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Pathology > Spr 16- Test Two- Lymphoid, Musculoskeletal, Integument, Urinary > Flashcards

Spr 16- Test Two- Lymphoid, Musculoskeletal, Integument, Urinary Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four stages of fracture healing

A

Hematoma, fibrocartilagenous callus, bony callus, remodeling

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2
Q

Describe the Salter fractures

A

Straight, above (through plate and then upwards), lower (through plate then below), through, cRushing

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3
Q

Signalment- craniomandibular osteopathy

A

Westie/scottie in first year (3-7m, stop 11-13m)

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4
Q

craniomandibular osteopathy - describe

A

Excess bone growth at temporomandibular joint

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5
Q

craniomandibular osteopathy- inheritance

A

Autosomal recessive

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6
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta- describe

A

problem with synthesis of matrix- especially type I collagen- leading to very brittle bones and fractures

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7
Q

Describe osteoporosis

A

Loss of bone due to more resorption than formation leaving susceptible to fractures

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8
Q

Causes of osteoporosis

A

Disuse, malnutrition, steroid use

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9
Q

Describe osteopenia

A

precedes osteoporosis- decrease in the number of thin trabeculae

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10
Q

Describe osteopetrosis

A

Increase in bone density due to defect in function of osteoclasts- failed bone remodeling

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11
Q

Describe chondrodysplasia

A

Bone and cartilage dysfunction of development

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12
Q

Chondrodysplasia breeds

A

Doxies, Corgis, Bassett hounds

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13
Q

Name three metabolic bone diseases

A

Scurvy, Ricketts, Fibrous osteodystrophy

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14
Q

Two main outcomes of scurvy

A

Peri-articular hemorrhage, osteochondrodysplasia

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15
Q

Pathogenesis of scurvy

A

Low vitamin C leads to decreased lysine and proline hydroxylation causing impaired collagen synthesis leading to weak vessel walls and deformity of physeal cartilage which results in peri-articular hemorrhage and osteochondrodysplasia

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16
Q

Disease of westies/scotties (MSkel)

A

craniomandibular osteopathy

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17
Q

Describe fibrous osteodystrophy

A

Primary (adenoma or hyperplasia of PThy) or secondary (Ca:P from nutrition or kidney dz) causes bone issues (rubber jaw, fractures of long bones)

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18
Q

Describe Ricketts

A

Decreased vitamin D and/or Phos leads to defect in endochondral ossification

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19
Q

Achondroplasia is a type of, describe

A

Chondrodysplasia- bones dont grow to normal size- dwarfism

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20
Q

Ricketts- signalment

A

Only young animals

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21
Q

Name dysplasias that can cause fractures

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta, osteoporosis

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22
Q

Describe hypertrophic osteoPATHY

A

Periosteal proliferation caused by an intrathoracic mass, NO joint involvement

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23
Q

Problem with type I collagen synthesis is called

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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24
Q

Describe hypertrophic osteoDYSTROPHY

A

Acute inflammation in primary spongiosa leading to necrosis of osteoblasts in metaphyses of young large breeds- non-infectious inflammation

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25
Q

Defect in function of osteoclast causes

A

Osteopetrosis- failure of bone remodeling leading to increased bone density

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26
Q

What is the radiographic finding of hyper’ o’DYSTROPHY

A

Double physeal line in metaphysis parallel to normal physis line

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27
Q

Shifting leg lameness in large breed dog that resolves on its own

A

Eosinophilic panosteitis

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28
Q

Avascular necrosis of femoral head in small breeds before physeal closure

A

Legg- Perthes Disease

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29
Q

Inflammation of the bone and marrow contents regardless of cause

A

Osteomyelitis

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30
Q

Disease of defective endochondral ossification

A

Ricketts

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31
Q

What does inflammation of primary spongiosis cause

A

Necrosis of osteoblasts and hypertrophic osteoDYSTROPHY

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32
Q

Why is osteomyelitis so bad

A

Tx difficult bc poor blood supply to bone makes it difficult to get Abx in, can become chronic if acute tx not successful

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33
Q

Name three examples of osteomyelitis

A

Fungal, bacterial, post-traumatic, surgery related

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34
Q

Name three common neoplasias of bone

A

Osteosarcoma, osteochondromatosis, multiple myeloma, chrondrosarcoma, chondroma

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35
Q

Osteosarcoma-

A

Malignant tumor of bone

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36
Q

Osteosarcoma- locations

A

Towards the knee, away from the elbow- does not cross joints

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37
Q

Osteochrondromatosis- describe

A

BENIGN neoplasia, proliferation of growth plate cartilage, multiple bony masses mostly in head and chest

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38
Q

Multiple myeloma- describe

A

Neoplasia of plasma cells, common in bones, malignant

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39
Q

What disease can be caused by surgery, penetrating wounds, fractures, hematogenous spread

A

Osteomyelitis

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40
Q

Define osteoma

A

Benign tumor of bone, very uncommon

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41
Q

Name the ways the joint responds to injury

A

Synovial hypertrophy and fibrillation, eburnation, osteophytosis of articular cartilage and bone

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42
Q

Define fibrillation

A

Joint rxn to injury/arthritis, forms vertical clefts in cartilage- dull, yellow-brown

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43
Q

Define eburnation

A

Polishing of exposed subchondral bone- bony formation over loss of cartilage

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44
Q

Define osteophytosis

A

body protuberances, bone trying to stabilize the joint

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45
Q

Presence of bence- joones proteins in urine indicates

A

Multiple myeloma

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46
Q

What are joint mice

A

Osteophytes or cartilage that break off and float in joint

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47
Q

Arthritis caused by aging lesion

A

Osteoarthritis

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48
Q

Name causes of chronic arthritis

A

Immune mediated, viral, untreated acute

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49
Q

Describe the lesion in osteoarthritis

A

Aging lesions: fibrillation, cartilage erosion, osteophytosis, eburnation, synovial hyperplasia

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50
Q

Describe the pathology of osteoarthritis

A

Decreased proteoglycan synthesis and increased metalloenzyme synthesis leads to a less viscous joint fluid from less proteoglycan in it

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51
Q

CAE is an example of

A

Immune mediated chronic inflammatory arthritis in goats

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52
Q

Describe osteochondrosis dissecans

A

Separation/cracking of an area of thickened cartilage where there should be bone, due to less endochondral ossification usually from decreased blood supply

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53
Q

Species with OCD, most common location

A

Pigs, dogs, horses- humoral head

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54
Q

Arthritis caused by wound or septicemia

A

Acute inflammatory arthritis

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55
Q

Osteochondrosis pathology, outcome

A

Abnormal differentiation of cartilage to bone; lameness, joint instability, joint mice

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56
Q

Joint neoplasia- name, describe

A

Synovial cell carcinoma- on joints of long bones

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57
Q

Difference between osteosarc and synovial cell carcinoma

A

Osteosarc does not involve the joints

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58
Q

DJD is an example of

A

Osteoarthritis

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59
Q

Shar pei fever is an example of

A

Immune mediated chronic inflammatory arthritis

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60
Q

IVDD- describe

A

Crack, tear or rupture of annulus fibrosis allowing inner nucleous pupposus to protrude

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61
Q

Types of IVDD

A

Type I- sudden, more common in chrondodystrophic breeds- NP calcified and pops out; Type II- gradual

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62
Q

Hip dysplasia- signalment

A

Large breed dogs

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63
Q

Hip dysplasia- describe

A

Degenerative, non-inflammatory deformation of the joint- subluxation of the femoral head

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64
Q

Elbow dysplasia- signalment

A

Large breed, GSD esp.

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65
Q

Elbow dysplasia- describe

A

Degen, non-inflamm, ununited anconeal process, fregmented medial coronoid process, OCD of elbow

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66
Q

Classify muscle injury

A

Distribution: Focal/multi-focal; Timeline: monophasic/polyphasic

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67
Q

Describe monophasic- what does this indicate

A

All muscle injuries at same time of progression - all acute, all chronic- indicates single insult

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68
Q

Describe polyphasic- what does this indicate

A

Varied chronicity of muscle injuries– some more acute, some chronic- suggests ongoing, repeated issue

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69
Q

Examples of polyphasic mm. injury

A

Toxin, deficiency, trauma related to fracture

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70
Q

Name the 6 responses to muscle injury

A

hypertrophy, atrophy, degeneration, necrosis (calcification), regeneration (rowing of nucleus), fibrosis

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71
Q

Low PCV, normal CK

A

Hemoglobin

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72
Q

Normal PCV, CK elevated

A

Myoglobin

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73
Q

Cause of downer cattle -muscle damage

A

Circulation

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74
Q

Cause of malignant hyperthermia in pigs, name others from this category of muscle damage

A

Congenital (fainting goats, muscular dystrophy)

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75
Q

Cause of black leg -muscle damage

A

Myositis from clostridium

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76
Q

Cause of SLE, purpura hemorrhagica- muscle damage

A

Autoimmune myositis

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77
Q

What type of muscle damage is capture myopathy in exotics

A

Exertional myopathy

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78
Q

Name a nutritional myopathy cause of muscle damage

A

Malnutrition atrophy; vitamin E/selenium def. white muscle disease

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79
Q

What is monensin

A

Toxin causing muscle damage

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80
Q

What type of muscle damage would disuse be considered

A

Exertional myopathy

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81
Q

Cause of splayleg in pigs -muscle damage

A

Congenital

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82
Q

Equine anesthesia- type of mm. dmg

A

Circulation

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83
Q

Types of myositis form of mm. dmg.

A

Bacterial, parasitic, autoimmune

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84
Q

Equine rhabdomyolysis- type of mm. dmg.

A

Congenital- sporadic polysaccharide storage myopathy

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85
Q

Laryngal hemiplasia- mm dmg type

A

Denervation

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86
Q

Rhabdomyoma- mm dmg type

A

Neoplasia (also, rhabdomyosarcoma)

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87
Q

Lymphoma does what do the size of the spleen, thymus, LN, spleen,

A

Increases spleen- nodular/not bloody, increases LN, increases thymus

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88
Q 
All of the following result in decreased size of the thymus and LN except
	A. Parvovirus
	B. Lymphoma
	C. Corticosteroids
	D. Canine distemper
	E. A and D
A

Lymphoma

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89
Q 
A uniformly enlarged dog spleen that bleeds on cut surface is most likely
	A. Hemangiosarcoma
	B. Hemangioma
	C. Lymphoma
	D. Congestion
	E. Nodular hyperplasia
A

D. Congestion

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90
Q 
An irregular dark red nodule in a spleen that bleeds on cut surface could be all the following except
	A. Hemangiosarcoma
	B. Hemangioma
	C. Granulomatous splenitis
	D. Hematoma
	E. Nodular hyperplasia
A

C. Granulomatous splenitis

91
Q

The most common form of lymphoma in dogs is

A

Multicentric

92
Q

Right atrial lymphoma is most commonly found in

A

Cattle

93
Q 
Viral agents have been associated with lymphoma in 
	A. Cattle
	B. Cat
	C. Dog
	D. A and B
	E. A, B and C
A

E. A, B, C

94
Q 
All of the following often result in generalized (diffuse) splenomegaly EXCEPT? (2 pt.)
	A. Histoplasmosis
	B. Septicemic salmonellosis
	C. Lymphoma
	D. Hemangiosarcoma
	E. Congestion
A

D. Hemangiosarcoma

95
Q 
Which of the following viruses causes systemic lymphoid atrophy? (2 pt.)
	A. Canine parvovirus type 2
	B. Canine distemper virus
	C. Feline calicivirus
	D. A, B
	E. A, B, C
A

D

96
Q 
Thymoma is a neoplasm of? (2 pt.)
	A. Thymic epithelial cells
	B. Thymic lymphocytes
	C. Thymic smooth muscle cells
	D. Thymic macrophages
	E.A and B
A

A

97
Q 
Which of the following are common sites for lymphoma in adult cattle with multicentric lymphoma? (2
pt.)
	A. Lymph nodes
	B. Abomasum
	C. Heart
	D. A, B
	E. A, B, C
A

E

98
Q 
All of the following commonly present with bloody nodular splenic masses in dogs EXCEPT? (2 pt.)
	A. Hematoma
	B. Hemangioma
	C. Hemangiosarcoma
	D. Lymphoma
	E. Splenic infarct
A

D. Lymphoma

99
Q 
Which of the following diseases or infections can result in generalized lymphadenomegaly? (2 pt.)
A. Multicentric lymphoma
B. Malignant catarrhal fever
C. Feline immunodeficiency virus
	D. A, B
	E. A, B, C
A

E. A, B, C

100
Q 
Retrovirus infection has been identified as a cause of lymphoma in? (2 pt.)
	A. Dogs
	B. Cats
	C. Cattle
	D. A,B,C,  
E. B,C
A

D. A,B,C,

101
Q 
All of the following often result in generalized (diffuse) splenomegaly in dogs EXCEPT? (2 pt.)
	A. Histoplasmosis
	B. Septicemic salmonellosis
	C. Lymphoma
	D. Hematoma
	E. Congestion
A

D. Hematoma

102
Q 
The most common distribution of lymphoma in cats is? (2 pt.)
	A. Multicentric
	B. Alimentary
	C. Thymic
	D. Cutaneous
	E. Solitary
A

B. Alimentary

103
Q

Which of the following is a morphologic diagnosis of the spleen?
A. Lymphoma
B. Hemangiosarcoma
C. Chronic multi-focal granulomatous splenitis
D. Focal acute infarct
E. All of the above

A

C. Chronic multi-focal granulomatous splenitis

104
Q

Order of epi layers- skin

A

B-S-G-C

105
Q

Calcinosus cutis- T/F May lead to metaplastic bone in skin

A

T

106
Q

Calcinosus cutis- T/F Mostly in cats

A

F

107
Q

Calcinosus cutis- most common cause

A

Iatrogenic Cushings

108
Q

Calcinosus cutis- T/F- Dorsal lumbo sacral

A

F

109
Q

Calcinosus cutis- T/F- Accompanied by atropic dermatitis

A

T

110
Q

Calcinosus cutis- Source of lesions

A

Dystrophic mineralization

111
Q

Calcinosus cutis- T/F- Can be caused by SQ inj of Ca++

A

T

112
Q

Calcinosus cutis- Distribution

A

Axilla/groin/dorsal neck

113
Q

TEN- (toxic epidermal necrolysis)- distinguishes it from EM (erythema multiforme)

A

Has widespread epidermal detachment

114
Q

TEN- Cause

A

Vasculitis causing ischemia

115
Q

TEN- Type of necrosis

A

Coagulative

116
Q

Can TEN ulcerate?

A

Yes

117
Q

Which is not a lesion vasculitis- Thrombosis, ischemia, ulcers, edema, hemorrhage, bullae, atrophy, alopecia, hemorrhage, erythema, necrosis, crust

A

Bullae

118
Q

Which of these is not a cause of vasculitis- RV, drug rxn, hypersensitivity III, erysipelothrix, hypersensitivity I, Rickettsials, neoplasia

A

Hypersensitivity I

119
Q

Which of these do not cause nodular to diffuse dermatitis- pythium, atypical mycobacteria, rickettsials, foreign bodies, deep pyodermas, bacterial septicemia, multiple papules, demodex

A

Rickettsials (vasculitis), bacterial septicemia (vasculitis)

120
Q

Red, white and blue lesions associated with what conditions

A

Dog food dermatitis, liver failure, DM, Zn deficiency, parakeratosis

121
Q

What should you think of first when you see vesicular or pustular dematitis

A

Immune destruction (of intercellular adhesions)

122
Q

Skin depigmenting lesions most commonly associated with what (non-cancer)

A

Interface dermatitis

123
Q

Which condition do Rickettsials cause

A

Vasculitis

124
Q

Name the mechanisms of vesicle/ bullae formation

A

BM dmg, hydropic degeneration of basal keratinocytes, immune mediated destruction of intercellular adheasions, spongiosis

125
Q

Alopecia, cutaneous infarcts, cutaneous ulcers, petechial hemorrhage are all lesions associated with what

A

Gross vasculitis

126
Q

Name 4 causes of SLE

A

Vasculitis, vesicle/pustular, hydropic degeneration, interface dermatitis

127
Q

What are the ddx for dermatitis with folliculitis/furunculosis

A

Staph bacterial, demodex, dermatophytes

128
Q

Which cannot cause vesicle

A

BM dmg, marked acanthosis, hydropic degeneration of basal keratinocytes, immune mediated destruction of intercellular adheasions, spongiosis

129
Q

Name four causes of panniculitis

A

Vitamin E deficiency, ischemia, pancreatitis, fungi

130
Q

Main lesion of ichthyosis

A

Hyperkeratosis

131
Q

Which cannot caue bullae/vesicles

A

Friction, immune- mediated cell to cell adhesion destruction, structural defect of protein in BM zone, immune complex deposition within in walls of dermal vasculature, BM dmg, flea bite hypersensitivity, opportunistic fungi, enzymatic destruction

132
Q

Red white and blue lesions can be caused by all but liver dz, diabetes, insulin secreting islet neoplasm, food allergy dermatitis, parakeratosis

A

Insulin secreting

133
Q

Which cannot cause folliculitis

A

Staph, pythium, arthropod bite, dermatophyte, demodex

134
Q

Name the 9 primary lesions

A

Macule, papule, wheal, vesicle, bulla, pustule, tumor, plaque, nodule

135
Q

Interface dermatitis is caused by all but: dmg to basal layer or epidermis, dmg to some BM component, immune mediated factors, hormones, leukocytes surrounding vessels in superficial dermis, uveodermatologic syndrome

A

Leukocytes surrounding vessels in superficial dermis (correct would be surrounding derm-epiderm junction), hormones

136
Q

Pemphigous complex dzs are classic examples of what types of lesions

A

Associated with blistering! Vesicular or pustular; acantholysis, hypopigmentation,

137
Q

PF is what kind of disease, primary and secondary lesions

A

Autoimmune type II hypersensitivity; acantholysis: pustule –> acantholysis crusts

138
Q

Atrophic dermatosis associated with what most often

A

Hormonal

139
Q

Characteristics of atrophic dermatosis-

A

Epidermal, adnexal, varying degree of dermal atrophy, localized ischemia, alopecia- symmetric, comedones, telangiectasia

140
Q

Vasculitis- type of hypersensitivity

A

III

141
Q

Interface dermatitis can be cahracterized by clefts or vesicles or areas of hyperpigmentation

A

Clefts or vesicles at epi-derm junction

142
Q

What is the loss of keratinocyte attachment in epidermis or follicular epithelium

A

Acantholysis

143
Q

What is acanthosis

A

Hyperplasia of epidermal cells, usually s. spinosum

144
Q

Which of these is notcharacterized by interface dermatitis- PF, SLE, VKH, erysipelothrix, TEN, EM

A

PF, erysipelothrix

145
Q

Erysipelothrix is associated with

A

Vasculitis

146
Q

Perivascular dermatitis most associated with

A

Hypersensitivity- very general condition

147
Q

TEN vs EB difference

A

Epidermis DEAD in TEN, viable in EB (collagen structural defect)

148
Q

What does PKD effect

A

Persian cats

149
Q

How is PKD inherited

A

Autosomal dominant

150
Q

Evidence of PKD renal dysfunction- age

A

3-10, 7 years fail

151
Q

Pathogenesis of papillary necrosis

A

NSAIDs inhibits PGE2 which maintains vasodilation, without it, ischemic necrosis of the papillary region of medulla occurs

152
Q

Glomerulonephritis- pathology

A

Circulating immune complexes have complement which are targeted by neutrophils which release enzymes and free radicals which damage BM leading to compromised filtration barrier. Or Ab can be formed against glomerular BM

153
Q

Describe membranous GN

A

Thickened basement membrane of glomerulus

154
Q

Describe proliferative GN

A

Increased number of mesangial cells

155
Q

Shar pei dogs and abyssinian cats predisposed to

A

Systemic reactive amylodosis

156
Q

Stain histo amyloid, stain gross tissue

A

Congo red, lugol iodine

157
Q

Bacteria associated with embolic glomerulitiis

A

Horses- actino. equuli, Cattle: truperella, Pigs- erysipelothrix

158
Q

Ischemic tubular nectosis is caused by

A

Hypoperfusion or hypotension (shock)

159
Q

BM retention in the two types of tubular necrosis

A

Ischemic- NO; Toxic- yes

160
Q

Pyelonephritis lesions- describe and location

A

Suppurative lesion in pelvis (can go totubules?interstitium); mostly medulla

161
Q

Swine kidney worm

A

Stephanarus dentatus-

162
Q

Dioctophyma renale- describe life cycle and lesion

A

Fish eating mammals, in fish/frogs, adults live in renal pelvis and destroy the parenchyma- goes from hemorrhagic to suppurative

163
Q

Name 6 non-renal lesions associated with renal failure

A

Gastric ulcer, ulcerative stomatitis, mineralized intercostal pleura, uremic pneumonitis, parathyroid hyperplasia, anemia

164
Q

Stephanarus dentatus- describe

A

Swine kidney worm, direct lifestyle, encysts in peri-renal tissue, communicates iwth pelvis and ureter to release eggs to urine

165
Q

Primary tumor of pig kidneys

A

Nephroblastoma

166
Q

Metabolic causes of recurrent UTI

A

Cushings, Diabetes, uroliths

167
Q

TCC- location

A

Bladder neck and trigone

168
Q

Enzootic hematuria cause

A

Bracken fern

169
Q

Primary renal tumor of cattle

A

Renal adenocarcinoma

170
Q

TCC- CS

A

dysuria/stranguria, hematuria, mimic UTI

171
Q

Kidney size in acute renal fail

A

Enlarged

172
Q

Metabolic acidosis- renal failure type

A

Acute

173
Q

Primary renal tumor of dogs and cats

A

Renal adenocarcinoma

174
Q

Potassium in chronic renal failure

A

normal to decreased (increased in acute)

175
Q

Bracken fern dz, CS

A
  • ENZOOTIC Hematuria, hemorrhagic cystitis, bladder cancer
176
Q

Canine distemper and parvovirus affect on LN

A

atrophy

177
Q

BLV and FIV effect on LB

A

megaly

178
Q

Extramedullary Hematopoeisis effect on spleen

A

Uniform, non-bloody megaly

179
Q

Which pulp? antigen removal

A

Red (think filtered from blood)

180
Q

Which pulp? acquired immunity

A

White

181
Q

Malignant catarrhal fever- affect on LN

A

megaly

182
Q

CID in foals and basset hounds- affect on LN

A

atrophy

183
Q

Lymphoma- effect on spleen

A

can be gen/non or nodular/non

184
Q

Thymitis- effect on thymus

A

Smaller!

185
Q

Splenic infarct- spleen effect

A

Bloody, nodular

186
Q

Metastatic neoplasm- effect on spleen

A

non bloody nodular

187
Q

Thymic hemorrhage- effect on thymus

A

Larger

188
Q

Name bloody nodular spleen conditionS

A

Splenic infarct, incomplete contraction, Hematoma, hemangioma/sarcoma, hyperemic hyperplasia,

189
Q

Causes of thymic hypoplasia

A

CID, aging/involution, thymitis

190
Q

Granulomatous splenitis- spleen effect

A

Nodular non bloody

191
Q

Viral dz, glucocorticoids - effect on thymus

A

Atrophy

192
Q

Incomplete splenic contraction- spleen effect

A

Bloody nodular

193
Q

What is a leukemia

A

neoplasm of lymphocytes and hematopoetic cells from bone marrow

194
Q

Torsion- effect on spleen

A

bloody, generalized

195
Q

Splenic abscess- spleen effect

A

Nodular, nonbloody

196
Q

Thymoma vs thymic lymphoma

A

Thymoma- epithelial cells, no metastasis (Goats); T-lymphoma- tumor made of all neoplasic lymphocytes, metastasizes

197
Q

Cattle lymphoma- type, locations

A

Multicentric- LN, RA, abomasum

198
Q

B cell lymphoma from

A

Gamma herpes virus

199
Q

Cause of cattle lymphoma

A

BLV

200
Q

Bacteremia effect on spleen

A

Generalized NON bloody

201
Q

Liver blood flow

A

Portal vein, hepatic artery –> sinusoids –> central/hepatic vein -> CaVC –>RA

202
Q

Bile blood flow

A

Opposite liver- hepatocytes to canaliculi –> portal vein –> bile ductules –> gall bladder

203
Q

Zones 1-3

A

Portal, midzonal, centrilobular (periacinar)

204
Q

Intrinsic toxicity-

A

Substance always toxic

205
Q

Unpredictable toxicity- name

A

Idiosyncratic toxins

206
Q

Chloroform/CCl4 damage- liver

A

centrilobular

207
Q

Pyrrolidizine alkaloid damage- liver

A

periportal

208
Q

Alfatoxins- liver dmg

A

midzonal

209
Q

Random/multifocal liver damage from

A

Hematogenous spread

210
Q

Hypoxia pattern of damage

A

centrilobular

211
Q

Steroid effect on liver

A

midzonal

212
Q

Toxins that do not need metabolizing - type of damage

A

periportal

213
Q

Amyloidosis effect on liver

A

megaly

214
Q

Common older dog liver neoplasia

A

Hepatic nodular hyperplasia

215
Q

PSS effect on liver

A

micro

216
Q

CHronic hepatocellular damag with secondary fibrosis- effect on liver

A

micro

217
Q

Benign neoplasm of hepatocytes

A

Hepatoma

218
Q

Define hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Rare, 1 enlarged liver lobe

219
Q

Hepatitis effect on liver

A

megaly

220
Q

Name three metastasizing liver neoplasms

A

Biliary carcinoma, lymphosarcoma, hemangiosarcoma

221
Q

Describe the metastasis of biliary carcinoma

A

To LN and lungs

222
Q

Toxins that require activation will cause what liver damage

A

centrilobular

223
Q

Serum sickness in horses causes what liver damage

A

Massive

224
Q

Bone marrow involvement- cattle lymphoma type

A

Thymic

Pathology (5 decks)

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