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Neuroscience > peripheral nervous system > Flashcards

peripheral nervous system Flashcards

1
Q

are pre ganglionic or post ganglionic neurones always myelinated

A

pre ganglionic

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2
Q

where is the ganglion in parasympathetic NS

A

near or embedded in the target organ

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3
Q

what do the preganglionic and postganglionic neurones release in para ?

A

ACH (acts on nicotinic receptors of postgang, muscarinic receptors on target organ)

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4
Q

where is the ganglion in sympathetic NS

A

nearer the CNS

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5
Q

what is secreted by the preganglionic neurone in symp?

A

ACH

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6
Q

what is secreted by the postganglionic neurone in symp?

A

NA (except in innervating the sweat glands-ach)

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7
Q

where is sympathetic outflow restricted by?

A

T1-L3

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8
Q

where do axons of the symp enter?

A

symp chain

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9
Q

where is parasymp outflow restricted to

A

head and the pelvis

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10
Q

what do all preganglionic neurones release and act on what receptors

A

ACH, at on nicotinic receptors

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11
Q

what else do post ganglionic neurones release in sympathetic

A

peptide (neuropeptide Y)

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12
Q

where is neuropeptide Y prominent and what is its action

A

prominent in blood vessels prolongs constriction by the NA

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13
Q

what is released when ACH is released

A

VIP (vasoactive intestinal polypeptide). released with ACH in symp and para

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14
Q

what is the action of VIP

A

increases blood flow through glandular tissue

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15
Q

how do postganglionic neurones terminate in the ANS

A

not attached as organs variable in size, located near

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16
Q

where is the neurotransmitter release from on postganglionic neurones

A

from varicosities on branches in the target

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17
Q

what are the cranial nerves carrying parasympathetic fibres

A

CN 3, 7, 9, 10

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18
Q

parasympathetic outflow divided into

A

cranial part and sacral spinal cord

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19
Q

where are the paravertebral ganglia found

A

ganglia of the sympathetic chain

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20
Q

where are the prevertebral ganglia found

A

in front of the vertebral column

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21
Q

what is the target in the enteric NS

A

smooth muscle of the wall, embedded between its 2 layers

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22
Q

sensory info comes in via which horn

A

dorsal horn- POSTERIOR (ventral-motor)

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23
Q

what are the types of axons that all peripheral spinal nerves contain

A

somatic motor, somatic sensory, visceral motor, visceral sensory

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24
Q

where do somatic motor come from to supply what?

A

come from lower motor neurones, supply skeletal muscle (myelinated)

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25
Q

where do somatic sensory (primary afferents) come from

A

from peripheral receptors. cell body in DRG. C fibres and A delta fibres

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26
Q

what are visceral motor and where do they come from

A

postganglionic sympathetic axons (autonomic), supply organs in the skin

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27
Q

what are visceral sensory and where do they come from

A

sympathetic afferents, from structures such as vascular beds in the skin

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28
Q

in a nerve fascicle what part do blood vessels run through, function?

A

epineurium , contain white adipocytes for protection

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29
Q

what does the perineurium act as

A

barrier to infection, tough and resistant only blood vessels can traverse it

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30
Q

what does the endoneurium contain

A

collagen and ECF

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31
Q

what direction do orthograde axons go. what motor component is involved

A

cell body to terminal. kinesin

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32
Q

what direction do retrograde axons go, what motor component is involved

A

terminal to cell body. dynein

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33
Q

what can lead to nutrition being a factor in peripheral neuropathy

A

vitamin B deficiency, malabsorption

34
Q

what remains following a cut/crush in wallerian degeneration

A

myelin sheath

35
Q

the completeness of regrowth of the axon depends on what?

A

how clean the damage is, if adequate blood supply, age

36
Q

what is neuropathic pain due to

A

incomplete neuronal regeneration

37
Q

symptoms of neuropathic pain

A

tenderness, burning, tingling, electric shock like

38
Q

what is neuropathic pain caused by

A

neuroma with new membrane altered Na+ and K+ channels leading to abnormal action potentials. neuroma goes into spinal cord and leads to pain as cant interpret abnormal info

39
Q

what is the function of schwann cells apart from myelination

A

secrete glycoprotein (laminin) which is important when a nerve is trying to regenerate as provides a surface area

40
Q

what must occur in nerve regeneration

A

angiogenesis (laminin provides surface for this)

41
Q

unmyelinated axons contain plenty of what and whats this important for

A

mitochondria. for axonal transport- have to maintain the axon and maintain a synapse

42
Q

what happens in axonal transport. what are responsible

A

molecules are sent down the length of the axon (ATP dependent process). neurotubules are responsible.

43
Q

what protein is important in axonal transport

A

tau. if overexpressed or destroyed then axonal transport would cease- molecules produced wouldn’t be able to leave and the neurone would die

44
Q

what are the 3 portions of an anaesthetic

A

aromatic, ester/amide, amine portion

45
Q

examples of amide anaesthetics

A

lignocaine, bupivacaine

46
Q

examples of ester anaesthetics

A

cocaine, amethocaine

47
Q

which type of anaesthetic is more commonly used and why?

A

amides as esters are less stable in solution, and they can be associated with allergic reactions whereas amides rarely lead to allergic reaction

48
Q

what are the 4 states of conformation of Na+ channels

A

resting state; intermediate closed formation; open conformation; inactivated conformation (immediately after AP)

49
Q

which channels do the local anaesthetics interact with and which channels do they have the highest affinity for

A

highest affinity for intermediate and inactivated conformation. some affinity for open channel (lowest for resting)

50
Q

how do the anaesthetics work

A

prevent channel from opening, bind channel pore if its open, prolong refractory period in the inactive

51
Q

where do the local anaesthetics target

A

where there is injury and higher rate of nociceptive firing

52
Q

which pain fibres have a greater susceptibility for Local anaesthetics?

A

A delta > c fibres

53
Q

what part of the LA contributes to lipid solubility and what is the function

A

aromatic group and hydrocarbon chain length. potency

54
Q

what is the function of pKa and protein binding in LA

A

pka (due to the amine) contributes to the speed of onset, protein binding- duration of action

55
Q

what form does the LA need to be in to cross the membrane, and to bind and have activity on voltage gated Na+ channels

A

unionised to cross membrane, ionised to bind VGNa+

56
Q

how do LAs cross membrane and bind VGNa+

A

they are weak bases and as intracellular is more acidic than extracellular they are in unionised form to cross the membrane and dissociate intracellularly and so can bind the VGNa+

57
Q

what does a lower pka show

A

greater proportion of drug ionised at lower ph, so has a more rapid onset of action

58
Q

why does lignocaine have a faster onset of action than bupivacaine

A

because lignocaines pka is 7.8 and so more is unionised outside the cell (which is 7.4) and so can cross the lipid membrane faster than bupivacaine (pka 8.1)

59
Q

why is adrenaline used in conjunction with LA

A

reduces blood flow, so prolongs effect of LA

60
Q

which is short acting lignocaine or bupivacaine

A

lignocaine, (bupivacaine more longer acting)

61
Q

what is an amide LA and how is used

A

amethocaine. used topically

62
Q

where does a large output of SNS go?

A

adrenal medulla. no ganglia so acts directly on nACHRs on chromaffin cells to release adrenaline

63
Q

out of nicotinic and muscarinic receptors which are ionotropic(pass ions through)

A

nicotinic. (muscarinic- metaohtropic- GPCR)

64
Q

what does an overdose in organophosphates (cholinesterase inhibitors) lead to

A

SLUDGEM- salivation, lacrimation, urination, defacation, GI upset, emesis, miosis (antidote- atropine)

65
Q

what can cholinesterase be used in clinically

A

glaucoma, myasthenia gravis, urinary retention/ileus, alzheimers

66
Q

examples of cholinesterase inhibitors, which is longer acting

A

neostigmine, pyrimidostigmine

67
Q

what are the effects of muscarinic agonists

A

increased empyting of bladder, GI trqact and salivary tracts. decrease sweating and lacrimation, slow heart decrease BP

68
Q

useful muscarinic agonists

A

bethanechol, pilocarpine

69
Q

effects of muscarinic antagonists

A

increase HR, blurred vision, decrease GI motility. major CNS effects- delirium, confusion, disorientation, hallucinations

70
Q

examples of muscarinic antagonists

A

atropine, tropicamide

71
Q

what is the term for agonists (NA)

A

sympathomimetic

72
Q

what is the term for antagonists (NA)

A

sympatholytic

73
Q

where are alpha 1 receptors found (NA)

A

in arterial and veno contraction, found in vasculature

74
Q

where are alpha 2 receptors found (NA)

A

in CNS, platelets, fat cells.decrease sympathetic activity

75
Q

where are beta 1 receptors found (NA)

A

in heart. increase HR, contractile force, increase cardiac output

76
Q

where are beta 2 receptors found (NA)

A

causes bronchodilation, vasodilation. found in skeletal muscle and liver

77
Q

where are beta 3 receptors found (NA)

A

in fat cells

78
Q

what drugs alter the NA release, uptake or breakdown in SNS

A

cocaine (reuptake), amphetamines (release), pargyline (anti depressant and anti hypertensive)

79
Q

what does an antagonist of alpha 1 treat

A

hypertension

80
Q

what does antonising alpha 2 lead to

A

increased sympathetic activity

81
Q

what can non selective B agonists be used for

A

bradycardia, heart block. B2 agonist- bronchodilation (salbutamol)

82
Q

what can non selective B antagonists be used for

A

hypertension, stage fright (propranolol used). B1 antagonist- atenolol.

Neuroscience (8 decks)

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