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Neuroscience > special senses > Flashcards

special senses Flashcards

1
Q

What is aguesia?

A

loss of taste

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2
Q

What is anosmia?

A

loss of smell sensation

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3
Q

What taste papillae are in the posterior part of tongue

A

Circumvallate and foliate

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4
Q

taste papillae in anterior part of tongue

A

fungiform

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5
Q

what do the sensory cells in taste buds project

A

microvilli into outer taste pore

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6
Q

what are the properties of basal cells in taste buds

A

like stem cells

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7
Q

what junctions are present in taste buds

A

tight junctions between apical membranes

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8
Q

where are most taste receptors and channels

A

apical membrane of sensory cells

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9
Q

what are on the basolat membrane of taste buds

A

calcium channels, stores and transmitter vesicles

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10
Q

what are sweet, bitter and umami detected by

A

g protein coupled receptors

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11
Q

what is salt detected by

A

Na+ entering cells leading to depolarisation

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12
Q

what is sour detected by

A

H+ entering cells leading to depol

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13
Q

what are the receptors involed in sweet and umami?

A

T1R

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14
Q

what receptors for umami?

A

T1R1 and T1R3

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15
Q

receptors for sweet

A

T1R2 and T1R3

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16
Q

receptor for sweetener

A

T1R3

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17
Q

what is the family of receptors in bitter

A

T2R

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18
Q

why is it important to have many bitter receptors

A

tells us if it is poisonous

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19
Q

what do T1R and T2R act via

A

TRP channel M5 which allows entry of cations leading to depolarisation

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20
Q

What is the aqueous solubility of an odorant increased by?

A

OBPs (odorant binding proteins)

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21
Q

do olfactory receptor neurones have cilia?

A

yes, project into mucus

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22
Q

where are receptors for odorants located

A

cilia of the ORN

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23
Q

what is the function of the supporting cells in the ORN

A

determine the composition of the mucus

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24
Q

how many ORNs per nostril

A

6 million

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25
Q

each ORN has how many non motile cilia

A

8-20

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26
Q

how is an odour molecule transported to a receptor

A

dissolves in olfactory mucus, OBP transports it

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27
Q

what is the process in olfactory transduction

A

olfactory G protein activated - adenylyl cyclase activated - cAMP increases- opens ion channels - influx Ca 2+ and Na+ - opens calcium dependent Cl- channels - depol of ORN - travels up cilia, summation - increases AP firing - olfactory bulb

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28
Q

where do ORNs synapse, what happens here

A

in the glomerulus, meet dendrites of mitral cells

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29
Q

how many types of neurone does each glomerulus receive input from?

A

one

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30
Q

what cells are involved in the sharpening of information of smell

A

periglomerular cells

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31
Q

what cells axons form the lateral olfactory tract

A

mitral cell axons

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32
Q

where do efferent fibres from higher brain centres synapse

A

granule cells

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33
Q

how many olfactory axons per glomerulus

A

25000

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34
Q

what is the convergence of ORNs to mitral cells

A

1000:1

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35
Q

what makes up the primary olfactory cortex

A

piriform cortex and entorhinal cortex

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36
Q

what makes up the secondary olfactory cortex

A

orbitofrontal cortex

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37
Q

what does smell have an subconscious effect via?

A

limbic system

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38
Q

what is the range for human hearing

A

20 Hz- 20kHz

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39
Q

what does the wall of the external auditory meatus contain

A

ceruminous glands (secrete cerumen- earwax)

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40
Q

properties of earwax

A

antibacterial, anti fungal

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41
Q

what angle does the tympanic membrane lie at

A

55 degrees. due to the handle of malleus draws it into a peak

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42
Q

what is the middle ear lined with

A

ciliated epithelium

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43
Q

what does the external auditory meatus end in

A

tympanic membrane- vibrates

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44
Q

role of the Eustachian tube

A

pressure equalisation, route for infection. connects middle ear and nasopharynx

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45
Q

what are the ossicles

A

malleus, stapes, incus

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46
Q

what is the role of the ossicles

A

impedance matching

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47
Q

what happens in impendance matching

A

tympanic membrane is a large surface area so weak force by the vibrations, concentrate onto a smaller area (1/20)

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48
Q

what is the area that concentrates the force in impedance matching

A

oval window (foramen ovale)

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49
Q

how much does the oval window increase sensitivity by

A

1000x

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50
Q

what regulates the movement of the ossicles

A

stapedius and tensor tympani

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51
Q

what bulges to allow vibrations to move from the inner ear to the cochlea

A

round window (fenestra rotunda)

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52
Q

what happens if there is trouble with the draining of the Eustachian tube

A

otitis media

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53
Q

what can lead to reduced acuity of hearing

A

anything restricting the movement of the ossicles- mucus in the inner ear, ossification of joints between ossicles

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54
Q

what range is the human ear most sensitive

A

1.5-3 kHz

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55
Q

what are the openings of the bony/ osseous labyrinth

A

central opening and round window

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56
Q

what arises on either side of the vestibule

A

semicircular canals on one side, spiral cochlea on the other side

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57
Q

what is the membranous membrane filled with

A

endolymph, rich in K+

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58
Q

where is endolymph secreted from

A

stria vascularis. endolymphatic sac regulates it

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59
Q

what fills the space between the outer wall of the membranous labyrinth and the bony

A

perilymph

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60
Q

what happens in the cochlea and how many turns

A

detection of vibrations. 2 3/4 turns

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61
Q

what is contained in the 2 outer chambers and the middle chamber

A

outer- NaCl, inner- Kcl

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62
Q

what does the central core of the cochlea contain

A

auditory fibres (CN8)

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63
Q

what forms the floor of the scala media

A

basilar membrane

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64
Q

how is the basilar membrane at the base and apex

A

base- narrow and taut, apex- broader

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65
Q

how far do high frequencies travel

A

not very far, they die out when they reach the floppy membrane

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66
Q

how far can low frequencies travel

A

the full length as the floppy membrane can sustain slower oscillations

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67
Q

what is tonotopy

A

pitch mapped by position. basilar membrane splits the complex sounds into component frequencies

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68
Q

what detects the vibrations running along the basilar membrane

A

organ of corti

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69
Q

how many rows compose the organ of corti

A

4 hair cells. 3 outer layers, 1 inner layer

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70
Q

what are the hair cells embedded in

A

tectorial membrane

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71
Q

what happens with the basilar membrane moves up and down

A

the hair cells move from side to side which is picked up by the tectorial membrane. release glutamate, stimulate dendrites of spiral ganglion

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72
Q

what is the function of inner hair cells

A

pitch determination. send freq info to the CNS

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73
Q

how many inner hair cells are there

A

3,500 (400 cells per octave)

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74
Q

what is the function of the outer hair cells

A

cochlear amplifier. increase sensitivity

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75
Q

how do outer hair cells work as a cochlear amplifier

A

contract when excited by waves along the basilar membrane. oscillate in phase with the bm, so amplifies the travelling wave

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76
Q

how many outer hair cells

A

12000

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77
Q

what happens if the ear is damaged

A

hair cells may oscillate without external sound so the basilar membrane vibrates and emits sound- humming.

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78
Q

what happens with difference tones (Tartini’s)

A

2 tones present to the ear and hair cells move to produce a new peak

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79
Q

what is the frequency of a new tone in difference tones

A

difference between the two tones

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80
Q

what are difference tones used to diagnose

A

cochlear deafness show hair cell damage (distortion product otoacoustic emissions)

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81
Q

when can cochlear implants be used

A

if lost cochlear hair cell function but sensory neurones of spiral ganglion still functional

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82
Q

how do cochlear implants work

A

processor breaks down sound into frequency components. transmitted to implant receiver. conduct along wires to electrodes in the cochlea. stimulate nerve cells under the basilar membrane

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83
Q

what are part of the auditory pathway

A

superior olivary nucleus (MEDULLA); inferior colliculi (MIDBRAIN); medial geniculate nucleus (THALAMUS); auditory cortex

84
Q

what is involved in sound source localisation

A

superior olivary nucleus

85
Q

at what point in the pathway is the auditory reflex and what happens

A

inferior colliculi (turn head and eyes in response to a stimulus)

86
Q

what tract is involved in the auditory pathway

A

lateral lemniscus

87
Q

what is found in the primary auditory cortex

A

Heschl’s gyrus. tonotopically mapped

88
Q

what side is language processing on

A

left

89
Q

what side is music, prosody and inflection of speech

A

right

90
Q

what does the secondary cortex surrounding heschl’s gyrus include

A

wernickes area

91
Q

what is wernickes aphasia?

A

language fluent but meaningless words

92
Q

what is brocas aphasia

A

language halting and non grammatical (as language produced in brocas)

93
Q

what protects the ear from sound

A

stapedius muscle as limits the amount of movement of stapes

94
Q

what happens in the stapedius reflex

A

if damaging levels it contracts to limit the movement of the ossicle chain and decrease the intensity of pressure pulses

95
Q

is the ear better at protecting against low or high frequency sounds ?

A

better at blocking low frequency

96
Q

what do low freq sounds mask

A

the higher sounds. so if intense low freq will perceive this as the low freq but if less low freq will perceive as a high freq

97
Q

what happens when the stapedius is active

A

the higher frequencies are unmasked by the low frequencies and the perceived sound is quieter

98
Q

what happens before we speak

A

stapedius reflex is initiated, so low frequencies can be attenuated

99
Q

what is the threshold of human hearing

A

0dB

100
Q

how much of an increase in energy carried by sound is there with each increase of 20bD

A

10x energy

101
Q

what can exposure to very high levels lead to

A

at first temporary increase in hearing threshold, disturbances in hearing ringing and whistling. tinnitus, ear discomfort, muffled sounds

102
Q

greater exposure leads to what

A

destruction hair cells. don’t regenerate in mammals

103
Q

what happens in damage to hair cells (noise induced hearing loss)

A

production of free radicals, increase in Ca2+, might not be sufficient blood supply, can lead to apoptosis

104
Q

what does noise induced hearing loss first appear as

A

insensitivity at 4kHz (harder to interpret consonants here)

105
Q

what happens when the ear is exposed to hair cells

A

disruption to hair cells; with longer exposure the cells begin to round up and shorten; after a while the remaining hair cells clump together into a single mass.

106
Q

do axons project directly or indirectly to the outer hair cells

A

directly to outer (indirect mechanism to the inner cells)

107
Q

what is the limit tor sound exposure over an 8 hour day

A

87 dB

108
Q

with every 3dB increase in sound what happens to the length of exposure

A

halves

109
Q

what is the outermost layer of the eye, what does it form anteriorly

A

sclera. forms the cornea

110
Q

what is the role of the lens

A

focuses the image onto the back of the eye- on the retina

111
Q

where is the image most focused

A

fovea (surrounded by macula lutea)

112
Q

what is between the retina and the sclera. whats significant about it

A

choroid- vascular layer

113
Q

where is the blind spot

A

where the optic nerve enters the eye- there are no photoreceptors. optic disc

114
Q

features of sclera

A

tough, fibrous, opaqued, vascular, gives eye its shape

115
Q

features of the cornea

A

transparent, curved, no blood vessels, well innervated, cont. with the conjunctiva

116
Q

features of choroid

A

pigmented, well vascularised, supplies o2 and nutrients for retina

117
Q

features of the ciliary body

A

attachment for lens suspensory ligaments, contains ciliary muscles, secretion aqueous humour forms the iris

118
Q

what is the gel in the posterior chamber

A

vitreous body- attracts and holds water molecules (vitrein and hyaluronic acid)

119
Q

what is in the anterior chamber

A

aqueous humour

120
Q

how many layers makes up the retina

A

2- neural and photoreceptive layer and pigmented layer. one over ciliary process one over iris

121
Q

how are the fibres arranged in the sclera

A

randomly orientated- collagen and elastic fibres and fibroblasts

122
Q

does the sclera have epithelium

A

no except for the cornea

123
Q

what are the layers of the cornea (from top to bottom)

A

epithelium, bowmans membrane, stroma, decemets membrane, endothelium

124
Q

what is inflammation of the choroid

A

uveitis (as choroid is uveal tract)

125
Q

what does the ciliary body do

A

secrete aqueous humour, attachment for lens suspensory ligaments. forms iris

126
Q

what does the ciliary body contain

A

ciliary muscle fibres (parasymp)

127
Q

how does the ciliary body drain

A

via the iridocorneal angle into the canal of Schlemm

128
Q

what does the iris contain

A

constrictor and dilator muscles para and symp innervation, no epithelium on anterior surface.

129
Q

what is the ora serrata

A

junction between retina and ciliary body

130
Q

are there photo receptors past the ora serrata

A

no

131
Q

role of the pigmented layer of the retina

A

recycling rods and cones

132
Q

what is the lens held within

A

elastic capsule (collagen and proteoglycans)

133
Q

what is the lens held under tension by

A

fibres of the ciliary zonule

134
Q

why do lens become less transparent and finally opaque with age

A

as crystallins denature

135
Q

what is a cataract

A

clouding of the lens

136
Q

why are cataracts a common cause of blindness

A

as opaque lens prevents light passing and focussing on the retina at the back of the eye

137
Q

what can cause cataracts

A

age related degenerative changes, diabetes, enzyme deficiencies, toxic side effects. treat remove lens replace with plastic lens

138
Q

what is dry macular degeneration (90%)

A

tiny deposits of drusen on retina, few symptoms at first can get small dark spot in central vision as more drusen accumulate. can progress to worse

139
Q

what is wet macular degeneration (10%)

A

rarer but worse. abnormal vessels beneath retina, may bleed and leak fluid building up beneath retina so bulges up damaging the eye. central vision blurry and distorted, progresses to severe vision loss

140
Q

what happens in short focus of accomodation

A

ciliary muscle CONTRACTS and the body is brought forward; suspensory ligaments relax; lens becomes FATTER

141
Q

what happens in long focus of accomodation

A

ciliary muscle relaxes; suspensory ligaments are under tension; lens becomes FLATTER

142
Q

what is the term for long sighted and how is the eyeball

A

hypermetropia. too short light focuses behind the eyeball

143
Q

what is the term for short sighted and how is the eyeball

A

myopia. too long the light focuses in front of the eyeball

144
Q

what is required in long sighted and how to treat it

A

additional refractive power. converging corrective lens

145
Q

what is requires in short sighted and how to treat it

A

negative refractive power. diverging corrective lens

146
Q

why is presbyopia

A

lens thickens becomes harder with age. cant accomodate

147
Q

what is astigmatism

A

lens or cornea not smoothly spherical

148
Q

what happens in focussing

A

lens moves backwards and eyes inwards (convergence)

149
Q

what is the cornea constantly doing

A

swelling- collagen fibres exert high osmotic swelling pressure

150
Q

what are the endothelial and epithelial pumps on the cornea for

A

maintaining correct level of hydration

151
Q

does the lens swell

A

yes has high swelling pressure. counteracted by epithelial fluid transport

152
Q

what leads to cataracts

A

swelling of lens, also by UV light

153
Q

what happens in light to dark light reflex what is it called

A

dilator pupillae muscle contracts. MYDRIASIS (symp)

154
Q

what happens in dark to light light reflex what is it called

A

constrictor pupillae muscle contracts. MIOSIS (para)

155
Q

what do rod and cone cells synapse with

A

bipolar cells, send info to ganglion cells

156
Q

what cells perform lateral inhibition at the level of the photoreceptors and what is this process for

A

horizontal cells. sharpen the image and decrease input from neighbouring cells

157
Q

amacrine cells perform lateral inhibition at the level of what cells

A

ganglion cells

158
Q

what is the function of Muller cells

A

they act as light guides from the front to the back of the retina pass the light from the surface of the retina to the photoreceptor

159
Q

where are most cones found

A

in the fovea (rods have an inverse distribution)

160
Q

where are there no rods

A

in the fovea and blind spot

161
Q

are there any photoreceptors in the blind spot

A

no

162
Q

where is there overlap accounting for binocular vision

A

central area

163
Q

where does the right visual field end up

A

on the left part of the retina of both eyes

164
Q

what happens in partial decussation

A

at optic chiasm- all info from right visual field ends up in left visual cortex

165
Q

what is cortical magnification

A

if stimulus in centre of visual field then large no of neurones process info from this small region however if it is seen in periphery processed by many less neurones

166
Q

what happens in response to light hitting the photoreceptor

A

hyperpolarisation of photoreceptor

167
Q

what neurotransmitter is released from the photoreceptor

A

glutamate

168
Q

what are the 2 types of bipolar cell associated with the photoreceptor

A

hyperpolarising cells and depolarising cells

169
Q

what happens if there is a decrease in glutamate

A

the hyperpolarising cells hyperpolarise (as usually it depolarises the cell) and the depolarising cells depolarise (as usually inhibits depolarisation)

170
Q

what happens if it is linked to the depolarising cell

A

increase firing rate

171
Q

what type of cells do photoreceptors synapse with

A

both rods and cones synapse with both- opposite responses at the retinal ganglion cells.

172
Q

what happens in the dark (phototransduction)

A

HIGH levels cGMP. cation channels OPEN and Na+ and Ca2+ enter. ‘dark current’. photoreceptors depolarise INCREASE in glutamate

173
Q

what happens in the light (phototransduction)

A

LOW levels of cGMP. cation channels CLOSE. hyperpolarisation of the photoreceptor leads to decrease glutamate

174
Q

what are the first and second parts of visual coding

A

first- form (detect edge of an object). 2nd- colour

175
Q

what are the 3 types of cones

A

red, blue, green

176
Q

what is the most sensitive to light of the 3 colours

A

red (559nm), then green (531nm), blue (419nm)

177
Q

what are the channels for the colours of cones

A

red/green and blue/yellow

178
Q

what are the different types of ganglion cells

A

X,Y and W

179
Q

what are the X cells

A

80% ganglion ells. SLOW. CONES. central fovea

180
Q

what are the Y cells

A

10%, FAST connected to rod cells

181
Q

what are the W cells

A

detect light levels. involved in light reflex

182
Q

what allows perception of depth

A

fusion of 2 images in the cortex from binocular vision

183
Q

what are saccades

A

unconsciously move eyes compensating for poor imaging as not in focus as move away from centre of vision

184
Q

which have larger outer segments (rods and cones)

A

rods have larger outer segments so there is a greater chance of trapping photons

185
Q

if light levels fall what happens to cones

A

they become inactive and only rods respond, so colours begin to fade

186
Q

is the central disc excited or inhibited by light

A

excited (outer disc inhibited)

187
Q

what happens if light is shone on the inner and outer discs

A

inner- bursts of action potentials. outer- not much change in action potential

188
Q

what is the function of the receptive fields of vision

A

sharpen edge of the field

189
Q

where is the ganglion cell receptive field smallest

A

at the fovea. become larger as go towards the periphery

190
Q

where does information coming from nasal hemifield go

A

crosses to the contralateral side of the brain. (info from temporal field remains ipsiateral)

191
Q

where do most retinal axons travel to

A

thalamic lateral geniculate nucleus

192
Q

how many layers of lateral geniculate nucleus are there

A

6 layers

193
Q

what layers of the LGN are nasal contralat

A

1,4,6

194
Q

what layers of LGN are temporal ipsilat

A

2,3,5

195
Q

what are the 2 types of cell in LGN

A

magnocellular and parvocellular

196
Q

what are the features of magnocellular of LGN (1 and 2)

A

large cells, ROD CELLS, low acuity, fast, high contrast

197
Q

what are the features of parvocellular of LGN (3-6)

A

small cells, CONES, high acuity, slow, low contrast

198
Q

where do axons of the LGN project

A

internal capsule; in optic radiation; along lateral ventricle; maintains retinopic order; into primary visual occipital cortex

199
Q

what does the primary visual cortex analyse

A

edges

200
Q

what does V4 analyse

A

colour vision

201
Q

what does v3 analyse

A

dynamic vision

202
Q

what does v5 analyse

A

motion

203
Q

what is achromatopia

A

colour perception eliminated

204
Q

what is the elimination of movement perception

A

akinetopsia

205
Q

what is the elimination of ability to distinguish faces

A

prosopagnosia

206
Q

what is horners syndrome

A

compression of the sympathetic chain leads to ptosis miosis anhydrosis

Neuroscience (8 decks)

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