Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MTAP 2 FINAL EXAM > EE 2 FINALS > Flashcards

EE 2 FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

Clearing agent that can become milky on prolonged storage:”

A. Chloroform
B. Benzene
C. Clove Oil
D. Cedarwood Oil
E. Toluene

A

Cedarwood Oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When clearing eye specimens, which of the following is most recommended?

A. Clove Oil
B. Terpineol
C. Carbon Tetrachloride
D. Castor Oil
E. None of these

A

None of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All but one can make tissues transparent during the process of dealcoholization:

A. Aniline Oil
B. Chloroform
C. Cedarwood Oil
D. Clove Oil
E. None of these

A

None of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clearing agent which may cause aplastic anemia on prolonged exposure:

A. Clove Oil
B. Xylene
C. Cedarwood Oil
D. Benzene
E. Chloroform

A

Benzene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All of the following are clearing agents except:

A. THF
B. Acetone
C. Dioxane
D. All of the following
E. None of these

A

Acetone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

To clear delicate specimens like embryos and insects, which of the following agents is the most preferred?

A. Carbon Tetrachloride
B. Toluene
C. Aniline Oil
D. Cedarwood Oil
E. None of hese

A

Aniline Oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following clearing agents is toxic to the liver?

A. Terpineol
B. Clove Oil
C. Castor Oil
D. Cedarwood Oil
E. Chloroform
F. None of these

A

Chloroform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For dense tissues like uterus, which of the following clearing agents is most recommended?

A. Toluene
B. Xylene
C. Chloroform
D. Benzene
E. None of these

A

Chloroform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clearing agent that can become milky because of incomplete dehydration:

A. Benzene
B. Toluene
C. Aniline Oil
D. Chloroform
E. None of these

A

None of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following clearing agents is commonly used in routine tissue processing?

A. Xylene
B. THF
C. Benzene
D. Chloroform
E. None of these

A

Xylene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is horizontal communication?

A

The activity that occurs during the normal conduct of business among departments, managers, and staff,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In order to plan for the future, one must first determine where the organization stands. A SWOT analysis should be performed to determine both internal and external factors. The term “SWOT” stands for which of the following?

A

Strengths
Weakness
Opportunities
Threats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of a team leader?

A

Leading, guiding, and teaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following categories of personnel is required in laboratories performing tests using high-complexity methodology?

A

General Supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following refers to a program where the overall activities conducted by the institution are directed toward assuring the ongoing quality of the products and services provided?

A

Continuous quality improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is the process by which a competent public authority grant permission to an organization or an individual to engage in a specific professional practice, occupation, or activity?

A

Licensure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A number of management styles are used by supervisors in laboratories. Which of the following is a management style that includes the employee in decisions about how to accomplish tasks and encourage creativity?

A

Empowerment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most laboratories have a definite structure that establishes the formal setup of the various departments and levels. Which of the following refers to this structure?

A

Organizational chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the calculation of the total cost per test?

A

Depreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following factors is needed for an effective employee performance appraisal?

A

Employee-supervisor discussions with written evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following techniques is based on electro-osmotic flow?

A

Capillary Electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ion-exchange chromatography separates solutes in a sample based on the:

A

Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most atomic absorption spectrophotometers incorporate a beam-chopper and a tuned amplifier. The purpose of these components is to avoid errors that would be caused by:

A

Measurement of light emitted by the analyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose off using ampholytes in isoelectric focusing?

A

Establish a pH gradient in the gel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer solution of pH 8.6 is used, which of the following characterizes the proteins?

A

Exhibit net negative charge

26
Q

What dye may be used for staining protein bands following electrophoresis?

A

Ponceau S

27
Q

What are the principles of operation for a chloride analyzer that generates silver ions as part of its reaction mechanism?

A

Amperometry and coulometry

28
Q

Which of the following may be associated with reflectance spectrophotometry as it relates to the dry reagent slide technique?

A

Unabsorbed, reflected light detected by photodetector

29
Q

Which of following is an electrophoretic technique employing a pH gradient that separates molecules with similar isoelectric points?

A

Isoelectric focusing

30
Q

Which of the following instruments has a sample-introduction system, solvent-delivery system, column, and detector as components?

A

High-performance liquid chromatography

31
Q

When using EMIT, the enzyme is coupled to:

A

Antigen

32
Q

Which of the following best describes chemiluminiscence?

A

Chemical energy excites the electrons that emit light upon return to ground state

33
Q

Which of the following blood gas parameters are measured directly by the blood gas analyzer electrochemically as opposed to being calculated by the instrument?

A

pH, pCO2, PO2

34
Q

Which of the following is NOT quantified using an immunoassay method?

A

Electrolytes

35
Q

Which of the following statements best described discrete analysis?

A

Each sample reagent mixture is handled separately in its own reaction vessel

36
Q

Checking instrument calibration, temperature, accuracy, and electronic parameters are part of:

A

function verification

37
Q

In regard to bichromatic analysis, which of the following is FALSE?

A

Absorbance is measured at the spectral absorbance peak for a blank and the sample using the same wavelength

38
Q

The measurement of CO2 in blood by means of a PCO2 electrode is dependent on the:

A

Change in pH because of increased carbonic acid in the electrolyte surrounding the electrodes

39
Q

Which of the following is NOT the reason that preventive maintenance schedules are required?

A

Keep personnel busy when the laboratory work is slow

40
Q

Based on the WHO classification, B cell ALL (FAB Type L3) and ______ represent different clinical presentation of the same disease entity;

A

Burkitt Lymphoma

41
Q

The most common type of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in the United States involves the:

A

B Cell

42
Q

A patient with normal hemoglobin and WBC count values, a persistently elevated platelet count (over 1000 x 10’9/L), increased marrow megakaryocytes, and a history of frequent bleeding and clotting episodes most likely has:

A

Essential Thrombocytopenia

43
Q

In which of the following is profession to acute leukemia is least likely?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

44
Q

Which of the following is NOT commonly found in acute myelogenous leukemia?

A

Lymphadenopathy

45
Q

Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of Hodgkin disease rather than other lymphoproliferative disorders?

A

Presence of giant binucleated Reed-Sternberg cells with prominent nucleoli

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT classified as a myeloproliferative disorder?

A

Multiple Myeloma

47
Q

Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the WHO classification of hematopoietic neoplasm?

A

Diagnosis is based on cellular morphology and cytochemistry

48
Q

Which of the following would be least helpful in distinguishing chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) from a neutrophilic leukenoid reaction?

A

An extreme leukocytosis with increased neutrophilic bands, metamyelocytes, and myelocytes

49
Q

Coarse PAS positivity may be found in the leukemic cells of

A

ALL (FAB Type L1)

50
Q

Which of the following is a typical finding in chronic leukemia at onset?

A

Elevated leukocytes count

51
Q

The familial disorder featuring pseudo-Dohle bodies, thrombocytopenia, and large platelets is called:

A

May-Hegglin Anomaly

52
Q

Which type of leukemia is associated with the best prognosis for a cure?

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia in children

53
Q

What is the key diagnostic test for Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

Lymph node biopsy

54
Q

A 60 year old patient presents with extreme fatigue. Her blood and bone marrow findings are as follows:

Severe anemia with a dual RBC populations.
3% marrow blasts
Numerous ringed sideroblast

The information is most consistent with:

A

Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblast (RARS)

55
Q

Acute erythroleukemia (FAB Type M6) is characterized by increased:

A

Marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells

56
Q

Which of the following statements about non-Hodgkin lymphoma is true?

A

Lymphadenopathy is the most common presenting symptom

57
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic finding in polycythemia vera?

A

Increased erythropoietin level

58
Q

Myeloid metaplasia refers to:

A

Extramedullary hematopoiesis

59
Q

In which of the following would an absolute monocytosis NOT be seen??

A

Infectious Mononucleosis

60
Q
A

MTAP 2 FINAL EXAM (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions