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SPI Click to Learn > SPI Mock Exam 2 > Flashcards

SPI Mock Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

If media 1 has an impedance of 65 rayls and media 2 has an impedance of 65 rayls, what percentage of the beam will be reflected at their interface

A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 0%
D. unable to determine with information given

A

C

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2
Q

Which of the following beam intensity values is used to assess potential patient exposure

A. SATPA
B. SATA
C. SPTP
D. SPTA

A

D

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3
Q

You are scanning at a depth of 5cm using a 3MHz transducer and switch to a 5MHz transducer without changing the depth setting. Which transducer has the greatest pulse repetition frequency

A. unable to determine
B. they have the same PRF
C. 5MHz
D. 3MHz

A

B

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4
Q

Noise of speckle artifact noted on the image is caused by

A. interference of reflected waves
B. diffraction
C. refraction
D. difference between the transmitted and reflected frequency across the image

A

A

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5
Q

The PRP in 2D imaging is determined by

A. element diameter
B. slice thickness
C. beam diameter
D. imaging depth

A

D

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6
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility of a sonographer when assisting with an intravascular ultrasound

A. to operate the ultrasound machine from outside the sterile field
B. to send the ultrasound catheter for sterilization after the procedure
C. to advance the ultrasound catheter during the procedure
D. to perform preliminary IVUS images before the start of the angioplasty procedure

A

A

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7
Q

Lowering the transducer frequency will

A. improve temporal resolution
B. decrease the prop speed
C. increase the MI
D. increase the sector size

A

C

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8
Q

If you obtain a peak velocity of 60cm/s with the doppler correction angle set to 0 degrees and it should have been set at 60 degrees, what is the actual velocity in the vessel

A. 120 cm/s
B. 30 cm/s
C. 90 cm/s
D. 40 cm/s

A

A

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9
Q

If the ultrasound image is too black and white, which of the following will add more levels of grey to the image

A. increase threshold levels
B. reduce the dynamic range
C. decrease compression
D. decrease rejection levels

A

D

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10
Q

What is the average nyquist limit for a 5MHz CW doppler probe

A. 15kHz
B. 7kHz
C. 10kHz
D. none of the above

A

D

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11
Q

Potential bioeffects of ultrasound can be minimized by which of the following

A. using a lower frequency
B. increase PRF
C. decrease overall gain
D. reduce exam time

A

D

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12
Q

Axial resolution artifacts occur due to _______, while lateral resolution artifacts occur due to _____

A. short pulses, narrow beams
B. long pulses, wide beams
C. element damage, matching layer damage
D. matching layer damage, element damage

A

B

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13
Q

What system control should be turned off when attempting to demonstrate posterior shadowing from a suspected renal or biliary stone

A. time gain compensation
B. color doppler
C. harmonic imaging
D. spatial compounding

A

D

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14
Q

______ increases the strength of all of the reflected signals, regardless of reflector depth

A. overall gain
B. swept gain
C. TGC
D. transmit gain

A

A

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15
Q

What is the twinkle artifact

A. mosaic colors displayed in a linear pattern posterior to a dense object, such as a renal stone
B. describes the color display seen as urine is entering the bladder during real time imaging
C. thin line of reverberation artifact that is caused by calcium deposits in the renal parenchyma
D. varied brightness of vascular calcifications causes a twinkling effect on 2D

A

A

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16
Q

Virtual beam forming significantly improves all types of resolution compared to pulse echo imaging, except

A. contrast resolution
B. temporal resolution
C. lateral resolution
D. axial resolution

A

D

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17
Q

Which of the following acronyms refers to the standard image file storage format used in medical facilities in the united states

A. MPEG
B. JPEG
C. DICOM
D. AVI

A

C

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18
Q

Activation of B color is used to improve

A. contrast resolution
B. spatial resolution
C. temporal resolution
D. elevational resolution

A

A

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19
Q

Which two factors determine the focal depth of a transducer

A. prop speed and element diameter
B. element diameter and frequency
C. element thickness and diameter
D. element thickness and frequency

A

B

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20
Q

Which of the following can be used to eliminate the dead zone on the image

A. decrease the depth to the lowest setting and turn off harmonic imaging
B. use a standoff pad
C. place multiple focal zones at the top of the image
D. not possible to eliminate the dead zone from an image

A

B

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21
Q

If beam intensity decreases from 10mW/cm^2 to a level of 2.5mW/cm^2, the output power was adjusted by

A. +6dB
B. -3dB
C. +3dB
D. -6dB

A

D

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22
Q

What changes occur to the ultrasound beam when timed pulses are emitted from right to left from the elements of the phased transducer

A. the beam is steered to the left
B. the beam is steered to the right
C. a trapezoidal image is displayed
D. the focal depth moves closer to the transducer face

A

A

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23
Q

Contrast resolution is calculated by dividing the dynamic range by the

A. number of reflections received
B. number of shades of grey
C. number of pixels in the memory
D. number of bits in the memory

A

B

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24
Q

Harmonic imaging leads to

A. improved axial resolution but degraded lateral resolution
B. increased side lobe production
C. decreased image clutter
D. decreased signal to noise ratio

A

C

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25
Q

Which of the following parameters is NOT operator adjustable

A. PRF
B. MI
C. intensity
D. frequency

A

D

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26
Q

Increasing the number of pulses in a color packet will

A. increase frame rate
B. increase color priority
C. increase frame time
D. decrease color sensitivity

A

C

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27
Q

Overgaining on an US exam can cause

A. blood to appear anechoic
B. underestimation of arterial stenosis
C. increased posterior shadowing
D. overestimation of doppler velocity

A

D

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28
Q

If the amplitude of the ultrasound wave decreases by 1/2 with a constant beam area, what happens to the intensity of the beam

A. increases by a factor of 4
B. decreases to 25% of original value
C. decreased to 50% of original value
D. doubles

A

B

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29
Q

The _____ is defined as the time it takes for one pulse to occur

A. PRF
B. spatial pulse length
C. pulse duration
D. period

A

C

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30
Q

Blood flow volume changes in the body are mainly controlled by what two factors

A. cardiac function and peripheral resistance
B. viscosity and friction
C. cardiac function and vessel radius
D. vessel radius and resistance

A

A

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31
Q

If the time to produce each frame is 0.01 second, what is the frame rate

A. 10kHz
B. 10Hz
C. 100kHz
D. 100Hz

A

D

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32
Q

Which statement regarding the differences between pulsed and continuous wave doppler is NOT correct

A. PW doppler requires one PE crystals, while CW doppler used two crystals
B. CW doppler offers significantly improved range resolution
C. CW doppler tracings do not display a spectral window with any flow type
D. PW doppler is limited in detection of a doppler shift by the PRF of the system but CW doppler is not

A

B

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33
Q

_______ is defined as energy per unit of time

A. power
B. kinetic energy
C. intensity
D. impedance

A

A

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34
Q

Which of the following will increase spectral broadening on the image

A. more laminar flow
B. increased PRF
C. increased wall filter
D. increased sample volume size

A

D

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35
Q

Which color doppler control helps to find a balance between the accuracy of the color displayed and the temporal resolution of the image

A. packet size
B. beam focusing
C. variance color map
D. electronic steering

A

A

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36
Q

Lateral resolution is best at what location in the beam

A. near zone
B. far zone
C. focal point
D. periphery

A

C

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37
Q

A pulse is transmitted and the first echoes return at 51 microsec. A second pulse is transmitted at 52microsec. Reflectors located at _____ and deeper will result in range ambiguity

A. 2cm
B. 3cm
C. 5cm
D. 4cm

A

D

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38
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the PPV of a testing technique

A. if the test result is positive, PPV is the probability that the patient actually has the disease
B. if the test result is negative PPV is the probability that the patient does not have the disease
C. The ability of a test to detect disease when it IS present
D. the ability of a test to rule out disease when it IS NOT present

A

A

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39
Q

The sonographer may avoid aliasing by altering the

A. increasing the frequency
B. transmit gain
C. increasing the sample volume length
D. image depth

A

D

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40
Q

What type of transducer has a cylindrical beam profile

A. linear array
B. phased array
C. annular array
D. curved array

A

C

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41
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the differences between a vector array compared to a phased sector array

A. the vector array provides better penetration capabilities than the phased sector array of the same MHz
B. the vector array has a smaller near field FOV than the phased sector array
C. the vector array has a smaller footprint than the phased sector array
D. the vector array is mechanically steered while the phased sector array is electronically steered

A

C

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42
Q

Volume averaging artifact causes

A. degraded contrast and spatial resolution
B. improved contrast resolution
C. degraded elevational resolution
D. improved spatial resolution and degraded contrast

A

A

43
Q

At the end of a 2nd trimester fetal scan you notice the overall gain was set to the maximum level during the exam. Which of the following statements is true

A. note this in the patient’s record. The physician should be aware of the additional exposure when considering ordering another US exam
B. you should review the images to note the MI levels during the exam to assess patient exposure
C. you should review the images to note the thermal index levels during the exam to assess patient exposure
D. none of the above

A

D

44
Q

______ resolution is defined as the ability of an ultrasound system to differentiate structures on an image based on variations in the brightness of the echo/pixel

A. lateral
B. contrast
C. elevational
D. axial

A

B

45
Q

What can be used to alter the displayed brightness of the image after it has been stored in the memory

A. rejection
B. preprocessing
C. spatial compounding
D. postprocessing

A

D

46
Q

Focusing of the transmitted and received beam occurs in the

A. image former
B. image processor
C. beam former
D. signal processor

A

C

47
Q

If there is no diastolic flow demonstrated on a doppler tracing of the arcuate artery of the upper pole of the right kidney, what will the RI be

A. 0
B. unable to calculate the RI, not enough information given
C. 0.5
D. 1.0

A

D

48
Q

Increasing the sector size, increases

A. the elevational resolution
B. the frame rate
C. the number of pulses per image
D. the temporal resolution

A

C

49
Q

Which of the following transducers provides the best spatial resolution of the cardiac structures

A. transesophageal array
B. phased sector array
C. vector array
D. curved sequential array

A

A

50
Q

Which of the following is a function of the pulser used to increase the signal to noise ratio

A. MI
B. temporal compounding
C. coded excitation
D. dynamic receive focusing

A

C

51
Q

While scanning the carotid artery, you obtain a doppler tracing. Before recording the image, you increase the cursor angle from the last sample taken and record the new image. How will this change affect the calculated velocity in the new sample

A. decrease
B. increase
C. no change
D. no change unless stenosis is present

A

B

52
Q

If you change from transducer with a 40mm crystal thickness to one with a 20mm crystal thickness, the frequency of the sound produced will

A. increase by 1/2
B. double
C. increase by a factor of 4
D. decrease by 1/4

A

B

53
Q

Increasing scan line density leads to improved _____ resolution

A. lateral
B. temporal
C. spatial
D. slice thickness

A

C

54
Q

Prop speed artifact, reverberation artifact and the bayonet artifact are acoustic artifacts seen with

A. abscess formation
B. abdominal aortic aneurysms
C. needles
D. pneumothoraz

A

C

55
Q

There is no known adverse biological effect in vivo using a focused ultrasound transducer at intensities below

A. 100 mW/cm^2 SATA
B. 1000 mW/cm^2 SPTA
C. 100 mW/cm^2 SPTA
D. 1 W/cm SPTA

A

D

56
Q

Increasing the spectral doppler sample size will increase the

A. spectral broadening
B. size of the spectral window
C. sweep speed
D. doppler shift

A

A

57
Q

What system parameter is evaluated by scanning all three sides of the AIUM test object and compiling the images

A. axial resolution
B. registration
C. vertical calibration
D. dead zone

A

B

58
Q

When scanning using harmonic imaging, the second harmonic frequency is 10MHz. What is the fundamental frequency

A. 7.5MHz
B. 20MHz
C. 2.5MHz
D. 5MHz

A

D

59
Q

Which of the following is related to an increase in the spatial pulse length of an US beam produced by the transducer

A. increased beam width
B. decreased imaging depth
C. remove a focal zone
D. decrease in probe frequency

A

D

60
Q

Which of the following characteristics of an LCD monitor determines the spatial resolution of the 2D image

A. size of the patient
B. number of pixels
C. speed of digital to analog converter
D. number of voxels

A

B

61
Q

Increasing the PRF improves

A. temporal resolution
B. spatial pulse length
C. the PRP
D. the pulse duration

A

A

62
Q

Which statement regarding high frequency transducers is correct

A. higher frequency transducers provide improved image resolution because the sound travels faster through the tissues to provide a more accurate display
B. harmonic imaging should never be used on transducers over 12 MHz
C. A multi-hertz transducer operates at multiple frequencies and offers a broad bandwidth
D. higher frequency transducers always have low signal to noise ratio

A

C

63
Q

Which of the following will improve slice thickness resolution

A. decreasing transmitted frequency
B. decreasing rejection
C. decreasing damping levels
D. adding an external focusing lens

A

D

64
Q

________ is defined as the time it takes to complete one cycle

A. pulse duration
B. period
C. frequency
D. spatial pulse length

A

B

65
Q

Which setting should be lowered to the minimum level when beginning to evaluate the patient using the orbital window

A. output power
B. velocity scale
C. doppler gain
D. wall filter

A

A

66
Q

As a pulse travels through a medium, the amplitude of the pulse

A. does not change until the pulse reaches the far field
B. increases
C. does not change
D. decreases

A

D

67
Q

Which of the following describes a primary difference between virtual beam forming and traditional pulse echo imaging

A. VBF requires only one transducer for all types of ultrasound exams
B. VBF does not use transmit focusing like pulse echo imaging
C. VBF requires only one PE element, which allows for a very lightweight transducer
D. VBF allows for cordless transducers

A

B

68
Q

Which of the following lists all of the components of the US system

A. pulser, transducer, memory, display
B. transducer, memory, display, scan converter
C. transducer, receiver, scan converter, display
D. transducer, receiver, memory, pulser, display

A

D

69
Q

Glutaraldehyde is used to

A. disinfect the transducer after a patient exam
B. opacify blood vessels and cardiac chambers on a contrast exam
C. sterilize the transducer after a patient exam
D. provide a liquid cushion for the element in a mechanical wobbler transducer

A

A

70
Q

What component of the beam former protects the sensitive circuitry of the amplifier

A. transducer
B. summer
C. pulse delays
D. transmit/receive switch

A

D

71
Q

What is the most common doppler artifact

A. ghosting
B. clutter
C. aliasing
D. blooming

A

C

72
Q

_____ uses the amplitude of the doppler shift and the intensity of the red blood cells to be able to generate color on the image independent of the angle of insonation

A. PW doppler
B. color doppler
C. CW doppler
D. power doppler

A

D

73
Q

The narrowest point of the ultrasound beam is called

A. focal depth
B. fraunhofer zone
C. fresnel zone
D. focal zone

A

D

74
Q

Which of the following is NOT adjustable by the sonographer

A. compression
B. demodulation/detection
C. amplification
D. compensation

A

B

75
Q

Which of the following settings should be increased when evaluating venous flow on doppler

A. PRF
B. output power
C. color priority
D. wall filter

A

C

76
Q

Sound energy that arrives at the transducer before the rest of the original pulse finishes transmitting will cause what acoustic artifact

A. mirror image
B. lobe artifact
C. range ambiguity
D. ring down

A

C

77
Q

Which of the following will cause an object to be displayed in an improper location or at an incorrect size

A. shadowing
B. reverberation
C. refraction
D. enhancement

A

C

78
Q

Color doppler is evaluated with what type of phantom

A. tissue phantom
B. fluid filled phantom
C. AIUM test object
D. hydrophone

A

B

79
Q

Which of the following transducers can be focused only at a single depth location

A. annular phased
B. linear phased
C. curvilinear phased
D. mechanical single element

A

D

80
Q

As the cosine of the cursor angle increases

A. the calculated velocity decreases
B. the prop velocity increases
C. the calculated velocity increases
D. the prop velocity decreases

A

A

81
Q

Which operator control can be used to adjust the image contrast

A. overall gain
B. focal zone
C. output power
D. dynamic range

A

D

82
Q

The AIUM has stated that there have been no confirmed reports of thermal bioeffects to living mammals with ultrasound exposure, if the temperature rise in tissue is less than

A. 1 degree Kelvin
B. 2 degrees Celcius
C. 98.6 degrees F
D. 2 degree F

A

B

83
Q

What is the function used with color doppler analysis to assess the data from multiple sampling sites and produce a display representing mean flow velocities

A. autocorrelation
B. bernoulli equation
C. quadrature phase detection
D. FFT

A

A

84
Q

Which of the following is a sound parameter that is NOT processed by the pulse echo system

A. time of flight
B. blood flow velocity
C. echo amplitude
D. frequency shift

A

B

85
Q

If the reflector is moving away from the stationary sound source, the reflected wave will

A. have a higher frequency than the transmitted frequency
B. unable to determine without more information
C. have a lower frequency than the transmitted frequency
D. not be detected

A

C

86
Q

In a vessel with a focal stenosis, the lowest pressure is found

A. in the area with the most turbulence
B. just distal to the stenosis
C. proximal to the stenosis
D. at the narrowest point in the vessel

A

D

87
Q

The matching layer for a transducer is usually made of plastic and is approx

A. 1/4 of the probe spatial pulse length in thickness
B. 1/4 of the probe wavelength in thickness
C. 4 times the probe wavelength in diameter
D. 1/2 of the probe wavelength in thickness

A

B

88
Q

Which of the following types of PE crystals are usually used for high frequency transducers (>18MHz) used in musculoskeletal exams

A. quartz
B. barium sulfate
B. rochelle salt
D. lead titanate

A

A

89
Q

Diagnostic ultrasound is describes as frequencies greater than

A. 1MHz
B. 2MHz
C. 2.5MHz
D. 3MHz

A

B

90
Q

Which of the following is directly related to the peak doppler shift detected in an artery

A. valsalva
B. patient position
C. sample size
D. transducer frequency

A

D

91
Q

The coupling gel used for ultrasound exams provides the same function as what transducer component

A. matching layer
B. PE element
C. damping layer
D. backing layer

A

A

92
Q

Which of the following is true regarding a pulsed wave doppler device

A. has the ability to detect a doppler shift at a specific location along the path of the beam
B. no aliasing artifact due to continuous transmit and receive function of the transducer during PW doppler use
C. most accurate for evaluating very high velocity flow
D. the duty factor is 50% when PW doppler is activated

A

A

93
Q

Which of the following describes the correct way to measure the acceleration time on a doppler waveform

A. place a caliper at the onset of the systolic upstroke and end diastolic peak
B. place a caliper at the systolic peak and the end diastolic velocity
C. place a caliper at the onset of the systolic upstroke and at the systolic peak
D. trace the waveform from the systolic peak of one waveform to the systolic peak of the next waveform

A

C

94
Q

The crystal in the ultrasound transducer converts

A. mechanical energy into heat energy
B. electrical energy into heat energy
C. electrical energy into mechanical energy
D. mechanical energy into sound energy

A

C

95
Q

If the stenosis/blockage reduces the vessel lumen to 1/4 of the normal vessel area, the velocity of flow at the stenosis must ______ to maintain the flow rate

A. decrease by 25%
B. increase by 400%
C. quadruple
D. double

A

C

96
Q

If you change from 4MHz to 2MHz transducer frequency what happens to the detected doppler shift

A. it will decrease by 50%
B. it will double
C. it will quadruple
D. it will decrease by 25%

A

A

97
Q

Intensity=

A. power/beam area
B. density x prop speed
C. power x beam area
D. frequency x wavelength

A

A

98
Q

Which of the following increases at an arterial stenosis

A. velocity and viscosity
B. resistance and pressure
C. pressure and velocity
D. resistance and velocity

A

D

99
Q

Which of the following transducers would have the best axial resolution

A. 2mm element diameter
B. 2mm spatial pulse length
C. 4mm spatial pulse length
D. 4mm element diameter

A

B

100
Q

To obtain a longer near zone

A. add a lens to the transducer face
B. change from a 3MHz to a 6MHz transducer
C. decrease the transducer element diameter
D. use a linear transducer instead of a curved transducer

A

B

101
Q

Which transducer would provide the lowest attenuation rate

A. 5MHz
B. 10MHz
C. 2.5Mhz
D. 8MHz

A

C

102
Q

The magnitude of the doppler shift in color doppler determines

A. the color hue
B. the color luminance
C. the peak velocity of the flow displayed as color
D. the color threshold

A

B

103
Q

Which of the following is inversely related to the doppler shift

A. speed of sound in tissue
B. sine of the angle between the flow and the detector
C. speed of the red blood cells
D. number of red blood cells

A

A

104
Q

Venous blood flow in the legs is propelled toward the heart by

A. respiration only
B. cardiac pulsatility only
C. muscle contraction and respiration
D. cardiac pulsatility, muscle contraction and respiration

A

C

SPI Click to Learn (12 decks)

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