sport psychology Flashcards

1
Q

what is personality

A

the sum total of an individuals characteristics which make the human unique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 3 perspective views on personality development

A
  1. trait perspective
  2. social learning
  3. interactionist approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the personality traits perspective

A

traits are characteristics of personality that are inherited
- behavior is generically programmed
- behavior can be predictable in various situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the type A and Type B theory

A

Type A people are impatient, intolerable and have high levels of stress
Type B people are relaxed, tolerant and have low levels of stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why is the type A vs Type B theory inconclusive in sport

A

anxiety levels can intervene
- awareness of these levels can help create strategies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the characteristics of someone with a Type A personality

A

impatient
intolerable
higher levels of stress
competitive
higher drive to succeed
like control
work fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the characteristics of someone with a Type B personality

A

relaxed
tolerable
lower levels of stress
not competitive
lacks desire to succeed
doesn’t like control
works slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the Type A & B theory called

A

the narrow band theory - girdano

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is a stable person

A

a person that remains constant and predictable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is an unstable person

A

someone that is changeable and unpredictable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is extroversion

A

an individual who seeks out social interaction and excitement but lacks concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is introversion

A

an individual who does not seek out social interaction and likes quiet but is good at concentrating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the RAS

A

Reticular Activating System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the relevance of the RAS to personality

A

it can determine whether an individual is an introvert or an extrovert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

do extroverts or introverts have higher arousal levels

A

introverts have higher arousal levels therefore they tend to avoid seeking social situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

why is the trait approach not the most reliable

A
  • behavior is not always predictable
  • does not account that people adapt their behavior dependent of situations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the social learning theory

A

the belief that behavior is learnt through interaction with the environment
-initiated through observation and endorsed through social reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

according to the social learning theory, how is personalities shaped

A

the behaviour of those around us and we adopt them from role models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why is the social learning personality theory not 100% reliable

A
  • does not factor in genetically inherited factors
    -it only provides one standard answer for how personality is shaped
  • some people may not adapt to behavior they are surrounded by
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the interactionist approach

A

belief that both trait and social learning play a role in personality development
- personality is modified and behaviour is formed when generically inherited traits interact with the environment in any situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the hollander theory of 1967

A

an individual has 3 levels that interact to form personality

B = f (PE)
behaviour = personality x environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the three levels of the hollander theory

A

psychological care
typical response
role-related behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the inner core of the hollander theory and what is it about

A

psychological care is the individuals true self and is thought to be hard to access due to being protected
- it is stable and consistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the middle section of the hollander theory and what is it about

A

typical response is changeable and learnt behaviour that reflect the makeup of and individuals personality core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the outer core of the hollander theory and what is it about?

A

role related behaviour is the surface of an individual’s personality
- determines the individual’s perception of their environment
- not a real indicator of an individual personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

why does the interactionist approach explain sport behaviour

A

it offers an explanation on why personalities of sport performers change in different situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is attitude

A

ideas charged with emotion which predisposes a class of actions to a particular class of social situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the three components of attitude

A

beliefs
emotions
behavioural actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the belief component of attitude

A

the cognitive element of the individuals attitude, formed from past experiences and learnt from parents/peers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the emotions component of attitude

A

emotions associated with that activity
- developed from past

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the behavioural actions component of attitudes

A

behaviour response to situation will reveal attitude towards situation
- participation = individuals enjoyments therefore their attitude towards sport is positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the behavioural actions component of attitudes

A

behaviour will reveal attitude
- participation = individuals enjoyments therefore their attitude towards sport is positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the Fishbein and Ajzen research in 1975

A

prediction of behaviour is best based upon the individuals behavioural intention
- environment & family/friends can influence behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the persuasive communication theory

A

the effectiveness of changing/developing an attitude depends on
- the person doing the persuasion
- the quality of the message
- the characteristics of the person who is being persuaded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how does the person doing the persuading affect the persuasive communication theory

A

someone of higher status/ role model/position of authority to the individual is more likely to be listened to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how does the quality of the message affect the persuasive communication theory

A

the message must make sense and be believable
- information should be accurate and cear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how does the characteristics of the person being persuaded affect the persuasive communication theory

A

intelligence effects effectiveness of the persuasion taking place
- individual may be intelligence and understand but not accept it/ change attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is cognitive dissonance

A

when disharmony is created between 2 or more beliefs, resulting in beliefs changing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what did festinger in 1957 state in regards to stabalising behaviour/attitudes

A

all three components of the triadic model (belief, emotions, behaviourial actions) must be consistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is a positive attitude to PE

A

the individual
- knows the value if exercise
- enjoys exercise
- is the good performer
- shows excitement
- challenge social norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is negative attitude to PE

A

the individual
- dislikes exercise
- has no success
- has stress and anxiety due to PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is a social norm

A

behaviours thay are deemed normal within a culture & created through the process of socialisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is culture

A

members of a community learning certain behavoiurs that are shared among those within the community of people/society

44
Q

what is a stereotype

A

a belief held by a collection of people about traits shared by a certain category of a person

45
Q

what is motivation

A

the internal mechanisms and external stimuli which arouse and direct behaviour

46
Q

what three factors affect motivation

A
  • individuals inner drive towards a goal
  • external pressures & rewards that are perceived in the environment
  • the intensity and direction of our behaviour
47
Q

what is intrinsic motivation

A

internal drives or emotional drive sthat help us participate/perform well
- satisfaction, pride, personal accomplishment
- physical well being

48
Q

what is extrinsic motivation

A

from outer sources
- can be powerful in determing an idividuals drive to learn/perfect a skill
- can be form of rewards, trophies, bagdes or external pressure

49
Q

what is arousal

A

the intensity of behaviour or the amount of drive we experience to achieve something

50
Q

examples of psychological arousal

A
  • alertness
  • tension
  • excitement
  • sleeping difficulties
  • fear/ anger
51
Q

examples of phyiological arousal

A
  • increased HR
  • increased breathing
  • sweating
  • butterflies
52
Q

what is the drive theory

A

higher the arousal of an individual, the better their response to stimuli
- performance depends on how the individuals learnt dominant response to a stimuli is intensified
- p = f(h x d) performance = function of habits multiplied by drive

53
Q

what is drive reduction

A

when drive is being fulfilled and drive is reduced as there is no longer motivation to complete drive as it has already been fulfilled

54
Q

what is the inverted U theory

A

belief that arousal levels will increase up to an optimum- producing the individuals optimum performance
- once past optimum, performance levels will decrease due to anxiety caused by over arousal

55
Q

how does skill levels affect how arousal affects individual ( inverted u theory)

A

highly skilled - can cope w higher levels
beginner- performance will deteriorate as they cannot cope and may lose concentration/ may get anxious

56
Q

what amount of arousal is optimal for a skilled individual vs a beginner

A

beginner - low arousal levels
highly skilled - high arousal levels

57
Q

how does type of activity affect an individuals performance levels

A

some sports/activities will require low arousal therefore high arousal would deteriorate their performance
(vise versa)

58
Q

how does personality effect an individuals performance levels

A

introverts will perform better under low arousal conditions whereas extroverts will perform better under high arousal situations

59
Q

what is the catastrophe theory for performance levels

A

the relationship between somatic and cognitive arousal
- how their independent levels affect an individuals performance
- high cog + low som = high performance
- high cog + high som = sudden deterioration

60
Q

what is cognitive anxiety

A

anxiety experienced by the mind

” thoughts , nervousness, apprehension, or worry that a performer has about their lack of ability to complete a task successfully”

61
Q

what is somatic anxiety

A

anxiety experienced physiologically or of/from the body

“physiological responses to a situation where a performer feels that they maybe unable to cope - symptoms include : increased HR, sweaty hands, muscle tension, sweating and nausea”

62
Q

what is anxiety

A

our feelings of being threatened
- threat of physical harm
- threat to our self esteem
- threat of letting others down
- fear of punishment

63
Q

what s competitive anxiety

A

tendency to perceive competitive situations as threatening, and responds with apprehension and tension

64
Q

what is trait anxiety

A

innate anxiety trait in an individual - high trait anxiety means more likely to respond to situations with apprehension

65
Q

what 7 things are needed to maintain/reach the zone of optimal functioning

A
  1. be relexed
  2. be confident
  3. be completely focused
  4. effortless activity
  5. automatic movements
  6. fun
  7. be in control of body and behavior
66
Q

what is cue utilization

A

concentrating on cues that are relevant at particular times

67
Q

what is aggression

A

intent to harm outside the rules of the game

68
Q

what is assertion

A

forceful behavior within the laws of the event

69
Q

what are the four theories of aggression

A
  • instinct
  • frustration-aggression theory
  • aggression cue hypothesis
  • social learning
70
Q

what is the instinct theory of aggression

A

aggression is a genetically inherited trait and that individuals will release aggression when they need to.
- aggression is innate and generalizes behavior of individuals

71
Q

what is the frustration-aggression theory of aggression

A

aggression is inevitable when frustration is caused dur to our goals being blocked/ having obstacles
- if aggression is released, catharsis can take place
- aggression can build up if not released

72
Q

what is the social learning theory of aggression

A

when aggression is copied and reinforced from role models etc
- learnt from people around us who also act aggressive

73
Q

what is the aggression cue theory of aggression

A

aggression will only occur when aggression cues are present
- pre learnt cues that trigger a aggressive response

74
Q

what are the main arguments against the instinct theory of aggression

A
  • evolutionary close relatives are expected to act aggressive, but do not
  • human aggression is often not spontaneous
  • aggression is often learnt, many cultural differences back this
  • the view is too simple and general
75
Q

what are the main arguments against the frustration-aggression theory

A
  • frustration does not always lead to aggression
  • aggression does not always come from a place of aggresion
  • aggression can lead to catharsis
76
Q

how can aggression be prevented

A
  • control arousal levels w/ stress management
  • avoid situations that initiate aggression
  • remove aggressive player from the situation
  • reinforce non-aggressive behavior w/ rewards
  • show/highlight non aggressive role models and their success
  • punish aggression
  • highlight positions of responsibility
77
Q

how can aggression be prevented

A
  • control arousal levels w/ stress management
  • avoid situations that initiate aggression
  • remove aggressive player from the situation
  • reinforce non-aggressive behavior w/ rewards
  • show/highlight non aggressive role models and their success
  • punish aggression
  • highlight positions of responsibility
78
Q

what is social facilitation

A

the positive influence of others, who may be watching or competing, on a sports performance

79
Q

what is social inhibition

A

the negative influence of others, who may be watching or competing, leading to a decrease in sport performance

80
Q

how does arousal levels affect performance during social facilitation?

A
  • they will increase in the presence of an audience or other competitors
  • high arousal means dominant response is more likely to occur
81
Q

how can the dominant response differ when arousal levels rise

A
  • easy skill or expert, dominant response will be correct and the performer will improve
  • complex skill or novice, dominant response will be incorrect and performance will decrease/ performer will decline
82
Q

what is evaluation apprehension

A

the idea that arousal levels only increase when others are evaluating or judging the individuals performance

83
Q

what are the strategies to minimize social inhibition

A

shutting the audience so that the individual can mentally prepare fir their task
- imagery & relaxation techniques
training w audiences so the athletes are used to them
- teaching skills in a non-evaluative atmosphere
- calm and focused instructions

84
Q

what effects does an audiences presence have on introverts/extroverts

A

introverts - high arousal levels can lead to anxiety and performance deterioration as they already have high arousal levels

extroverts - high arousal levels can lead to optimal performance levels and confidence as they seek high arousal level situations

85
Q

how does audience presence affect beginners / expert performers

A

beginners - may cause a rise in anxiety and decrease in confidence, leading to a decline in performance

experts- may give confidence and a sense of pride to performer which will enhance performance

86
Q

how does audience presence affect simple / complex skill

A

simple - heighten arousals levels therefore performance is facilitated

complex - can inhibit performance as complex skills require low arousal levels for optimal performance

87
Q

how does audience presence affect gross / fine skills

A

gross - highness arousal levels therefore perforce is facilitated

fine - can inhibit performance as complex skills require low arousal levels for optimal performance

88
Q

what is a group

A

a collection of people who both share similar goals and interact with another

89
Q

who developed the four staged model of group development in 1965

A

Tuckerman

90
Q

what are the four stages of group development according to the Tuckerman model

A

forming
storming
norming
performing

91
Q

what happens during the forming stage of the Tuckerman model

A
  • there is a high dependancy on leader for guidance and direction
  • individual roles of members are unclear
  • members get to know each other
  • little agreements on aims of the team
92
Q

what happens during the storming stage of the Tuckerman model

A
  • leader gains a more advisory/coach role
  • member jostle for position in the team to establish themselves in relation to other members
  • clear focus for the team but still uncertainties remain
93
Q

what happens during the norming stage of the Tuckerman model

A
  • respect for leader
  • group has agreements on opinions
  • friendly and sense of unity
  • individual roles / responsibility clear
  • leadership can get shared
94
Q

what happens during the performing stage of the Tuckerman model

A
  • leader has no participation or interference
  • team makes decisions together
  • members are all trusted
  • clear views on aims and goals
  • disagreements solved positively
  • team members may ask leader for help w personal & interpersonal issues
95
Q

what is cohesion according to Festinger 1963

A

the total field of forces which act on members to remain in a group

96
Q

what are the two cohesion’s dimensions

A

group integration
individual attraction

97
Q

who identified the 2 cohesion dimension

A

carron in 1980

98
Q

what is group integration

A

how members feel about the group as a whole

99
Q

what is individual attraction

A

how attracted the individual is to the group

100
Q

what is team cohesion

A

motivation which attracts individuals to the group and the resistance of the members to the group breaking up

101
Q

what is steiner model of 1972

A

the relationship between individuals in a group and their performance

actual productivity = potential productivity - losses due to faulty processes

102
Q

according to the Steiner 1972 model, what causes faulty processes

A

1- coordination problems
2- motivation problems

1 - timing & coordination may not always match within team members

2- individuals ma\y not all be motivated to the same extent

103
Q

what is the ringelmann effect

A

individual performance decreases as group size increases

(tug of war experiment)

104
Q

what is social loafing (Latane 1979)

A

motivational losses where individual don’t try as hard whilst working in a team

105
Q

How to reduce/combat social loathing

A
  • create strategies w coach to develop highlighted aspects of the individuals performance
  • feedback (positive/negative)
  • coaches can select on interactive skills
  • peer pressure may cause social loathing but may also combat it

causes it : player feels not good enough and loses motivation
combats it : player has motivation to do better to be like their team mates.