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Anatomy -Sarah > Some embryo stuff (does include reproductive stuffs now, has all blueboxes that aren't in moore's or self-explanatory like micropenis) > Flashcards

Some embryo stuff (does include reproductive stuffs now, has all blueboxes that aren't in moore's or self-explanatory like micropenis) Flashcards

1
Q

Fate of intraembryonic coelum

A

embryonic body cavity - the pericardial cavity, two pericardioperitoneal canals (pleural cavity precursor), and the peritoneal cavity

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2
Q

derivation of parietal layer of peritoneum (What it’s derived from)

A

mesothelium (derived from somatic mesoderm)

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3
Q

Derivation of visceral layer of peritoneum (what it’s derived from)

A

mesothelium (derived from splanchnic mesoderm)

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4
Q

Transiently, the ____ and ____ divide the peritoneal cavity into right and left halves.

A

ventral and dorsal mesentery

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5
Q

The profusion of the foregut, midgut, and hindgut and what these structures travel through.

A

foregut - celiac trunk
midgut - superior mesenteric artery
hindgut - inferior mesenteric artery
They pass between the layers of dorsal mesentery

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6
Q

primordium of the central tendon of the diaphragm

A

septum transversum

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7
Q

Contents of the pleurocardial membranes

A

cardinal veins

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8
Q

primordium of diaphragm crura

A

mesentery of the esophagus

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9
Q

primordium of diaphragm

A

septum transversum (mesodermal), pleuroperitoneal membranes, dorsal mesentery of esophagus, muscular ingrowth from lateral body walls

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10
Q

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

herniation of abdominal contents into the thoracic cavity, results from defective formation and/or fusion of the pleuroperitoneal membranes with the other three parts of the diaphragm, often left side, also known as foramen of bochdalek

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11
Q

___ is the most common cause of pulmonary hypoplasia

A

congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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12
Q

eventration of diaphragm

A

half the diaphragm has defective musculature and balloons into the thoracic cavity as an aponeurotic (membranous) sheet, forming a diaphragmatic pouch
Probably caused by failure of muscular tissue from the body wall to extend into the pleuroperitoneal membrane

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13
Q

gastroschisis

A

congenital fissure in the anterior abdominal wall (usually with protrusion of viscera)

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14
Q

foramen of Morgagni

A

sternocostal hiatus (opening for the superior epigastric vessels)

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15
Q

Primordial gut forms from ___.

A

dorsal part of the umbilical vesicle or yolk sac

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16
Q

ends of the primordial gut

A

cloacal membrane (caudally) and oropharyngeal membrane (cranial end)

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17
Q

epithelium at cranial and caudal ends of epithelium is derived from ___.

A

ectoderm of the stomodeum and anal pit/proctodeum

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18
Q

derivatives of foregut

A

primordial pharynx and its derivatives
lower respiratory system
esophagus and stomach
duodenum, proximal to the opening of the bile duct
The liver, biliary apparatus, (hepatic ducts, gall bladder, and bile duct) and pancreas

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19
Q

primordium of muscles in esophagus

A

The striated muscle forming the muscularis externa of the superior third of the esophagus is derived from mesenchyme in the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches.
The smooth muscle, mainly in the inferior third of the esophagus, develops from the surrounding splanchnic mesenchyme.

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20
Q

esophageal atresia

A

blockage of the esophageal lumen

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21
Q

recanalization of the esophagus occurs during the ___ week.

A

eighth

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22
Q

the left vagus nerve innervates the ______ wall of the adult stomach and the right vagus nerve innervates the ___ wall. This is because the stomach rotates ninety degrees in a ____ direction when viewed from the cranial end.

A

anterior;
posterior;
clockwise

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23
Q

The stomach is suspended from the dorsal wall of the abdominal cavity by _____

A

the primordial dorsal mesogastrium (a dorsal mesentery)

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24
Q

The primordial ventral mesogastrium attaches to the ____, and it also attaches the duodenum to the ____ and ____.

A

stomach;

liver and ventral abdominal wall

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25
Q

duodenal stenosis

A

Partial occlusion of the duodenal lumen

usually results from incomplete recanalization of the duodenum resulting from defective vacuolization

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26
Q

Duodenal atresia

A

Complete occlusion of the duodenal lumen
The blockage occurs nearly always at the junction of the bile and pancreatic ducts (hepatopancreatic ampulla)

associated with bilious emesis
polyhydraminos also occurs

diagnosis of duodenal atresia is suggested by the presence of a “double-bubble” sign on plain radiographs or ultrasound scans

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27
Q

hepatic diverticulum forms ____

A

liver, gallbladder, and biliary duct system

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28
Q

primordium of gallbladder

A

hepatic diverticulum (caudal part)

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29
Q

primordium of liver

A

hepatic diverticulum (cranial part)

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30
Q

primordium of cystic duct

A

stalk of the hepatic diverticulum

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31
Q

hepatic cords form ____

A

hepatic sinusoids

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32
Q

primordium of hepatic sinusoids

A

hepatic cords

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33
Q

meconium is

A

intestinal contents

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34
Q

fate of ventral mesentery

A

lesser omentum, falciform ligament, visceral peritoneum of the liver

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35
Q

extrahepatic biliary atresia

A

caused by obliteration of the bile ducts at or superior to the porta hepatis—a deep transverse fissure on the visceral surface of the liver
could result from a failure of the remodeling process at the hepatic hilum or from infections or immunologic reactions during late fetal development

treatment is palliative

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36
Q

The uncinate process forms from the ____.

A

ventral pancreatic bud

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37
Q

The ventral pancreatic bud lies ____ to the dorsal pancreatic bud before fusing with it.

A

posterior

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38
Q

primordium of pancreatic duct

A

ventral pancreatic bud (and distal part of the duct of the dorsal pancreatic bud)

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39
Q

Primordium of accessory pancreatic duct

A

proximal part of the duct of the dorsal pancreatic bud

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40
Q

annular pancreas

A

pancreatic ring around the second part (descending part) of the duodenum that probably results from the growth of a bifid ventral pancreatic bud around the duodenum

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41
Q

derivatives of midgut

A 
small intestine (duodenum - distal to the opening of the bile duct, ileum, jejenum)
cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and the right one half to two thirds of the transverse colon
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42
Q

primordium of the ceum and appendix

A

cecal swelling

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43
Q

Congenital omphalocele

A

persistence of the herniation of abdominal contents into the proximal part of the umbilical cord

omphalocele results from impaired growth of the mesodermal (muscle) and ectodermal (skin) components of the abdominal wall

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44
Q

Umbilical hernia

A

the intestines return to the abdominal cavity during the 10th week and then herniate again through an imperfectly closed umbilicus

The protruding mass (usually the greater omentum and part of the small intestine) is covered by subcutaneous tissue and skin

The defect through which the hernia occurs is in the linea alba.

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45
Q

Gastroschisis

A

results from a defect lateral to the median plane of the anterior abdominal wall
The linear defect permits extrusion of the abdominal viscera without involving the umbilical cord. The viscera protrude into the amniotic cavity and are bathed by amniotic fluid.

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46
Q

Subhepatic cecum and appendix may result in difficulty diagnosing ____.

A

appendicitis

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47
Q

Meckel diverticulum

A

A congenital ileal diverticulum
The wall of the diverticulum contains all layers of the ileum and may contain small patches of gastric and pan- creatic tissues.
remnant of proximal part of the omphaloenteric duct

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48
Q

omphaloenteric fistula

A

there is an external opening of the ileum at the umbilicus

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49
Q

derivatives of the hindgut:

A

left one third to one half of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon, the rectum, and the superior part of the anal canal
the epithelium of the urinary bladder and most of the urethra

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50
Q

Anal canal primordium

A

superior two thirds of the adult anal canal are derived from hindgut
The inferior one third develops from the anal pit

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51
Q

The ____ separates the epithelium derived from ectoderm and endoderm. (In the anal region)

A

Pectinate line

52
Q

The lymphatic drainage of the inferior part of the anal canal is to the ____.

A

superficial inguinal lymph nodes

53
Q

The lymphatic drainage of the superior part of the anal canal is to the ____.

A

inferior mesenteric lymph nodes.

54
Q

Congenital megacolon

A

absence of ganglion cells (aganglionosis) in a variable length of the distal bowel; lack autonomic ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus distal to the dilated segment of colon

aka Hirschsprung disease
results from failure of relaxation of the aganglionic segment, which prevents movement of the intestinal contents, resulting in dilation.

55
Q

Anorectal agenesis

A

The rectum ends superior to the puborectalis muscle

56
Q

rectal atresia

A

The anal canal and rectum are present, but separated

57
Q

Sets of successive kidneys that develop in the embryos

A

pronephroi, mesonephroi, and metanephroi

58
Q

Components of mesonephroi

A

glomeruli and meonephric tubules, which open into mesonephric ducts that were originally the pronephric ducts

59
Q

progenitor of testis

A

indifferent gonad

60
Q

derivative of indifferent gonad

A

ovary and testis

61
Q

derivative of cortex

A

seminiferous tubules and ovarian follicles

62
Q

derviative of medulla

A

rete testis and rete ovarii

63
Q

derivative of gubernaculum

A

gubernaculum testis and ovarian ligament and round ligament of uterus

64
Q

derivative of mesonephric tubules

A

efferent ductules of testis and paradidymis and epoophoron and paroophoron

65
Q

derivative of mesonephric duct

A

duct of epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct and seminal glands, appendix vesiculosa, duct of epoophoron, longitudinal duct (Gartner duct)

66
Q

derivative of stalk of ureteric bud

A

ureter, pelvis, calices, and collective tubules

67
Q

derivative of paramesonephric duct

A

Appendix of testis, hydatid (of Morgagni), uterine tube, uterus

68
Q

derivative of urogenital sinus

A

urinary bladder, urethra (except navicular fossa), prostatic utricle, prostate, bulbourethral glands, and vagina, urethreal and paraurethral glands, and greater vestibular glands

69
Q

derivative of sinus tubercle

A

seminal colliculus and hymen

70
Q

derivative of primordial phallus

A

penis, glans penis, corpora cavernosa of penis, corpus spongiosum of penis and clitoris, glans clitoris, corpora cavernosa of clitoris, and bulb of vestibule

71
Q

derivative of urogenital folds

A

ventral aspect of penis and labia minora

72
Q

derivative of labioscrotal swellings

A

scrotum and labia majora

73
Q

The kidneys develop from these sources:

A

ureteric bud (metanephric diverticulum) and metanephrogenic blastema (metanephric mass of mesenchyme)

74
Q

derivation of metanephrogenic blastema

A

caudal part of the nephrogenic cord

75
Q

ureter progenitor

A

stalk of the ureteric bud

76
Q

True or false: Nephron formation continues after birth.

A

False

77
Q

The increase in kidney size after birth results mainly from ____.

A

elongation of the proximal convoluted tubules as well as an increase of interstitial tissue

78
Q

hydronephrosis

A

distention of the renal pelvis and calices with urine

79
Q

failure of kidney to develop

A

renal agenesis. Unilateral if only one, usually occurs with left kidney
bilateral renal agenesis associated with oligohydraminos (little or no urine excreted into amniotic cavity)

80
Q

Potter syndrome is associated with ___.

A

bilateral renal agenesis, also with palpebronasal folds (epicanthic folds), low set ears, broad and flat nose, and receding chin

81
Q

renal agenesis

A

failure of kidney to develop

Unilateral if only one, usually occurs with left kidney
bilateral renal agenesis associated with oligohydraminos (little or no urine excreted into amniotic cavity)
associated with Potter’s syndrome

Failure of ureteric buds to penetrate the metanephrogenic blastema or involution of polycystic kidneys

82
Q

What prevents a horseshoe kidney from ascending?

A

the root of the inferior mesenteric artery

83
Q

Turner syndrome is associated with ____.

A

Horseshoe kidneys

84
Q

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

A

Both kidneys contain many small cysts which result in renal insufficiency

85
Q

Multicystic dysplastic kidney disease

A

fewer cysts than PKD. (cysts in kidneys) Cystic structures are wide dilations of parts of the otherwise continuous nephrons (particularly the nephron loops of Henle)

86
Q

Parts of the urogenital sinus

A

vesical part that forms most of the urinary bladder and is continuous with the allantois; pelvic part that becomes the urethra in the neck of the bladder, the prostatic part of the urethra in males and the entire urethra in females; and phallic part that grows toward the genital tubercle (primordium of the penis or clitoris)

87
Q

Progenitor of urinary bladder

A

vesical part of the urogenital sinus; the entire epithelium of the bladder derived from endoderm of the vesical part of the urogenital sinus (ventral part of the cloaca) and the other layers of its wall develop from the adjacent splanchnic mesenchyme.

88
Q

fate of the allantois

A

urachus

89
Q

megalocystis

A

a pathologically large urinary bladder

90
Q

progenitor of connective tissue and smooth muscle of the urethra

A

splanchnic mesenchyme

91
Q

progenitor of cortex or suprarenal gland

A

mesenchyme

92
Q

progenitor of medulla of suprarenal gland

A

neural crest cells

93
Q

Adrenogenital syndrome

A

associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia;
enzymatic deficiencies of cortisol biosynthesis
Excessive androgen production during the fetal period causes masculinization of the external genitalia in females

94
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

group of autosomal recessive disorders that result in virilization (formation of masculine characteristics) of female fetuses
increased release of adrenocorticotropin from the anterior pituitary gland

95
Q

Source of gonads

A

Mesothelium (mesodermal epithelium) lining the posterior abdominal wall, underlying mesenchyme (embryonic connective tissue) and primordial germ cells (earliest undifferentiated sex cells)

96
Q

paradidymis

A

some mesonephric tubules may persist as a small body caudal to the efferent ductules

97
Q

The cranial end of the mesonephric duct may persist as ___.

A

an appendix of the epididymis in males and an appendix vesiculosa in females

98
Q

epoophoron

A

a blind tubule or duct that may persist in the mesovarium

99
Q

paroophoron

A

rudimentary tubules that may persist closer to the uterus

100
Q

Parts of the mesonephric duct that correspond to the ductus deferens in the male may persist as ____ in females between the layers of _____.

A

Gartner duct cysts;

broad ligament and the wall of the vagina

101
Q

The paramesonephric duct may persist as _____.

A

a vesicular appendix of the testis (the cranial end) in males

(The prostatic utricle also forms from the paramesonephric duct and the seminal colliculus is the adult derivative of the sinus tubercle)

a vesicular appendage called a hyatid of Morgagni in females
(the infundibulum of the uterine tube also forms from the paramesonephric duct)

102
Q

Ovotesticular DSD

A

intersex condition; chromatin-positive nuclei
most persons have both testicular and ovarian tissue and an ovotestis (gonad in which both testicular and ovarian components are present)

103
Q

46,XX DSD

A

chromatin-positive nuclei and 46,XX chromosome
exposure of female fetus to excessive androgens
virilization, clitoral hypertrophy
CAH one cause

104
Q

46, XY DSD

A

chromatin-negative nuclei (no sex chromatin) (Sometimes the male genitalia fails to form correctly)

105
Q

androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

testicular feminization syndrome, normal-apperaing females despite the presence of testes and a 46,XY chromosome constitution

106
Q

Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

A

46,XY chromosomal complement with a testis on one side and an undifferentiated gonad on the other side. Internal genitalia female, but male derivatives of the mesonephric ducts are sometimes present
neither breast development nor menstruation occurs, virilization might (at puberty)

107
Q

Types of hypospadias

A

glanular hypospadia - external urethral orifice on ventral side
penile hypospadia - external urethral orifice on the ventral surface of the body of the penis
penoscrotal hypospadia - urethral orifice at the junction of the penis and scrotum
perineal hypospadia - labioscrotal folds fail to fuse and urethral orifice is located between the unfused halves of the scrotum

108
Q

chordee

A

penis curved ventrally

109
Q

hypospadias result from inadequate production of ____.

A

androgens (or inadequate receptor sites for the hormones)

110
Q

epispadias

A

urethra opens on the dorsal surface of the penis

111
Q

diphallia

A

double penis

112
Q

micropenis is commonly associated with ___.

A

hypopituitarism

113
Q

anomalies of uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina that were in moore’s (freebie card)

A

check those other decks

114
Q

Turner syndrome

A

XO (one X) chromosome

115
Q

Undescended testes

A

cryptorchidism

116
Q

mesentery of the testis

A

mesorchium

117
Q

derivatives of seminiferous cords

A

seminiferous tubules, tubuli recti, and rete testis

118
Q

Rete testis forms from ___.

A

Seminiferous cords

119
Q

The development of the dense tunica ____ is the characteristic feature of testicular development.

A

albuginea

120
Q

fate of seminiferous cords

A

seminiferous tubules, tubuli recti and rete testis

121
Q

True or false: No oogonia form postnatally.

A

True

122
Q

fate of the uterovaginal primordium

A

uterus and superior part of vagina

123
Q

Primordium of penis or clitoris

A

genital tubercle

124
Q

The urethral folds do not fuse, except posteriorly, where they join to form the ____.

A

frenulum of the labia minora

125
Q

The labioscrotal folds fuse posteriorly to form the ____ and anteriorly to form the ___ .

A

posterior labial commissure;

Anterior labial commissure and mons pubis

126
Q

The surface ectoderm fuses in the median plane of the penis, forming the ____.

A

penile raphe

127
Q

A persistent processus in a female fetus is known as a

A

A canal of Nuck, or a vaginal process of peritoneum

Anatomy -Sarah (12 decks)

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