SP2 - MICROBIO Flashcards

1
Q

Substrate used in Kovac’s indole test:

a. Indole
b. Tryptophan
c. Para-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
d. Para-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde

A

Tryptophan

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2
Q

Indole test differentiates which set of
organisms?

a. Morganella and Providencia
b. Salmonella and Shigella
c. P. vulgaris and P. mirabilis
d. E. coli and Klebsiella oxytoca

A

c. P. vulgaris and P. mirabilis

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3
Q

Inhibitors for gram (+) bacteria on MAC:

a. Crystal violet and vancomycin
b. Colistin and anisomycin
c. Trimethoprim and vancomycin
d. Bile salts and crystal violet

A

Bile salts and crystal violet

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4
Q

Colonies of Salmonella on SSA:

a. Colorless colonies with black
center
b. Colorless colonies without black center
c. Red colonies with black center
d. Red colonies without black center

A

Colorless colonies with black
center

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5
Q

Which of the following is a correct pair?
a. S. aureus – pink colonies on MSA
b. K. pneumoniae – colorless colonies on
MAC
c. S. pneumoniae – non-hemolytic on SBA
d. E. coli – yellow colonies on XLD

A

E. coli – yellow colonies on XLD

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6
Q

All members of Enterobacteriaceae are motile at 37degC except:

  1. Klebsiella
  2. Proteus
  3. Shigella
  4. Yersinia

a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1, 3, and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 4

A

1, 3, and 4

(Proteus is the only motile enterobacteriaceae)

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7
Q

pH indicator of LIA:

a. Neutral red
b. Phenol red
c. Bromothymol blue
d. Bromcresol purple

A

Bromcresol purple

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8
Q

Yellow butt and red slant in TSI tube indicates fermentation of:

a. Lactose
b. Glucose
c. Lactose and glucose
d. Lactose and/or sucrose

A

Glucose

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9
Q

Heat stable antigen of enterics located on their cell wall:

a. O
b. K
c. H
d. Vi

A

O

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10
Q

ONPG test allows organism to be classified as lactose fermenter by testing which of the following:

a. B-lactamase
b. B-galactosidase
c. Lactose permease
d. Tryptophanase

A

B-galactosidase

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11
Q

Only oxidase positive member of Enterobacteriaceae:

a. Shigella
b. Morganella
c. Plesiomonas
d. Edwardsiella

A

Plesiomonas

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12
Q

V. cholerae colonies on TCBS:

a. Blue
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Red

A

Yellow

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13
Q

Which of the following sets of results represents the most common reactions for Moraxella catarrhalis when tested in CTA sugar tubes?

a. Glucose (-); Maltose (-); Lactose
(-); Sucrose (-)
b. Glucose (+); Maltose (-); Lactose (-);
Sucrose (-)
c. Glucose (+); Maltose (+); Lactose (-);
Sucrose (-)
d. Glucose (+); Maltose (-); Lactose (+);
Sucrose (-)

A

Glucose (-); Maltose (-); Lactose
(-); Sucrose (-)

(Moraxella catarrhalis is asaccharolytic)

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14
Q

Neisseria lactamica can be differentiated from N. meningitidis through which of the following?

a. Colony morphology
b. Use of selective media
c. Glucose and maltose utilization
d. ONPG test

A

ONPG test

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15
Q

Isolates of the suspected C. diphtheriae must be tested for in vitro production of exotoxin thru:

a. Anton test
b. Elek test
c. Frei test
d. Mantoux test

A

Elek test

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16
Q

Lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis on SBA, and gram-stain morphology are all useful criteria in the identification of which of the following?

a. C. perfringens
b. S. agalactiae
c. E. coli
d. C. tetani

A

C. perfringens

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17
Q

Sensitivity test result of Group A Streptococci to Bacitracin and SXT respectively:

a. Susceptible and resistant
b. Resistant and susceptible
c. Both susceptible
d. Both resistant

A

Susceptible and resistant

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18
Q

Correct about gram-positive bacteria:

a. Has thinner peptidoglycan compared to gram-negative
b. Cell wall has an outer layer which
contains lipopolysaccharide
c. Takes up the crystal violet-iodine
complex but is easily decolorized
d. Uses selective isolation media like
colistin-nalidixic acid agar

A

Uses selective isolation media like
colistin-nalidixic acid agar

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19
Q

Responsible for dark / non-fluorescent
background in Auramine Rhodamine stain for acid-fast bacilli

a. Auramine
b. Rhodamine
c. Potassium permanganate
d. acid-alcohol

A

Potassium permanganate

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20
Q

Stain for endospore:

a. Wayson
b. Leifson
c. Schaeffer-Fulton
d. Loeffler’s alkaline methylene blue

A

Schaeffer-Fulton

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21
Q

Most common gas for sterilization:

a. Nitrogen dioxide
b. Chlorine dioxide
c. Ethylene oxide
d. Chlorhexidine gluconate

A

Ethylene oxide

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22
Q

HEPA filter size used in laboratory hoods and isolation room:

a. 0.3 um
b. 0.6 um
c. 0.9 um
d. 1.2 um

A

0.3 um

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23
Q

Incorrect about autoclaving:

a. Biologic indicator: B. stearothermophilus
b. Can destroy all forms of microbial life
including spores
c. Dry heat sterilization
d. 121degC / 15 psi / 15 mins

A

Dry heat sterilization

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24
Q

Uses a strip with varying conc. of antibiotic along its length and MIC can be obtained:

a. Kirby Bauer
b. Microplate dilution
c. Vitek System
d. E test

A

E test

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25
0.5 MacFarland standard provides an optical density comparable to density of a bacterial suspension of: a. 0.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL b. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL c. 0.5 x 10^9 CFU/mL d. 1.5 x 10^9 CFU/mL
1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
26
In disk diffusion testing, a delay of more than 15 mins between placing the disks on an inoculated plate and incubation results to: a. Failure of antibiotic to diffuse in media b. Zones of smaller diameter will result c. Zones of larger diameter will result d. No effect on final zone diameter
Zones of larger diameter will result
27
The term “palisading”, “picket fence”, and“Chinese letter” describe the common arrangement of cells of: a. Corynebacterium spp b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not the other mycobacteria c. Actinomyces but not Nocardia d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not other corynebacteria
Corynebacterium spp
28
The exchange of cellular DNA between two living bacterial cells that involves an intercellular bridge is which of the following processes? a. Transformation b. Transduction c. Plasmidization d. Conjugation
Conjugation
29
The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the production of which of the following: a. Clumping factor b. Free coagulase c. Extracellular coagulase d. Catalase
Clumping factor
30
The bacterial species that can be described as susceptible to bile and optochin, a-hemolytic, a major cause of bacterial meningitis, and often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule is which of the following? a. Enterococcus faecalis b. S. pneumoniae c. S. pyogenes d. S. agalactiae
S. pneumoniae
31
Which of the following sets of tests provides the best differentiation of L. monocytogenes and E. rhusiopathiae? a. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, optochin b. Gram-stained smear, catalase, motility c. CAMP test, H2S production, esculin hydrolysis d. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, b-hemolysis
CAMP test, H2S production, esculin hydrolysis
32
Micrococcus and Staphylococcus species are differentiated by which test(s)? 1. O-F tube 2. Gram stain 3. Catalase test 4. Lysostaphin susceptibility a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 4
1 and 4
33
In the test for urease production, the presence of the enzyme hydrolyzes urea to which of the following? a. Ammonia and CO2 b. Putrescine c. Amines and CO2 d. Amines and water
Ammonia and CO2
34
All of the following are correct regarding methylene blue except a. Inhibits gram-positive bacteria in enteric media b. Can be used as simple bacterial stain c. Indicator of anaerobiosis d. pH indicator in TCBS
pH indicator in TCBS (pH indicator for TCBS is bromthymol blue)
35
LOA reaction of Klebsiella pneumoniae: a. + - - b. + + - c. - + - d. + - +
+ - -
36
All are correct regarding S. saprophyticus except: a. Coagulase negative b. Causes UTI in young women c. Novobiocin sensitive d. DNase negative
Novobiocin sensitive (S. saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant)
37
Chocolate agar-based medium containing vancomycin, colistin, anisomycin, and trimethoprim is known as: a. Thayer-Martin b. Modified Thayer Martin c. Martin-Lewis d. New York City
Martin-Lewis
38
Which of the following is a wrong pair? a. Brucella abortus – Bang’s bacillus b. N. meningitidis – Meningococcus c. H. influenzae – Koch Week’s bacillus d. M. avium intracellulare – Battery bacillus
H. influenzae – Koch Week’s bacillus (H. influenzae is Pfeiffer's Bacillus) (H. aegypticus is Koch Week's Bacillus)
39
Positive result for DNase test: a. Green b. Pink c. Clearing of medium d. hemolysis
Clearing of medium
40
Biosafety cabinet where 30% is recirculated air and 70% is exhausted air outside of facility a. Type II - A1 b. Type II - A2 c. Type II - B1 d. Type II - B2
Type II - B1
41
Correct about satellite phenomenon: 1. S. aureus grows around the hemolytic colonies of H. influenzae 2. H. influenzae grows around the hemolytic colonies of S. aureus 3. Also known as Nagler reaction 4. Uses SBA instead of Chocolate agar a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 2 and 4
2 and 4
42
Growth requirement for H. influenzae 1. X factor 2. V factor 3. 5-10% CO2 4. Cystine a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1, 2, 3 d. 1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
43
Limulus Lysate test detects ___ in body fluids. a. Endotoxin of gram (-) bacteria b. Exotoxin of gram (-) bacteria c. Endotoxin of gram (+) bacteria d. Exotoxin of gram (+) bacteria
Endotoxin of gram (-) bacteria
44
Which serological test is done for Chlamydia trachomatis on genital smears? a. ELISA b. RIA c. Direct FA using monoclonal antibodies d. Indirect FA using Chlamydia antigens
Direct FA using monoclonal antibodies
45
Catalase, oxidase, and coagulase reagents must be tested: a. Once a week and when the vial is first opened b. Once each day of use and when the vial is first opened c. Once a month, running positive control only d. Once a year, running negative control only
Once each day of use and when the vial is first opened
46
Positive for PYRase hydrolysis: 1. S. pyogenes 2. S. agalactiae 3. S. pneumoniae 4. E. faecalis a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4
1 and 4
47
All are examples of egg-based media for culture of Mycobacteria except: a. Lowenstein Jensen b. Petragnani c. Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11 d. None of the choices
Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11
48
What is the positive result of CAMP test? a. Satelliting colonies around streaked colonies of S. aureus b. Arrowhead-shaped growth at the juncture of suspected organism and S. agalactiae colonies c. Arrowhead-shaped zone of enhance hemolysis at the juncture of suspected organism and beta-lysin producing S. aureus d. Inhibition of growth of suspected organism when S. aureus is present
Arrowhead-shaped zone of enhance hemolysis at the juncture of suspected organism and beta-lysin producing S. aureus
49
Selective media for P. aeruginosa: a. CCFA b. CIN agar c. Cetrimide agar d. MAC with sorbitol
Cetrimide agar
50
Which group of tests best differentiates H. pylori from C. jejuni? a. Catalase, oxidase, gram stain b. Catalase, oxidase, nalidixic acid sensitivity c. Catalase, oxidase, cephalothin sensitivity d. Urease, nitrate, hippurate hydrolysis
Urease, nitrate, hippurate hydrolysis
51
Which Haemophilus is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes? a. H. aphrophilus b. H. haemolyticus c. H. ducreyi d. H. parahaemolyticus
H. ducreyi
52
An enzyme produced by S. pyogenes that solubilizes the ground substance of mammalian connective tissues and helping to spread the infection: a. DNase b. Erythrogenic toxin c. Streptokinase d. Hyaluronidase
Hyaluronidase
53
Infection caused by Legionella with febriles ymptoms with no pulmonary involvement a. Legionnaires disease b. Pontiac fever c. Undulant fever d. Relapsing fever
Pontiac fever
54
Bacteria that prefers O2 for growth but are able to grow also on anaerobic conditions are termed as: a. Microaerophilic b. Aerotolerant anaerobes c. Obligate aerobes d. Facultative anaerobes
Facultative anaerobes
55
TSI agar is composed of 3 carbohydrate in ratio such as: a. 1% glucose, 1% lactose, 1% sucrose b. 0.1% glucose, 1% lactose, 1% sucrose c. 1% glucose, 1% lactose, 1% maltose d. 1% glucose, 0.1% lactose, 1% maltose
0.1% glucose, 1% lactose, 1% sucrose
56
The so-called red milk is the result of abundant multiplication of which chromogenic bacterium? a. Serratia marcescens b. Proteus vulgaris c. Pseudomonas syncynea d. Aerobacter aerogenes
Serratia marcescens
57
Catalase test should not be performed on: a. Blood agar, because blood has catalase b. Nutrient agar, because it is not enriched c. Tryptic soy agar, because the protein interferes d. Glass slides, because agar is required
Blood agar, because blood has catalase
58
Resulting color of Auramine-Rhodamine stain for M. tuberculosis: a. Green fluorescence in dark background b. Yellow-orange fluorescence in dark background c. Red fluorescence in blue background d. No fluorescence
Yellow-orange fluorescence in dark background
59
Cycloserine-cefoxitin-fructose agar (CCFA) is used for the recovery of: a. Y. enterocolitica b. Y. intermedia c. C. perfringens d. C. difficile
C. difficile
60
Which of the following amino acids are required for growth of Francisella tularensis? a. Leucine and ornithine b. Arginine and lysine c. Cysteine and cystine d. Histidine and tryptophan
Cysteine and cystine
61
Edwardsiella tarda biochemically may be confused with Salmonella in that it is: a. Lactose (+) b. Hydrogen sulfide (+) c. Urea (+) d. Non-motile
Hydrogen sulfide (+)
62
What are the resulting changes in Simmons citrate agar if the organism can utilize sodium acetate as its only carbon source? (positive reaction) a. Growth on medium, change of color from green to blue b. Growth on medium, change of color from blue to green c. No growth on medium, retaining the original color green of medium d. No growth on medium, retaining the original color blue of medium
Growth on medium, change of color from green to blue
63
Coagulase test uses what primary reagent for testing? a. Para-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde b. 3% H2O2 c. Sheep RBCs d. Rabbit plasma
Rabbit plasma
64
The Moeller test for the detection of decarboxylase activity is dependent upon: a. An alkaline pH shift in the medium b. The oxidation of gluconate c. An acid pH basal medium d. A deamination of tryptophan
An alkaline pH shift in the medium
65
Urea hydrolysis test is performed on what medium? a. Simmons medium b. Christensen medium c. Moeller’s medium d. Krigler’s iron agar
Christensen medium
66
Which is the best rapid, non-cultural test to perform when Gardnerella vaginalis is suspected? a. 3% H2O2 b. 10% KOH c. 30% KOH d. 10% H2O2
10% KOH
67
Specimens that may be cultured anaerobically 1. Sputum 2. Needle aspirate 3. Swabs of infected wounds 4. Suprapubic-aspirated urine a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 2 and 3
2 and 4
68
The recommended medium for the recovery of Chlamydia from clinical specimen is: a. McCoy cells b. A549 cells c. Charcoal yeast extract medium d. W1-38 cells
McCoy cells (also called HELA cells)
69
When clinical specimens are being processed for the recovery of M. tuberculosis, the generally recommended method for digestion and decontamination of the sample is: a. 6% NaOH b. 1% HCl c. NALC-NaOH d. TSP
NALC-NaOH
70
Abiotrophia formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci (NVS) will not grow on routine blood or chocolate agars because they are deficient in: a. Vitamin B12 b. Pyridoxal c. Hemin d. Thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide
Pyridoxal
71
Exfoliatin produced by S. aureus is responsible for causing: a. Toxic shock syndrome b. Enterocolitis c. Staphylococcal pneumonia d. Scalded skin syndrome
Scalded skin syndrome
72
Culture media that contains antibiotic vancomycin will inhibit growth of: a. Gram (+) bacteria b. Gram (-) bacteria c. Yeast and molds d. Normal flora
Gram (+) bacteria
73
If a specimen is not transported within 30 mins, it should be placed in which of the following media? 1. Amie’s 2. Stuart’s 3. Kelly’s Medium 4. Fletcher’s semi-solid medium a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4
1 and 2
74
LIA reaction: red slant / acid butt, no H2s: a. E. coli b. K. pneumoniae c. P. vulgaris d. M. morganii
P. vulgaris & M. morganii
75
What atmospheric condition is needed to recover Campylobacter spp at 35-37degC and 42degC? a. 10% O2, 10% CO2, 80% N2 b. 5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2 c. 20% O2, 20% CO2, 60% N2 d. 15% O2, 5% CO2, 80% N2
5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2
76
Which test will differentiate Pseudomonas spp from Enterobacteriaceae? a. Catalase test b. Indole test c. Urease test d. Oxidase test
Oxidase Test
77
A urine specimen from a maternity patient with the complaint of cystitis was received in the laboratory. The culture of this sample grew a lactose-positive (LF), gram-negative bacillus that was presumptively identified as E. coli. On differential and selective medium, this organism would demonstrate which reaction? a. MacConkey agar – colorless colonies b. Hektoen enteric agar – blue to green colonies c. XLD agar – yellow colonies d. All of the above are possible reactions
XLD agar – yellow colonies
78
Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding blood cultures? a. Collection of 20 mL per culture for adults is recommended b. 2 or 3 blood cultures recommended as optimum c. Volume of blood cultures could be more critical than timing of cultures d. Blood drawn for culture may be allowed to clot
Blood drawn for culture may be allowed to clot
79
An example of a selective enrichment broth would be: a. Thioglycollate broth b. Trypticase soy broth c. Brain Heart Infusion broth d. Selenite broth
Selenite broth
80
All of the following contain resident (normal) flora except: a. Oral cavity b. Skin c. Colon d. Cerebrospinal fluid
Cerebrospinal fluid
81
An optimal wound specimen for culture and anaerobic organisms should be: a. A swab of lesion obtained before administration of antibiotics b. A swab of lesion obtained after administration of antibiotics c. A syringe filled with pus obtained before administration of antibiotics d. A syringe filled with pus obtained after administration of antibiotics
A syringe filled with pus obtained before administration of antibiotics
82
CNA is used for selective isolation of: a. Gram (+) bacteria b. Gram (-) bacteria c. Aerobic bacteria d. Anaerobic bacteria
Gram (+) bacteria
83
Bacteria where growth occurs evenly on thioglycollate broth: a. Obligate aerobes b. Obligate anaerobes c. Microaerophiles d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
Aerotolerant anaerobes
84
Purpose of adding sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for blood culture a. Enhances growth of anaerobes b. Functions as preservatives c. Inhibits phagocytosis and complement d. Promotes formation of a blood clot
Inhibits phagocytosis and complement
85
Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus specie? a. S. aureus b. S. epidermidis c. S. saprophyticus d. S. intermedius
S. epidermidis
86
Metachromatic / Volutin granules are inclusions of what specie of bacteria? a. M. tuberculosis b. Y. pestis c. L. monocytogenes d. C. diphtheriae
C. diphtheriae
87
This is also known as Capsular Swelling Test: a. India ink test b. Limulus lysate test c. Modified ELEK test d. Neufeld (Quellung) reaction
Neufeld (Quellung) reaction
88
These are hair-like extensions of the cell used for adherence of bacteria to host cell: a. Flagella b. Capsule c. Slime layer d. Fimbriae / Pili
Fimbriae / Pili
89
All are correct matches for types of flagella except: a. Monotrichous – flagellum on one pole b. Lopotrichous – single flagellum at both poles c. Peritrichous – flagella all over the organism d. None of the above
Lopotrichous – single flagellum at both poles
90
Mordant used in Kinyoun method of acid-fast staining: a. Steam b. Thiosulfate c. Thermal heat d. Tergitol
Tergitol
91
Which of the following techniques is performed first before doing smears for gram stain on CSF? a. Incubate at 37degC for 1 hour b. Refrigerate CSF for 12 to 24 hours and observe for pellicle formation c. Centrifuge CSF specimen to concentrate cells and microorganisms if present d. Evaluate using Bartlett’s classification
Centrifuge CSF specimen to concentrate cells and microorganisms if present
92
This staining method is specifically designed for bacteria whose cell walls contain long chain of fatty acids (Mycolic acid) a. Gram stain b. India ink c. Leifson stain d. Acid-fast stain
Acid-fast stain
93
Culture media that contains antibiotic vancomycin will inhibit growth of: a. Gram (+) bacteria b. Gram (-) bacteria c. Yeast and molds d. Normal flora
Gram (+) bacteria
94
Indicator used in MSA used for selective isolation of Staphylococcus spp. a. Neutral red b. Bromthymol blue c. Phenol red d. Bromcresol green
Phenol red
95
Motility medium such as SIM is classified as: a. Liquid-type medium b. Semi-solid medium c. Solid-liquefiable medium d. Solid-non liquefiable medium
Semi-solid medium
96
Reagent used in oxidase test of bacteria: a. 1% para dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde b. 1% tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride c. L-pyrrolidonyl-b-naphthylamide d. Hydrogen peroxide
1% tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride
97
Negative reaction in Decarboxylase tests (Moeller’s method) is indicated by which color? a. Purple b. Yellow c. Magenta d. Blue
Yellow
98
Positive result in Acetamide Utilization test: a. Purple b. Yellow c. Magenta d. Blue
Blue
99
Positive result in Bacitracin susceptibility test (0.04 units) is a zone of inhibition greater than ___ mm a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
10
100
Which of the following Streptococcal species has the enzyme hippuricase? a. S. pyogenes b. S. pneumoniae c. S. agalactiae d. S. bovis
S. agalactiae