SOP's Flashcards

1
Q

What audio test signals will you expect to hear for the CVR that is able to record for 120
min?

A

For CVR 120 min:
‐ A short tone, or
‐ A short tone and a beep every 4 s, or
‐ Two short tones and a beep every 4 s.

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2
Q

When will the crew select the PACK flow to the HI position?
And the LO position?

A

LO : below 141 pax
HI : For abnormally hot and humid conditions.
NORM : For all other normal operating cases.
If the APU is supplying, pack controllers select HI flow automatically, regardless of the selector position.

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3
Q

During the Cockpit Preparation ELEC BAT Check, what actions will the crew is going to do if the charge of at least one battery is not below 60A?

A

If the charge of at least one battery is not below 60 A:
Wait until the end of the charging cycle of the batteries and perform this check again.

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4
Q

In which situations will you perform a complete IRS alignment?

A

A complete IRS alignment must be performed in the following cases:
‐ Before the first flight of the day, or
‐ When there is a crew change, or
‐ When the departure airport is located between latitudes 2 ° north and 2 ° south, or
‐ When the GPS is not available and the NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route, or
‐ When the GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3 h.

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5
Q

In which situations will you perform a fast IRS alignment?

A

A fast IRS alignment must be performed if a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5 NM (see MCDU POSITION MONITOR page).

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6
Q

What are the conditions required to perform ADIRS alignment?

A

To perform an alignment, the aircraft must be stopped on ground. Do not align IRS during engine start, or while the engines are running. In the case of aircraft movement during the IRS alignment, the flight crew must perform a new full alignment.

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7
Q

Why is it important to select the PA reception knob on ACP 3 during the Cockpit
Preparation?

A

This allows cabin attendant announcements to be recorded on the CVR.

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8
Q

Why are OEBs issued?

A

An Operations Engineering Bulletin is published to inform Operators of any deviations from initial design objectives that have a significant operational impact. An OEB provides the Operators
with technical information and temporary operational procedures that take into account these deviations.

An OEB:
‐ Is temporary and usually focuses on one operational subject only
‐ Is included in the OEB section of the QRH so that the flight crew can easily access it
‐ At any time during the flight, if the OEB conditions are applicable, the flight crew must apply the operational procedure(s) that is in the QRH OEB section.

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9
Q

Meaning of white and red OEB’s?

A

Red: RED OEBs are published to indicate that non-compliance with the recommended procedures may have a significant impact on the safe operation of the aircraft. The Operators shall provide all flight crews with these OEBs or their content without delay.

White: WHITE OEBs are published to indicate that non-compliance with the recommended procedures may have a significant impact on aircraft operation. Airbus recommends that the Operators apply these OEBs within 30 days from the date of publication of these OEBs.

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10
Q

Is T/O on a contaminated runway permitted?

A

No, takeoff on a contaminated runway is not approved (AC is permitted with TOGA thrust only, but for JQ not allowed).
FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 21/48

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11
Q

Can you land on a contaminated runway?

A

Landing on contaminated runways is not permitted unless it is required due to an
emergency.
FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-F P 4/6

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12
Q

When do you turn anti ice on?

A

For engine:
When TAT is 10degC or below, down to -40degC SAT

For wing:
When there is visible ice on the probe

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13
Q

What is the RAISE process? What does it stand for?

A

Used when an abnormal situation is identified, or deviation from SOPs such as:
* Loss of control (Upset prevention);
* Airborne conflict;
* Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT);
* Ground handling;
* System degradation and inflight events (e.g. unreliable airspeed, fire onboard);
* Runway excursion; and
* Runway incursion.

R – Relay information:
* “There’s a strong tailwind here on base.”
* “VLS is increasing”
* “We have to turn left at taxiway A”
* “TCAS indicates traffic at 10 o’clock, 6 miles”
A – Ask a question:
* “Do you think you should start the final turn early?”
* “Do you want to descend?”
* “Have you got that 737 on our left?”
I – The ‘I’ statement:
* “I am concerned that we’ll cross over to the other runway path.”
* “I am concerned that our speed is decreasing, and we are already at maximum thrust”
* “I think we should stop here and clarify taxi instructions”
S – Solution statement:
* “Increase your bank angle.”
* “Lower the nose”
* “Turn right”
* “Stop”
E – Emergency statement:
* “Captain, you must act now!”

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14
Q

When can you use the FMS for navigation below LSALT?

A

*AC under radar control
*In compliance with published departure, holding, arrival or appch proc (exc DME arrival)
*In compliance with descent not below DME steps (DME arrival not permitted)
*By day in VMC

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 6/48

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15
Q

Can we do DME or GPS arrivals?

A

No, not permitted. But can descend via the DME/GNSS steps on a DME/GNSS arrival in prep for a visual or instrument appch (just not specifically a DME or GNSS arrival).

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 6/48
FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 29/48
FCOM POR-NOR-JSS-D P 6/16

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16
Q

What is the STOP Threats briefing?

A

Briefing from Capt to cabin crew before each flight.

  • Status of AC and crew
  • Turbulence/weather expected
  • Operational considerations (rear stairs boarding etc
  • Password
  • Threats (with mitigation strategies)

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 8/48

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17
Q

Can pilots take their own wake turbulence separation?

A

No

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 9/48

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18
Q

When to turn brake fans on?

A

Prior to stopping at the gate, or at 5 minutes after landing whichever is first

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19
Q

FO crosswind limitation?

A

30kt (20kt until 12 months post line check)

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 11/48

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20
Q

Below what runway distance does it become a captain only landing?

A

1700m

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 11/48

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21
Q

FO crosswind limitation?

A

30kt (20kt until 12 months post line check)

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 11/48

22
Q

After selecting an altitude on the FCU what position should the outer knob be left in?

A

The 100ft incriment position

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 22/48

23
Q

EFB app category reqs? A, B, C?

A

A = on at least two devices
B = on at least one device
C = not required for dispatch

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-A P 40/48

24
Q

When must CM2 stay head down until?

A

Visual = heads free

Instrument (CAT I - no autoland or NPA) = head down until CM1 calls “visual” or “continue”
Instrument (CAT I/II/III or SA CAT I/II - auto land) = head down until autopilot disengage on rollout

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-E P 3/12

25
Q

PBN - to what minima can we go down to on an RNP-AR approach OEI?

A

No lower than 0.15 minima, if an engine fails after the 0.15 minima can continue down to the planned minima.

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-D P 13/16

26
Q

For a 2D approach with a displaced threshold, if approved, what is the correction for the vertical path?

A

+10ft per 60m of threshold displacement to the published altitudes on the descent table.

Also must use circling minima.

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 45/46

27
Q

What are the two altimiter difference tolerances to remember?

A

20ft pre departure, 130ft in Cruise (above FL300)

28
Q

Company sop, what speed are we restricted to below 5000’?

A

250kt or less below 5000’

Unsure of reference

29
Q

Height to be maintained above the lower limit of controll area, with uncontrolled airspace below?

A

500ft

Unsure of reference

30
Q

What are the MEL A, B, C & D repair intervals?

A

A - no standard interval
B - within 3 days
C - within 10 days
D - within 120 days
Starts on the next UTC day, and expires 2359 on the last day

31
Q

Min crew on JQ A320/321?

A

A320 = 4
A321 = 5

32
Q

Taxi speed and turn restriction?

A

30kts max (does not apply for backtrack or on runway), 10kts for “sharp turns”.

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 21/46

33
Q

Minimum turn altitude on departure?

A

1000ft, unless lower on the SID, then no lower than 400ft agl.

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 24/46

34
Q

Thrust reduction altitude?

A

800ft HAA unless:
* speed restrictions below green dot exist below 3000ft HAA
*climb gradient exceeds 6%
*Windshear/turbulence is expected
*local procedures specify NADP1 or a higher acceleration alt

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 25/46

35
Q

Initial climb speed SOP at night or IMC?

A

Limited to green dot until MSA/LSALT unless complying with the climb gradient of the SID.

Also limited to green dot until 3000ft HAA for noise abatement departure procedures (NADP).

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 25/46

36
Q

Normal altitude to turn off seat belt sign?

A

5000ft AGL (if safe to do so).

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 27/46

37
Q

Statement used to get priority with ATC when needing to divert urgently around weather?

A

“Weather deviation required”, after declaring a PAN if necessary.

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 32/46

38
Q

Level change procedure for deviating off track without contact with ATC?

A

If deviating >5nm from track:

In summary, **north of track = descend 300’, south of track climb 300’

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 33/46

39
Q

Go-Around page THR RED / ACC ENG OUT ACC numbers for VMC and IMC?

A

VMC:
1000/1500 1500 (HAA)
IMC:
1500/Mapt alt Mapt alt (HAA)

Note:
IMC ACC and ENG OUT ACC may be set to MSA if lower than Mapt alt. RNP set as above or not lower than AEO or OEI acc alt

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 37/4

40
Q

SOP for use (testing) of wing anti-ice?

A

If hasn’t been used that day/that flight (wording is odd) then on the last flight of the day AND inbound to a main maintenance base:

*prior to descent turn on for min 30sec, then off.
*if HI PR fault occurs, recycle off for few secs and on. Success is indicated by lack of caution after 10 secs of operation. Reset has no adverse effect on other systems.

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 37/46

41
Q

SOP decent rate normal limits?

A

> FL200 = 5000ft/min down to 5k’ agl,
3000ft/min down to 3k’ agl,
2000ft/min form to 1k’ agl
1000ft agl = 1000ft/min

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 39/46

42
Q

Orbits to lose altitude are prohibited when?

A

Below MSA at night or in IMC, or below 1500ft HAA in day VMC

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 43/46

43
Q

Open descent is prohibited below what altitude?

A

1500ft HAA

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 43/46

44
Q

For glideslope from above procedure, when must you be established on the vertical path by?

A

IMC = by FAF (final appch fix)
VMC =by 1000ft HAA

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-C P 43/46

45
Q

Below what temperature do cold temperature corrections need to be applied?

A

At ISA -15 or below

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-D P 3/16

46
Q

Cat I ILS Requirements/Minia etc

A
  • manual or autoland
  • DH not lower than 200ft (via pressure altimiter)
  • vis not less than 800m or 550m RVR (must be RVR below 800m)
  • vis below 1200m requires FD and/or autopilot
  • failure of req equip requires immediate GA unless vis ref is sufficient
47
Q

Can you perform an autoland on a GLS approach?

A

Manufacturer allows, but under Jetstar SOPs no you cannot.

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-D P 5/16

48
Q

When can’t you do an FLS approach?

A

When there is a temporary displaced threshold advised by NOTAM

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-D P 5/16

49
Q

Does JQ allow circling approaches?

A

No, however an insturment approach can be used in order to position for a visual approach.

FCOM PRO-NOR-JSS-D P 6/16

50
Q

Jetstar specific visual approach requirements:

A

By Day:
* 5km vis, 2000’ ceiling.
* Airport in sight, visual ref to terrain can be maintained for whole appch.
* Cleared for a vis appch by ATC.
Additionally at Night:
* “Should” only be conducted if PIC has been to airport before and is famil with terrain around airport and during appch.
* Some form of external appch slope guidance must be available.
* Are not to be requested by flight crew (other than expected in OM2A, where permitted EGPWS must be serviceable.