

The two muscles that pronate the hand are the ___ ___ and ___ ___

The two muscles that supinate the hand are the ___ and the ___ ___

A

Pronator teres
Pronator quadratus

Supinator
Biceps brachii

214
Q

The four muscles in the superficial layer of the anterior forearm are the ___ ___, ___ ___ ___, ___ ___, and the ___ ___ ___

A

Pronator teres
Flexor carpi radialis
Palmaris longus
Flexor carpi ulnaris

215
Q

There are ___ muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm

A

8 - 4, 1, 3

216
Q

The musculocutaneous nerve emerges through the bb and the brachialis to form the ___ ___ ___ nerve

A

Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve

217
Q

The three things in the cubital fossa are the ___ ___, ___ ___ and the ___ of the ___ ___

A

Median nerve
Brachial artery
Tendon of the biceps brachii muscle

218
Q

The brachial a splits to the ___ and the ___ arteries at the ___ ___

A

Radial and ulnar

Cubital fossa

219
Q

Paraxial mesoderm goes to
___ which becomes
Vertebral column, ribs and ___

A

Mesenchyme

Neurocranium

220
Q

Lateral plate mesoderm goes to
___ which becomes
Pectoral girdle, ___ ___, ___ and ___

A

Mesenchyme

Pelvic girdle, limbs and sternum

221
Q

Neural crest cells go to
___ which becomes
___ and ___ bone

A

Mesenchyme

Vicerocranium and hyoid bone

222
Q

Sclerotome forms all of the axial skeleton except the ___ and a portion of the skull

A

Sternum

223
Q

Sclerotome cells surround neural tube and notochord at the ___ week

A

4th

224
Q

In sclerotome segments, the cranial portion is ___ dense than the caudal portion

A

Less

225
Q

The dense portion of the sclerotome segment forms the ___ ___ of IV discs

A

Annulus fibrosus

226
Q

Ribs and vertebrae are both formed from ___ ___ because ribs are formed as lateral extensions of costal processes from thoracic vertebrae

A

Paraxial mesoderm

227
Q

The sternum forms from ___ ___ ___ ___ and fuses ___ to ___

A

Lateral plate somatic mesoderm

Cranially to caudally

228
Q

___ ___ form a portion of the neurocranium

A

Occipital so it’s

229
Q

The base of the skull is formed by ___ ___ while the rest of the skull is formed by ___ ___

A

Endochondral ossification

Intramembranous ossification

230
Q

Hyaline cartilage models of limbs starts in the ___ week

A

5th

231
Q

Ossification begins at the __/__ week

A

7/8

232
Q

By the ___ week, primary ossification centers are present in all long bones

A

12th

233
Q

At birth, ___ are ossified but ___ ossify after birth

A

Diaphyses

Epiphyses

234
Q

Skeletal muscle is derived from ___ ___

A

Paraxial mesoderm

235
Q

Cardiac muscle is derived from ___ ___ ___

A

Intraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm

236
Q

Smooth muscle of GI tract is derived from ___ ___ ___

A

Intraembryonic splanchnic mesoderm

237
Q

Skeletal muscle:

___ ___ -> ___ -> ___ -> mature skeletal muscle fiber

A

Embryonic mesoderm
Myoblasts
Myotube

238
Q

Progenitor cells for muscle tissues are derived from the ___ and ___ lips of the dermomyotome

A

Dorsomedial

Ventrolateral

239
Q

The ___ ___ ___ separates paraxial mesoderm from ___ ___ ___ ___

A

Lateral Semitic frontier

Lateral plate somatic mesoderm

240
Q

Epaxial is the ___ group

Hypaxial is the ___ group

A

Posterior

Anterior

241
Q

Smooth muscle of the eye is derived from ___, smooth muscle of mammary, salivary and sweat glands is derived from ___ ___

A

Neuroectoderm

Surface ectoderm

242
Q

Limb buds emerge toward end of week ___

A

4

243
Q

Limb buds are made of ___ lined by ___ ___

A

Mesenchyme

Surface ectoderm

244
Q

For limb growth, the _ _ _ sends signals to the mesenchyme of the ___ ___

A

AER (apical ectodermal ridge)

Progress zone

245
Q

The UL rotates ___

The LL rotates ___

A

Laterally

Medially

246
Q

Meromelia vs amelia

A

Meromelia is missing part of a limb

Amelia is missing whole limb

247
Q

Polydactlyly vs syndactyly

A

Poly is extra, syn is fused

248
Q

The deltoid is supplied by the ___ n and ___ ___ ___ vessels

A

Axillary

Posterior circumflex humeral

249
Q

The teres major m. Does what

A

Medially rotates and extends humerus

250
Q

Teres major is supplied by

A

Inferior Subscapular nerve and subscapular vessels

251
Q

The supraspinatus is supplied by the ___ n. And vessels and ___ ___ vessels

A

Suprascapular

Dorsal scapular

252
Q

Infraspinatus is supplied by ___ n and vessels and ___ vessels

A

Suprascapular

Subscapular

253
Q

Teres minor is supplied by ___ n. And ___ and ___ vessels

A

Axillary
Suprascapular
Subscapular

254
Q

Subscapularis is supplied by upper and lower ___ nn and ___ vessels

A

Subscapular

Subscapular

255
Q

The 4 muscles of rotator cuff

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
Subscapularis

256
Q

The ___ tendon wears away fusing the subdeltoid bursa with the joint capsule

A

Supraspinatus

257
Q

The ___ n and ___ ___ ___ a. Are in the quadrangular space

A

Axillary n.

Posterior circumflex humeral

258
Q

The ___ n and the ___ ___ a are found in the triangular interval

A

Radial n

Profunda brachii a

259
Q

The ___ ___ a is found in the triangular space

A

Circumflex scapular

260
Q

The ___ ___ ___ ligament separates the ___ n and the ___ a at the suprascapular notch

A

Superior transverse scapular
Suprascapular
Suprascapular

261
Q

Suprascapular n and a supply the ___ and the ___ mm

A

Supraspinatus

Infraspinatus

262
Q

___ ___ n and ___ ___ ___ a run parallel to medial border of scapula

A

Dorsal scapular

Deep transverse cervical

263
Q

Levator scapulae and rhomboid muscles are supplied by the ___ ___ n and ___ ___ ___ a

A

Dorsal scapular

Deep transverse cervical

264
Q

The trapezius is supplied by the ___ n and ___ ___ a

A

Accessory n

Transverse cervical

265
Q

Teres major is supplied by ___ ___ n

A

Lower subscapular

266
Q

The subscapularis muscle is supplied by the ___ and ___ ___ n

A

Upper and lower subscapular

267
Q

The two heads of the pec major are the ___ and ___ heads

A

Clavicular

Sternocostal

268
Q

The ___ pectoral n supplies both pec major and minor but the ___ pectoral n only supplies pec major

A

Medial

Lateral

269
Q

The ___ vessels supply pec major and minor

A

Thoracoacromial

270
Q

The ___ ___ a runs with long thoracic nerve

A

Lateral thoracic

271
Q

The internal thoracic artery is a branch of the ___ a

A

Subclavian

272
Q

The four branches of the thoracoacromial a. Are the:

Police

A

Acromial
Clavicular
Pectoral
Deltoid

273
Q

Axillary artery:
1st part: ___ branches, ___ ___ a.
2nd part: ___ branches, ___ a. And ___ ___ a. The ___ a has 4 branches _ _ _ _
3rd part: ___ branches, ___ a, ___ ___ ___ a, ___ ___ ___ a

A

1st: 1 branch, superior thoracic a.
2nd: 2 branches, thoracoacromial a., lateral thoracic a. The thoracoacromial has 4 branches, ACPD
3rd: 3 branches, subscapular, anterior circumflex humeral a., posterior circumflex a.

274
Q

General sensory nerves of the scap and pec regions are ___ - ___ and the lateral and anterior cutaneous branches of ___ nn.

A

T1-T6

Intercostal

275
Q

The walls of the axilla are

A
Pec major and minor
Lat, teres major, subscapularis
Serratus anterior
Humerus
Bottom is skin
276
Q

The 5 nodes of axilla are the

A
Central
Humeral
Apical
Pectoral
Subscapular
277
Q

The dermatomes of the UL are __, __, __, __, __

A
C5
C6
C7
C8
T1
278
Q

The ___ ___ m. divides the axillary a into 3 parts

A

Pec minor m

279
Q

The three upper plexus nerves are the ___ ___ n., the ___ ___ n. And the ___ n.

A

Dorsal scapular
Long thoracic
Suprascapular

280
Q

The three lower plexus nerves are ___ ___ n, ___ n, and the ___ ___ n

A

Upper subscapular
Thoracodorsal
Lower subscapular

281
Q

The RCL resists what forces?

A

Varus - away from midline

282
Q

The UCL resists what forces

A

Valgus - toward midline

283
Q

Nursemaid elbow is what

A

Head of radius pops out of anular ligament

284
Q

The brachial artery starts when

A

When axillary crosses lower border of teres major

285
Q

The collateral anastomoses on the ulnar side of the elbow are the ___ ___ ___ a to the ___ ___ ___ a and the ___ ___ ___ a to the ___ ___ ___ a

A

Superior ulnar collateral to
Posterior ulnar recurrent

Inferior ulnar collateral to
Anterior ulnar recurrent

SP
IA

286
Q

The trend of the collateral anastomoses is ____ to ___

A

Collateral to recurrent

287
Q

The collateral anastomosis on the radial side:

___ ___ a to ___ ___ a

A

Radial collateral a to

Radial recurrent a.

288
Q

The posterior collateral anastomosis is:

___ ___ a to ___ ___ a

A

Middle collateral a to

Interosseus recurrent a.

289
Q

The lateral border of the cubital fossa is the ___ m. And the medial border is the ___ ___ m.

A

Brachioradialis m.

Pronator teres m.

290
Q

The two heads of the pronator teres are the ___ head and the ___ head

A

Humeral head

Ulnar head

291
Q

The only muscle of the intermediate layer of the anterior forearm is the ___ ___ ___ m

A

Flexor digitorum superficialis

292
Q

The muscle that has innervation by median and ulnar nerve is the ___ ___ ___ m

A

Flexor digitorum profundus

293
Q

The three muscles of the deep layer of the anterior compartment of the forearm are the ___ ___ ___, the ___ ___ ___ and the ___ ___ muscles

A

Flexor digitorum profundus
Flexor pollicis longus
Pronator quadratus

294
Q

There are __ muscles of the superficial layer of the posterior compartment of the forearm and ___ muscles in the deep layer.

A

7

5

295
Q

The brachioradialis does what

A

Flexes the elbow

296
Q

The weird muscle of the sup. Post. Compartment of forearm is the ___

A

Anconeus

297
Q

The two paired post. Sup. Muscles of the forearm on the radial side are the ___ ___ ___ ___, and ___ ___ ___ ___ muscles

A

Extensor carpi radialis longus

Extensor carpi radialis breves

298
Q

The two paired superficial posterior forearm muscles are the ___ ___ ___ and ___ ___ ___ muscles

A

Extensor digiti minimi

Extensor carpi ulnaris

299
Q

The weird muscle in the deep posterior compartment of the forearm is the ___

A

Supinator

300
Q

To remember the other muscles in the deep layer of the post. Compartment of the forearm you go (from lateral to medial):
___, ___, ___
Pollicis
___, ___, ___

A

Abductor, extensor, extensor

Longus, brevis, longus

301
Q

The snuff box at the thumb is formed between the ___ ___ ___ and the ___ ___ ___

A

Extensor pollicis brevis

Extensor pollicis longus

302
Q

The arteries of the forearm come together superficially as the ___ ___ ___ and the ___ ___ ___ meet

The arteries of the forearm come together deep as the ___ ___ ___ and the ___ ___ ___ meet

A

Superficial palmar branch
Superficial palmar arch

Deep palmar branch
Deep palmar arch

303
Q

The ulnar artery becomes the ___ ___ ___

A

Superficial palmar arch

304
Q

The radial artery becomes the ___ ___ ___

A

Deep palmar arch