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MTAP 2 FINAL EXAM > SP2 - MICROBIO > Flashcards

SP2 - MICROBIO Flashcards

1
Q

Substrate used in Kovac’s indole test:

a. Indole
b. Tryptophan
c. Para-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
d. Para-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde

A

Tryptophan

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2
Q

Indole test differentiates which set of
organisms?

a. Morganella and Providencia
b. Salmonella and Shigella
c. P. vulgaris and P. mirabilis
d. E. coli and Klebsiella oxytoca

A

c. P. vulgaris and P. mirabilis

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3
Q

Inhibitors for gram (+) bacteria on MAC:

a. Crystal violet and vancomycin
b. Colistin and anisomycin
c. Trimethoprim and vancomycin
d. Bile salts and crystal violet

A

Bile salts and crystal violet

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4
Q

Colonies of Salmonella on SSA:

a. Colorless colonies with black
center
b. Colorless colonies without black center
c. Red colonies with black center
d. Red colonies without black center

A

Colorless colonies with black
center

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5
Q

Which of the following is a correct pair?
a. S. aureus – pink colonies on MSA
b. K. pneumoniae – colorless colonies on
MAC
c. S. pneumoniae – non-hemolytic on SBA
d. E. coli – yellow colonies on XLD

A

E. coli – yellow colonies on XLD

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6
Q

All members of Enterobacteriaceae are motile at 37degC except:

  1. Klebsiella
  2. Proteus
  3. Shigella
  4. Yersinia

a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1, 3, and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 4

A

1, 3, and 4

(Proteus is the only motile enterobacteriaceae)

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7
Q

pH indicator of LIA:

a. Neutral red
b. Phenol red
c. Bromothymol blue
d. Bromcresol purple

A

Bromcresol purple

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8
Q

Yellow butt and red slant in TSI tube indicates fermentation of:

a. Lactose
b. Glucose
c. Lactose and glucose
d. Lactose and/or sucrose

A

Glucose

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9
Q

Heat stable antigen of enterics located on their cell wall:

a. O
b. K
c. H
d. Vi

A

O

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10
Q

ONPG test allows organism to be classified as lactose fermenter by testing which of the following:

a. B-lactamase
b. B-galactosidase
c. Lactose permease
d. Tryptophanase

A

B-galactosidase

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11
Q

Only oxidase positive member of Enterobacteriaceae:

a. Shigella
b. Morganella
c. Plesiomonas
d. Edwardsiella

A

Plesiomonas

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12
Q

V. cholerae colonies on TCBS:

a. Blue
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Red

A

Yellow

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13
Q

Which of the following sets of results represents the most common reactions for Moraxella catarrhalis when tested in CTA sugar tubes?

a. Glucose (-); Maltose (-); Lactose
(-); Sucrose (-)
b. Glucose (+); Maltose (-); Lactose (-);
Sucrose (-)
c. Glucose (+); Maltose (+); Lactose (-);
Sucrose (-)
d. Glucose (+); Maltose (-); Lactose (+);
Sucrose (-)

A

Glucose (-); Maltose (-); Lactose
(-); Sucrose (-)

(Moraxella catarrhalis is asaccharolytic)

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14
Q

Neisseria lactamica can be differentiated from N. meningitidis through which of the following?

a. Colony morphology
b. Use of selective media
c. Glucose and maltose utilization
d. ONPG test

A

ONPG test

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15
Q

Isolates of the suspected C. diphtheriae must be tested for in vitro production of exotoxin thru:

a. Anton test
b. Elek test
c. Frei test
d. Mantoux test

A

Elek test

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16
Q

Lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis on SBA, and gram-stain morphology are all useful criteria in the identification of which of the following?

a. C. perfringens
b. S. agalactiae
c. E. coli
d. C. tetani

A

C. perfringens

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17
Q

Sensitivity test result of Group A Streptococci to Bacitracin and SXT respectively:

a. Susceptible and resistant
b. Resistant and susceptible
c. Both susceptible
d. Both resistant

A

Susceptible and resistant

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18
Q

Correct about gram-positive bacteria:

a. Has thinner peptidoglycan compared to gram-negative
b. Cell wall has an outer layer which
contains lipopolysaccharide
c. Takes up the crystal violet-iodine
complex but is easily decolorized
d. Uses selective isolation media like
colistin-nalidixic acid agar

A

Uses selective isolation media like
colistin-nalidixic acid agar

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19
Q

Responsible for dark / non-fluorescent
background in Auramine Rhodamine stain for acid-fast bacilli

a. Auramine
b. Rhodamine
c. Potassium permanganate
d. acid-alcohol

A

Potassium permanganate

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20
Q

Stain for endospore:

a. Wayson
b. Leifson
c. Schaeffer-Fulton
d. Loeffler’s alkaline methylene blue

A

Schaeffer-Fulton

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21
Q

Most common gas for sterilization:

a. Nitrogen dioxide
b. Chlorine dioxide
c. Ethylene oxide
d. Chlorhexidine gluconate

A

Ethylene oxide

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22
Q

HEPA filter size used in laboratory hoods and isolation room:

a. 0.3 um
b. 0.6 um
c. 0.9 um
d. 1.2 um

A

0.3 um

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23
Q

Incorrect about autoclaving:

a. Biologic indicator: B. stearothermophilus
b. Can destroy all forms of microbial life
including spores
c. Dry heat sterilization
d. 121degC / 15 psi / 15 mins

A

Dry heat sterilization

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24
Q

Uses a strip with varying conc. of antibiotic along its length and MIC can be obtained:

a. Kirby Bauer
b. Microplate dilution
c. Vitek System
d. E test

A

E test

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25
Q

0.5 MacFarland standard provides an optical density comparable to density of a bacterial suspension of:

a. 0.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
b. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
c. 0.5 x 10^9 CFU/mL
d. 1.5 x 10^9 CFU/mL

A

1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL

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26
Q

In disk diffusion testing, a delay of more than 15 mins between placing the disks on an inoculated plate and incubation results to:

a. Failure of antibiotic to diffuse in media
b. Zones of smaller diameter will result
c. Zones of larger diameter will
result
d. No effect on final zone diameter

A

Zones of larger diameter will
result

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27
Q

The term “palisading”, “picket fence”, and“Chinese letter” describe the common arrangement of cells of:

a. Corynebacterium spp
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not the other mycobacteria
c. Actinomyces but not Nocardia
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not
other corynebacteria

A

Corynebacterium spp

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28
Q

The exchange of cellular DNA between two living bacterial cells that involves an intercellular bridge is which of the following processes?

a. Transformation
b. Transduction
c. Plasmidization
d. Conjugation

A

Conjugation

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29
Q

The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the production of which of the following:

a. Clumping factor
b. Free coagulase
c. Extracellular coagulase
d. Catalase

A

Clumping factor

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30
Q

The bacterial species that can be described as susceptible to bile and optochin, a-hemolytic, a major cause of bacterial meningitis, and often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule is which of the following?

a. Enterococcus faecalis
b. S. pneumoniae
c. S. pyogenes
d. S. agalactiae

A

S. pneumoniae

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31
Q

Which of the following sets of tests provides the best differentiation of L. monocytogenes and E. rhusiopathiae?

a. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, optochin
b. Gram-stained smear, catalase, motility
c. CAMP test, H2S production, esculin hydrolysis
d. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, b-hemolysis

A

CAMP test, H2S production, esculin hydrolysis

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32
Q

Micrococcus and Staphylococcus species are differentiated by which test(s)?

  1. O-F tube
  2. Gram stain
  3. Catalase test
  4. Lysostaphin susceptibility

a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 4

A

1 and 4

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33
Q

In the test for urease production, the presence of the enzyme hydrolyzes urea to which of the following?

a. Ammonia and CO2
b. Putrescine
c. Amines and CO2
d. Amines and water

A

Ammonia and CO2

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34
Q

All of the following are correct regarding methylene blue except

a. Inhibits gram-positive bacteria in enteric media
b. Can be used as simple bacterial stain
c. Indicator of anaerobiosis
d. pH indicator in TCBS

A

pH indicator in TCBS
(pH indicator for TCBS is bromthymol blue)

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35
Q

LOA reaction of Klebsiella pneumoniae:

a. + - -
b. + + -
c. - + -
d. + - +

A

+ - -

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36
Q

All are correct regarding S. saprophyticus except:

a. Coagulase negative
b. Causes UTI in young women
c. Novobiocin sensitive
d. DNase negative

A

Novobiocin sensitive
(S. saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant)

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37
Q

Chocolate agar-based medium containing vancomycin, colistin, anisomycin, and trimethoprim is known as:

a. Thayer-Martin
b. Modified Thayer Martin
c. Martin-Lewis
d. New York City

A

Martin-Lewis

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38
Q

Which of the following is a wrong pair?

a. Brucella abortus – Bang’s bacillus
b. N. meningitidis – Meningococcus
c. H. influenzae – Koch Week’s
bacillus
d. M. avium intracellulare – Battery
bacillus

A

H. influenzae – Koch Week’s
bacillus

(H. influenzae is Pfeiffer’s Bacillus)
(H. aegypticus is Koch Week’s Bacillus)

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39
Q

Positive result for DNase test:

a. Green
b. Pink
c. Clearing of medium
d. hemolysis

A

Clearing of medium

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40
Q

Biosafety cabinet where 30% is recirculated air and 70% is exhausted air outside of facility

a. Type II - A1
b. Type II - A2
c. Type II - B1
d. Type II - B2

A

Type II - B1

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41
Q

Correct about satellite phenomenon:

  1. S. aureus grows around the hemolytic colonies of H. influenzae
  2. H. influenzae grows around the hemolytic colonies of S. aureus
  3. Also known as Nagler reaction
  4. Uses SBA instead of Chocolate agar

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4

A

2 and 4

42
Q

Growth requirement for H. influenzae

  1. X factor
  2. V factor
  3. 5-10% CO2
  4. Cystine

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 1, 2, 3, 4

A

1, 2, 3

43
Q

Limulus Lysate test detects ___ in body fluids.

a. Endotoxin of gram (-) bacteria
b. Exotoxin of gram (-) bacteria
c. Endotoxin of gram (+) bacteria
d. Exotoxin of gram (+) bacteria

A

Endotoxin of gram (-) bacteria

44
Q

Which serological test is done for Chlamydia trachomatis on genital smears?

a. ELISA
b. RIA
c. Direct FA using monoclonal
antibodies
d. Indirect FA using Chlamydia antigens

A

Direct FA using monoclonal
antibodies

45
Q

Catalase, oxidase, and coagulase reagents must be tested:

a. Once a week and when the vial is first opened
b. Once each day of use and when the vial is first opened
c. Once a month, running positive control only
d. Once a year, running negative control only

A

Once each day of use and when the vial is first opened

46
Q

Positive for PYRase hydrolysis:

  1. S. pyogenes
  2. S. agalactiae
  3. S. pneumoniae
  4. E. faecalis

a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4

A

1 and 4

47
Q

All are examples of egg-based media for culture of Mycobacteria except:

a. Lowenstein Jensen
b. Petragnani
c. Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11
d. None of the choices

A

Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11

48
Q

What is the positive result of CAMP test?

a. Satelliting colonies around streaked
colonies of S. aureus
b. Arrowhead-shaped growth at the juncture of suspected organism and S.
agalactiae colonies
c. Arrowhead-shaped zone of enhance hemolysis at the juncture of suspected organism and beta-lysin producing S. aureus
d. Inhibition of growth of suspected
organism when S. aureus is present

A

Arrowhead-shaped zone of enhance hemolysis at the juncture of suspected organism and beta-lysin producing S. aureus

49
Q

Selective media for P. aeruginosa:

a. CCFA
b. CIN agar
c. Cetrimide agar
d. MAC with sorbitol

A

Cetrimide agar

50
Q

Which group of tests best differentiates H. pylori from C. jejuni?

a. Catalase, oxidase, gram stain
b. Catalase, oxidase, nalidixic acid sensitivity
c. Catalase, oxidase, cephalothin sensitivity
d. Urease, nitrate, hippurate hydrolysis

A

Urease, nitrate, hippurate hydrolysis

51
Q

Which Haemophilus is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes?

a. H. aphrophilus
b. H. haemolyticus
c. H. ducreyi
d. H. parahaemolyticus

A

H. ducreyi

52
Q

An enzyme produced by S. pyogenes that solubilizes the ground substance of mammalian connective tissues and helping to spread the infection:

a. DNase
b. Erythrogenic toxin
c. Streptokinase
d. Hyaluronidase

A

Hyaluronidase

53
Q

Infection caused by Legionella with febriles ymptoms with no pulmonary involvement

a. Legionnaires disease
b. Pontiac fever
c. Undulant fever
d. Relapsing fever

A

Pontiac fever

54
Q

Bacteria that prefers O2 for growth but are able to grow also on anaerobic conditions are termed as:

a. Microaerophilic
b. Aerotolerant anaerobes
c. Obligate aerobes
d. Facultative anaerobes

A

Facultative anaerobes

55
Q

TSI agar is composed of 3 carbohydrate in ratio such as:

a. 1% glucose, 1% lactose, 1% sucrose
b. 0.1% glucose, 1% lactose, 1% sucrose
c. 1% glucose, 1% lactose, 1% maltose
d. 1% glucose, 0.1% lactose, 1% maltose

A

0.1% glucose, 1% lactose, 1% sucrose

56
Q

The so-called red milk is the result of abundant multiplication of which chromogenic bacterium?

a. Serratia marcescens
b. Proteus vulgaris
c. Pseudomonas syncynea
d. Aerobacter aerogenes

A

Serratia marcescens

57
Q

Catalase test should not be performed on:

a. Blood agar, because blood has
catalase
b. Nutrient agar, because it is not enriched
c. Tryptic soy agar, because the protein interferes
d. Glass slides, because agar is required

A

Blood agar, because blood has
catalase

58
Q

Resulting color of Auramine-Rhodamine stain for M. tuberculosis:

a. Green fluorescence in dark background
b. Yellow-orange fluorescence in dark background
c. Red fluorescence in blue background
d. No fluorescence

A

Yellow-orange fluorescence in dark background

59
Q

Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of:

a. Y. enterocolitica
b. Y. intermedia
c. C. perfringens
d. C. difficile

A

C. difficile

60
Q

Which of the following amino acids are required for growth of Francisella tularensis?

a. Leucine and ornithine
b. Arginine and lysine
c. Cysteine and cystine
d. Histidine and tryptophan

A

Cysteine and cystine

61
Q

Edwardsiella tarda biochemically may be confused with Salmonella in that it is:

a. Lactose (+)
b. Hydrogen sulfide (+)
c. Urea (+)
d. Non-motile

A

Hydrogen sulfide (+)

62
Q

What are the resulting changes in Simmons citrate agar if the organism can utilize sodium acetate as its only carbon source? (positive reaction)

a. Growth on medium, change of color from green to blue
b. Growth on medium, change of color from blue to green
c. No growth on medium, retaining the original color green of medium
d. No growth on medium, retaining the original color blue of medium

A

Growth on medium, change of color from green to blue

63
Q

Coagulase test uses what primary reagent for testing?

a. Para-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
b. 3% H2O2
c. Sheep RBCs
d. Rabbit plasma

A

Rabbit plasma

64
Q

The Moeller test for the detection of
decarboxylase activity is dependent upon:

a. An alkaline pH shift in the medium
b. The oxidation of gluconate
c. An acid pH basal medium
d. A deamination of tryptophan

A

An alkaline pH shift in the medium

65
Q

Urea hydrolysis test is performed on what medium?

a. Simmons medium
b. Christensen medium
c. Moeller’s medium
d. Krigler’s iron agar

A

Christensen medium

66
Q

Which is the best rapid, non-cultural test to perform when Gardnerella vaginalis is suspected?

a. 3% H2O2
b. 10% KOH
c. 30% KOH
d. 10% H2O2

A

10% KOH

67
Q

Specimens that may be cultured anaerobically

  1. Sputum
  2. Needle aspirate
  3. Swabs of infected wounds
  4. Suprapubic-aspirated urine

a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3

A

2 and 4

68
Q

The recommended medium for the recovery of Chlamydia from clinical specimen is:

a. McCoy cells
b. A549 cells
c. Charcoal yeast extract medium
d. W1-38 cells

A

McCoy cells (also called HELA cells)

69
Q

When clinical specimens are being processed for the recovery of M. tuberculosis, the generally
recommended method for digestion and decontamination of the sample is:

a. 6% NaOH
b. 1% HCl
c. NALC-NaOH
d. TSP

A

NALC-NaOH

70
Q

Abiotrophia formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci (NVS) will not grow on routine blood or chocolate agars because they are deficient in:

a. Vitamin B12
b. Pyridoxal
c. Hemin
d. Thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide

A

Pyridoxal

71
Q

Exfoliatin produced by S. aureus is responsible for causing:

a. Toxic shock syndrome
b. Enterocolitis
c. Staphylococcal pneumonia
d. Scalded skin syndrome

A

Scalded skin syndrome

72
Q

Culture media that contains antibiotic vancomycin will inhibit growth of:

a. Gram (+) bacteria
b. Gram (-) bacteria
c. Yeast and molds
d. Normal flora

A

Gram (+) bacteria

73
Q

If a specimen is not transported within 30 mins, it should be placed in which of the following media?

  1. Amie’s
  2. Stuart’s
  3. Kelly’s Medium
  4. Fletcher’s semi-solid medium

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4

A

1 and 2

74
Q

LIA reaction: red slant / acid butt, no H2s:

a. E. coli
b. K. pneumoniae
c. P. vulgaris
d. M. morganii

A

P. vulgaris & M. morganii

75
Q

What atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp at 35-37degC and 42degC?

a. 10% O2, 10% CO2, 80% N2
b. 5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2
c. 20% O2, 20% CO2, 60% N2
d. 15% O2, 5% CO2, 80% N2

A

5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2

76
Q

Which test will differentiate Pseudomonas spp from Enterobacteriaceae?

a. Catalase test
b. Indole test
c. Urease test
d. Oxidase test

A

Oxidase Test

77
Q

A urine specimen from a maternity patient with the complaint of cystitis was received in the laboratory. The culture of this sample grew a
lactose-positive (LF), gram-negative bacillus that was presumptively identified as E. coli. On differential and selective medium, this organism
would demonstrate which reaction?

a. MacConkey agar – colorless colonies
b. Hektoen enteric agar – blue to green colonies
c. XLD agar – yellow colonies
d. All of the above are possible reactions

A

XLD agar – yellow colonies

78
Q

Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding blood cultures?

a. Collection of 20 mL per culture for
adults is recommended
b. 2 or 3 blood cultures recommended as optimum
c. Volume of blood cultures could be more critical than timing of cultures
d. Blood drawn for culture may be
allowed to clot

A

Blood drawn for culture may be
allowed to clot

79
Q

An example of a selective enrichment broth would be:

a. Thioglycollate broth
b. Trypticase soy broth
c. Brain Heart Infusion broth
d. Selenite broth

A

Selenite broth

80
Q

All of the following contain resident (normal) flora except:

a. Oral cavity
b. Skin
c. Colon
d. Cerebrospinal fluid

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

81
Q

An optimal wound specimen for culture and anaerobic organisms should be:

a. A swab of lesion obtained before
administration of antibiotics
b. A swab of lesion obtained after
administration of antibiotics
c. A syringe filled with pus obtained
before administration of antibiotics
d. A syringe filled with pus obtained after administration of antibiotics

A

A syringe filled with pus obtained
before administration of antibiotics

82
Q

CNA is used for selective isolation of:

a. Gram (+) bacteria
b. Gram (-) bacteria
c. Aerobic bacteria
d. Anaerobic bacteria

A

Gram (+) bacteria

83
Q

Bacteria where growth occurs evenly on
thioglycollate broth:

a. Obligate aerobes
b. Obligate anaerobes
c. Microaerophiles
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes

84
Q

Purpose of adding sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for blood culture

a. Enhances growth of anaerobes
b. Functions as preservatives
c. Inhibits phagocytosis and complement
d. Promotes formation of a blood clot

A

Inhibits phagocytosis and complement

85
Q

Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus specie?

a. S. aureus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
d. S. intermedius

A

S. epidermidis

86
Q

Metachromatic / Volutin granules are inclusions of what specie of bacteria?

a. M. tuberculosis
b. Y. pestis
c. L. monocytogenes
d. C. diphtheriae

A

C. diphtheriae

87
Q

This is also known as Capsular Swelling Test:

a. India ink test
b. Limulus lysate test
c. Modified ELEK test
d. Neufeld (Quellung) reaction

A

Neufeld (Quellung) reaction

88
Q

These are hair-like extensions of the cell used for adherence of bacteria to host cell:

a. Flagella
b. Capsule
c. Slime layer
d. Fimbriae / Pili

A

Fimbriae / Pili

89
Q

All are correct matches for types of flagella except:

a. Monotrichous – flagellum on one pole
b. Lopotrichous – single flagellum at
both poles
c. Peritrichous – flagella all over the organism
d. None of the above

A

Lopotrichous – single flagellum at
both poles

90
Q

Mordant used in Kinyoun method of acid-fast staining:

a. Steam
b. Thiosulfate
c. Thermal heat
d. Tergitol

A

Tergitol

91
Q

Which of the following techniques is performed first before doing smears for gram stain on CSF?

a. Incubate at 37degC for 1 hour
b. Refrigerate CSF for 12 to 24 hours and observe for pellicle formation
c. Centrifuge CSF specimen to concentrate cells and microorganisms if present
d. Evaluate using Bartlett’s classification

A

Centrifuge CSF specimen to concentrate cells and microorganisms if present

92
Q

This staining method is specifically designed for bacteria whose cell walls contain long chain of fatty acids (Mycolic acid)

a. Gram stain
b. India ink
c. Leifson stain
d. Acid-fast stain

A

Acid-fast stain

93
Q

Culture media that contains antibiotic
vancomycin will inhibit growth of:

a. Gram (+) bacteria
b. Gram (-) bacteria
c. Yeast and molds
d. Normal flora

A

Gram (+) bacteria

94
Q

Indicator used in MSA used for selective
isolation of Staphylococcus spp.

a. Neutral red
b. Bromthymol blue
c. Phenol red
d. Bromcresol green

A

Phenol red

95
Q

Motility medium such as SIM is classified as:

a. Liquid-type medium
b. Semi-solid medium
c. Solid-liquefiable medium
d. Solid-non liquefiable medium

A

Semi-solid medium

96
Q

Reagent used in oxidase test of bacteria:

a. 1% para dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde
b. 1% tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine
dihydrochloride
c. L-pyrrolidonyl-b-naphthylamide
d. Hydrogen peroxide

A

1% tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine
dihydrochloride

97
Q

Negative reaction in Decarboxylase tests (Moeller’s method) is indicated by which color?

a. Purple
b. Yellow
c. Magenta
d. Blue

A

Yellow

98
Q

Positive result in Acetamide Utilization test:

a. Purple
b. Yellow
c. Magenta
d. Blue

A

Blue

99
Q

Positive result in Bacitracin susceptibility test (0.04 units) is a zone of inhibition greater than ___ mm

a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20

A

10

100
Q

Which of the following Streptococcal species has the enzyme hippuricase?

a. S. pyogenes
b. S. pneumoniae
c. S. agalactiae
d. S. bovis

A

S. agalactiae

MTAP 2 FINAL EXAM (4 decks)

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