SP2 - CLINICAL CHEM Flashcards

1
Q

Which analyte is SIGNIFICANTLY affected by a change in posture from supine to a sitting or standing position?

a. Protein
b. Calcium
c. Aldosterone
d. Magnesium

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which statements refer to Type 1 diabetes?

a. Results from B-cell destruction and usually diagnosed in children.

b. Results from B-cell destruction and usually leads to absolute insulin deficiency, and usually diagnosed in children.

c. Usually leads to absolute insulin deficiency and usually diagnosed in children.

d. Results from B cell destruction and usually leads to absolute insulin deficiency diagnosed in children.

A

Results from B-cell destruction and usually leads to absolute insulin deficiency, and usually diagnosed in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which are causes of random error?

(1) Temperature of analyzer
(2) Reagent dispensing
(3) Instability of instrument
(4) Calibration differences

a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2, 3, and 4
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Electrolytes, glucose, BUN, Creatinine, and osmolality examinations have been performed on a patient suspected of ingesting ethanol. What can be done to help reveal this condition without additional tests?

a. Determine anion gap
b. Determine glycemic index
c. Compare measured and computed osmolality
d. Compute osmolality

A

Compare measured and computed osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which protein is quantified by standard protein electrophoresis?

(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Transferrin
(3) C3

a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3

A

2 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following refer to 13s?

(1) Range between two observations in the same run exceeds 4 SD
(2) Detects imprecision or systematic bias
(3) Rejected and there will be additional
investigation
(4) One observation exceeds 3 SD from the target

a. 2 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 and 4

A

3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which statement is NOT true about LH?

a. Acts on Leydig cells which stimulate the production of androgens
b. Involved in the development of corpus luteum, especially in its secreting phase
c. Involved during the formation of gametes
d. Has NO specific function during the development of primary sex organs

A

Has NO specific function during the development of primary sex organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which is a pathologic cause of increased AMS?

a. Acute abdominal disorder
b. Intestinal obstruction
c. Acute pancreatitis
d. Perforated duodenal ulcer

A

Acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which electrolytes are essential components in acid-base balance?

(1) Bicarbonate
(2) Calcium
(3) Potassium
(4) Chloride

a. 1, 3, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. and 3

A

1, 3, and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which are acceptable dress code policy
in the laboratory?

(1) comfortable foot wear such as sandals and
flip-flops
(2) clean laboratory coats
(3) minimal use of jewelry
(4) shoulder-length hair pulled back and secured

a. 1 to 4
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3

A

2, 3, and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which characterizes chronic glomerular nephritis?

(1) slow developing disease
(2) gradual uremia
(3) loss of functioning nephrons

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3

A

1, 2 and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which illicit drug is commonly referred to as “ecstasy”?

a. Phencyclidine
b. Cocaine
c. Opiates
d. Methylenedioxymethylamphetamine

A

Methylenedioxymethylamphetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which compares the result obtained for one specimen with the previous results (s) obtained for the same patient?

a. Randomized duplicate specimens
b. Average normals
c. Delta check
d. Pattern recognition

A

Delta check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which Immunoassay Method for Thyroxine Testing is referred to? *fluorogenic substrate-labeled thyroxine competing with patient T4 for antibody only unbound, leftover labeled T4 reacts with enzyme to form product reaction is directly proportional to

a. Microparticle Enzyme
b. Chemiluminescence
c. Fluorescent Substrate-Labeled Inhibition
d. Fluorescent Polarization

A

Fluorescent Substrate-Labeled Inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is the MOST likely disease?

  • TSH - increase
  • T4 (total) - increased
  • FT4 - increased
  • T3 - increased

a. Secondary hypothyroidism
b. Secondary hyperthyroidism
c. Primary hyperthyroidism
d. Primary hypothyroidism

A

Secondary hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which inhibit growth hormone secretion, except?

a. glucose loading
b. Amino acids
c. thyroxine deficiency
d. insulin deficiency

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which are causes of random error?

(1) Sample evaporation
(2) Electro-optical mechanism
(3) Variation in handling techniques
(4) Variation in operators

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3, and 4
d. 1, 3, and 4

A

1, 2, 3, and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which serve as first responders to stress by acting within seconds?

a. Cortisol
b. DHEA
c. Aldosterone
d. Catecholamine

A

Catecholamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A substance that can yield a hydrogen ion (H) or hydronium ion when dissolved in water is a

a. buffer
b. alkali
c. acid excess
d. acid

A

acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lithium is a

a. CNS stimulant
b. CNS depressant
c. hallucinogen
d. antidepressant

A

antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which hyponatremia is NOT caused by increased sodium loss?

a. Potassium deficiency
b. Diuretic use
c. Renal failure
d. Severe burns

A

Renal failure

22
Q

Which test conveys information on hepatocellular damage
and necrosis (liver)

a. Transaminases
b. Albumin
c. Bilirubin
d. Ammonia

A

Transaminases

23
Q

Which is an indicator of error in the analysis, detected by a progressive drift of control values in one direction for at
least 5 consecutive runs?

a. Shift
b. Contraction
c. Dispersion
d. Trend

A

Trend

24
Q

Glucose measurement using the reducing substances approach may be erroneously higher by ____ mg/dL
compared to the enzymatic method?

a. 5-15
b. 25-30
c. 15-25
d. 10-20

A

5-15

25
Q

Which are acute phase reactants?

(1) Alpha-acid glycoprotein
(2) Alpha-antitrypsin
(3) C-reactive protein

a. 2 and 3
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2

A

1, 2, and 3

26
Q

The major role of regulation of water balance in the body is attributed to which cation?

a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Chloride

A

Sodium

27
Q

Which are considered a medical emergency?

(1) Ketoacidosis
(2) Glycosuria
(3) Marked hyperkalemia

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

1 and 3

28
Q

A comprehensive program in an institution in which all areas of operation are monitored to ensure quality with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care is quality ________

a. assessment
b. control
c. assurance
d. systems

A

assurance

29
Q

During drug administration, the spread of drug via the circulatory system to organs and tissues throughout the
body is _________

a. elimination
b. absorption
c. metabolism
d. distribution

A

distribution

30
Q

Which is NOT attributed to Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome?

a. Hirsutism
b. Infertility
c. Obesity
d. Myxedema

A

Myxedema

31
Q

The 3-day old neonate, recently discharged from a delivery suite, had inadequate protein feeding for the next
24 hours after discharged. What will be the effect on the thyroxine levels compared to the normal reference
ranges?

a. Higher
b. Indeterminate
c. Nothing
d. Lower

A

Lower

32
Q

Positive displacement pipet:
a. With no air cushion
b. All of the items
c Can pipette high density samples
d. Aspiration force remains constant

A

All of the items

33
Q

Which is a COMMONLY used clearance test used as a rough estimate of glomerular filtration rate?

a. eGFR
b. Inulin
c. CKD-EPI
d. Creatinine

A

Creatinine

34
Q

What is the value of 200 mg/dL, glucose in mmol/L?

a. 8.5
b. 10.50
c. 11.0
d. 13.75

A

11.0

35
Q

For 40 years old and above, there is moderate risk of developing coronary heart disease when cholesterol is
greater than ________

a. 240 mg/dL
b. 280 mg/dL
c. 200 mg/dL
d. 260 mg/dL

A

240 mg/dL

36
Q

HCG kit for pregnancy uses:

a. Immunochromatography
b. Colorimetry
c. Turbidimetry
d. Electrochemistry

A

Immunochromatography

37
Q

Cleaning surface with disinfectant:

a. Administrative control
b. Engineering control
c. PPE
d. Emergency kit

A

Administrative control

38
Q

Not a physical hazard

a. Ergonomic
b. Noise
c. Aerosol from centrifugation
d. Opened shoes

A

Aerosol from centrifugation

39
Q

Not included in the SDS or MSDS
a. Spill and disposal procedures
b. Primary routes of entry
c. Special information center
d. Education of employees annually and catalog number

A

Education of employees annually and catalog number

40
Q

___ of radiant energy emitted falls in the visible region, with most emitted as near-infrared

a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 5%
d. 20%

A

15%

41
Q

Green color shows highest transmittance at

a. 525 nm
b. 450 nm
c. 600 nm
d. 750 nm

A

525 nm

42
Q

Preferred unit for reporting:

a. mg/dL
b. mol/L
c. mmol/L
d. umol/L

A

mol/L

43
Q

Has random access system?

a. Continuous flow
b. Centrifugal
c. Discrete
d. AOTA

A

Discrete

44
Q

What should be done if re-centrifuging is necessary?

a. Re-spin the primary tube
b. Re-spin in cold centrifuge
c. Transfer the serum to another tube, then re-spin
d. Re-spin if the tube is gel tube

A

Transfer the serum to another tube, then re-spin

45
Q

Violation of which rule does not indicate systematic error?

a. 13s
b. 41s
c. 10 mean
d. 22s

A

13s

46
Q

The concept of treating all blood and body fluids as capable of transmitting infectious diseases is

a. Safe practice standards
b. Infection control
c. Universal precautions
d. Safety protocol

A

Universal precautions

47
Q

The gram-molecular weight of NaCl is 57.5. What is the molarity of a solution containing 75 g of NaCl per liter?

a. 1.3
b. 1.7
c. 1.0
d. 1.6

A

1.3

48
Q

The usual lipid studies require fasting for ____ hours

a. 12
b. 10
c. 9
d. 6

A

12

49
Q

Which does NOT refer to IDDM?

a. Age of onset - usually before 20 years of age
b. Serum insulin - very low
c. None of the items
d. Presence of ketone bodies - usuall

A

None of the items

50
Q

Which formula is used to estimate osmolality?
a. Osmolality = [Na+] + [urea] + [glucose]
b. Osmolality = [Na+] + [urea] + 2 x [glucose]
c. Osmolality = [Na+] + 2 x [urea] + [glucose]
d. Osmolality = 2 x [Na+] + [urea] + [glucose]

A

Osmolality = 2 x [Na+] + [urea] + [glucose]

51
Q

Which immunoassay method for Thyroxine Testing is
referred to?

  • fluorophozelabeled thyroxine competes with patient thyroxine for antibody
  • antibody bound labelled thryoxine rotates slowly, emitting lower energy light
    *reaction is inversely proportional

a. Microparticle enzyme
b. Fluorescent Polarization
c. Fluorescent Substrate-Labeled Inhibition
d. Chemiluminescence

A

Fluorescent Polarization