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LT Test > SOG > Flashcards

SOG Flashcards

1
Q

Formally defined as one who buys good or services and informally as any person with whom one has dealings

A

Customer

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2
Q

Defined as the ability of an organization to consistently give their customers what they want

A

Customer service

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3
Q

Occurs any time we go beyond our standard quick, effective, and positive service

A

Added value

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4
Q

This means the organization delegates official authority and trusts its members to provide customer service

A

Empowerment

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5
Q

Guidelines to create a positive public impression include

A

Follow SOG’s
Be professional
Undivided attention
Educate customer what we do

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6
Q

What type of organization is BSO

A

Quasi military structured around chain of command

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7
Q

Communication at the scene of an emergency will be conducted as per

A

Incident command system

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8
Q

Worn or damaged articles must be

A

Turned in to get replacement along with FR 01 Form

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9
Q

Class A uniform includes

A

White long sleeve shirt
Navy blue pant
Black tie and pin
Black leather belt
Black leather shoes

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10
Q

What shall not be worn with Class A uniform

A

BDU type pants

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11
Q

Class B uniform includes

A

Short sleeve uniform shirt
Black belt
Navy blue BDU pant
Department issued footwear

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12
Q

What is the standard daily uniform for shift operations

A

Class C uniform

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13
Q

When assigned to light duty or pub ed events the uniform shall be

A

Polo Shirt
Black tactical belt
Navy blue BDU pant
Department issued footwear

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14
Q

Who has the discretion to require either the polo or t-shirt as part of the Class C uniform

A

Unit’s company officer

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15
Q

All uniforms must be

A

Uniform in appearance and is unit specific

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16
Q

Class D uniforms consist of? When can they be used

A

Approved T-shirt
Navy blue shorts
After 16:00 hours

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17
Q

The only recognized vendor of Fire Chief authorized official/optional attire items shall be

A

Local 4321

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18
Q

This is defined as any area that requires SCBA, or which a firefighter can become lost, trapped, or injured in the environment

A

Hazard zone

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19
Q

A minimum crew size will be considered

A

2 members and a radio required

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20
Q

If a radio fails while in the hazard zone, the crew will

A

exit unless there is another working radio with the crew

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21
Q

This is used to track assignments and location or crews working in the hazard zone

A

PASSPORT system

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22
Q

This is a confirmation that members assigned to a crew are accounted for

A

PAR

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23
Q

When can a PAR be employed by the Incident Commander

A

-Missing/trapped FF
-Change from Offensive to Defensive
-Sudden hazardous events
-30 minutes of elapsed time
-Report of fire under control
-Crews reporting “all clear”

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24
Q

These must be followed for the accountability system to function

A

-PASSPORTS never enter hazard zone
-PASSPORTS kept at command vehicle
-PASSPORTS only reflect crews presently in hazard zone

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25
Q

When will the PASSPORT system be implemented

A

Any incident requiring use of SCBA

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26
Q

For single company incidents, where do PASSPORTS remain and who takes responsibility

A

Remain on truck, driver takes responsibility

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27
Q

For any reports of missing FF, Incident Command shall

A

Request next greater alarm

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28
Q

What does an upside down passport mean

A

Any individual that is not with their crew in hazard zone, is leaving, or is reassigned

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29
Q

What does P.A.S.S. mean

A

Personal Alert Safety System

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30
Q

How many attempts until the incident commander activates RIT for missing FF

A

After 2 failed verbal or radio attempts

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31
Q

This is used to indicate a life threatening situation has developed

A

MAYDAY transmission

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32
Q

This is used to indicate that a serious injury has occurred but it not life threatening

A

Emergency Traffic transmission

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33
Q

What term shall never be used in place of a MAYDAY call

A

Emergency traffic

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34
Q

The primary task of this group is to respond to FF in distress

A

RIT group

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35
Q

Distress falls into what 3 categories per SOG

A

Trapped
Disoriented or lost
Low or out of air

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36
Q

When a MAYDAY is called the IC will initiate this sequence of events

A

-Deploy RIT
-FireCom dispatch another alarm
-IC confirms alarm
-TRT will be assigned if not already
-PAR will take place
-Second radio channel
-Another Chief Officer to respond
-Second RIT group

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37
Q

RIT crews will give what report to the IC upon locating downed FF? What does it mean

A

UCAN report
Unit number
Conditions
Actions
Needs

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38
Q

What does RICO stand for and who is it?

A

Rapid intervention crew officer
Team leader

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39
Q

What does LET Safe mean

A

-Location/extension of fire
-Entrances and exits
-Type of occupancy/construction

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40
Q

What percent of FF deaths and injuries are attributed to becoming lost or trapped

A

30%

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41
Q

The PASS alarm should be cleared and radio communication reestablished every

A

30 seconds

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42
Q

If the FF believes they will soon become incapacitated, the PASS should be

A

Activated and not reset

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43
Q

If the FF cannot locate an exit, what position should be taken on the floor and why

A

Horizontal, to maximize volume of PASS alarm

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44
Q

A fire that is in the initial or beginning stage is considered

A

Incipient stage fire

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45
Q

Interior structural firefighting ops will not begin until

A

2 FF are available outside the structure

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46
Q

When can half mask cartridge respirators be used

A

-If organic vapors are the only normal gas preset
-Oxygen levels are normal

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47
Q

Half mask cartridge respirators are useful for what scenarios

A

-Wildland fires
-D/E at the pump panel
-Operating as Incident Safety Officer
-Post fire activities

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48
Q

Primary eye protection shall meet at a minimum

A

ANSI Standard #Z87

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49
Q

What 3 categories do cleaning PPE fall into

A

Routine
Advanced
Specialized

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50
Q

According to NFPA, protective clothing should be washed/ cleaned

A

Every 6 months
ASAP after contamination or exposure

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51
Q

What type of machine should be used to wash PPE

A

Front loading extractor or front loading washing machine

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52
Q

Wash water temperatures for cleaning PPE should be

A

Between 110-120 degrees F

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53
Q

What is the iodine based disinfectant recommended by Scott

A

Wescodyne Plus

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54
Q

What type of cleaner should never be used on any Scott AV-3000 respirator

A

quaternary ammonium type cleaner

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55
Q

What level of carbon monoxide should a FF where an SCBA

A

Level exceeding 30 parts per million

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56
Q

The low air alarm is designed to activate when SCBA air supply reaches

A

1500 psi or 1/3 of total air supply.

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57
Q

Low air alarm should be considered

A

Emergency air supply left in SCBA

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58
Q

What psi is an air cylinder considered out of service and what should be done

A

Less than 4,000 psi, replaced with full cylinder

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59
Q

When visually inspecting an air cylinder, if any gouge ____ deep and ___ long is found what should be done

A

1/8” deep, 1” long
-should be taken out of service and sent to support services

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60
Q

If any deviation of more than ___ psi between the reading on the cylinder and the analog gauge, what should be done

A

100 psi, taken out of service

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61
Q

How long does it take the SCBA to go into pre alarm mode and full alarm mode

A

20 seconds pre alarm
10 seconds full alarm
30 seconds total

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62
Q

The only accepted deviation to the “two in, two out” rule is

A

an immediate need for rescue of trapped or threatened occupants

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63
Q

The size up for search and rescue ops shall include

A

-risk benefit analysis
-building info
-scene observations

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64
Q

Bedroom are typically located where

A

adjacent to or across from bathrooms

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65
Q

What are the 3 types of searches conducted

A

Primary, secondary, and final

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66
Q

What areas in a structure fire are generally searched first

A

Areas most severely threatened

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67
Q

Studies indicate that a 2 1/2 gallon water extinguisher will produce

A

4,250 gallons of steam at 212 degrees F

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68
Q

Primary search teams should use what method

A

Oriented person search method

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69
Q

The systematic removal and replacement of heated air, smoke, and gases from a structure

A

Ventilation

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70
Q

What are the four types of ventilation that can be used

A

Natural
Horizontal
Vertical
Mechanical

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71
Q

Vertical ventilation is ideally done where

A

Directly over the seat of the fire

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72
Q

When ventilating a roof, what size should the hole be made

A

Minimum 4’x4’

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73
Q

How far should a PPV fan be placed away from the doorway

A

6’-10’ away

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74
Q

Any time members are operating on an aerial ladder or in the bucket, where should the D/E be

A

Remain in the aerial turntable

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75
Q

The placement of aerial apparatus is dependent on what 4 conditions

A

-Immediate rescue
-Size of building to be covered
-Amount of smoke, heat, or fire
-Any street conditions that might hamper positioning

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76
Q

Where should aerial apparatus be positioned and why

A

Corner of the building, because it can reach 2 sides of the building

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77
Q

Where should the first, second, and third aerial appartus position on a fire

A

1st side A
2nd side C
3rd will be assigned

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78
Q

Where should the turntable be placed approximately and why

A

25’-35’ away for a good climbing angle

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79
Q

Approximately how far should you position the ladder away from the objective

A

6”-8”

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80
Q

To avoid any stresses the ladder would experience if water flow was suddenly interrupted what should be done

A

Use 2 water sources for water supply

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81
Q

Aerial master streams should only be deployed into structures where

A

Interior crews have been withdrawn and confirmed by command

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82
Q

When supplying an aerial master stream with LDH, what should be done

A

Engine assigned to the supply end of the supply line to boost pressure

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83
Q

What is the maximum pressure to be aware of when operating with LDH

A

185 psi

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84
Q

What should be avoided when connecting to the truck during aerial master stream operations and why

A

Connecting LDH to the rear 5” intake due to the amount of friction loss generated

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85
Q

In order to overcome friction loss when supplying aerial master streams what should be done

A

LDH connected to the side intake, preferably the master intake

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86
Q

Aerial master stream operations will require

A

At least 2 D/E. One on the turntable, one for the pump panel

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87
Q

Aerial master streams should never be utilized for

A

Lifting material and people

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88
Q

What are the rated tip loads for Pierce and E-One platform apparatus

A

Pierce - 1,000 lbs.
E-One - 750 lbs.

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89
Q

How should the aerial device be operated

A

Smoothly, making sure to do one thing at time. Do not try to raise, rotate, and extend simultaneously

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90
Q

When should you avoid moving the ladder

A

When personnel are on it

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91
Q

Procedures that aid in reducing both the amount of primary and secondary damage that occurs during firefighting

A

Salvage operations

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92
Q

The identification and extinguishment of any hidden or remaining fire

A

Overhaul operations

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93
Q

When do salvage operations start

A

Usually at the same time of fire attack

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94
Q

When do overhaul operations start

A

Once a fire has been declared under control

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95
Q

When 2 engine companies arrive at approx. the same time but out of response what should be done

A

Zone engine company will guide the second engine

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96
Q

If the incident involves a working fire, the second due engine company will

A

Lay a supply line

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97
Q

When responding to a multiple alarm fire, engine companies should anticipate what

A

Long hose stretches, large caliber streams, and relieving the first due engine company

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98
Q

When an engine and ladder are responding to the same alarm who precedes first

A

Engine company

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99
Q

The officer of the first engine company should strive to enter how far ahead of the ladder company

A

A block ahead

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100
Q

What does S.L.I.C.E.R.S. stand for

A

Size up
Locate the fire
Identify flow path
Cool the space
Extinguish fire
Rescue
Salvage

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101
Q

What is the highest tactical priority on a fire

A

Life safety

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102
Q

General plan or course of action decided by IC

A

Strategy

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103
Q

Operations or actions required to carry out the strategy selected by the IC

A

Tactics

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104
Q

Quick defensive knockdown of main body of fire followed by an interior offensive final attack is known as

A

Transitional attack

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105
Q

Size up starts with…

A

Receipt of alarm and continues until fire under control

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106
Q

What are the first, second, and third stages of fire suppression

A

1 - locating fire
2 - confining/controlling fire
3 - extinguishment

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107
Q

One or two slaps on the back or shoulder means

A

Open or close the nozzle

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108
Q

Tug or pull on the arm or nozzle means

A

Direction of stream

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109
Q

Steady push on the back or SCBA means

A

Advance hose line

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110
Q

Pull back on shoulder, bunker coat, or SCBA means

A

Stop advance

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111
Q

4 strong slaps on the shoulder means

A

Emergency withdrawal

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112
Q

How will the announcement of a change to defensive mode be made

A

Call for emergency traffic and all personnel withdrawing from the structure

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113
Q

This means the forward progress of the fire has been stopped and the remaining fire can be extinguished, what does this not mean

A

Fire knocked down, does not mean the fire is completely out

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114
Q

Defined as the number of people one supervisor can manage effectively

A

Span of control

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115
Q

What are the 4 sections of the ICS

A

Operations
Planning
Logistics
Finance/Admin

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116
Q

Section where all activities are directed toward hazard reduction and control

A

Operations

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117
Q

Section that involves collection, evaluation, and dissemination of info

A

Planning

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118
Q

Section that provides support needs to incident

A

Logistics

119
Q

Section that is responsible for all costs incurred at incident

A

Finance/Admin

120
Q

In addition to the 4 sections of ICS, command staff may include

A

Safety officer
PIO
Liaison officer
IC aide

121
Q

Standardized sequential thought process which enable IC to carry out the ICS

A

Command sequence

122
Q

The command sequence consists of what 4 parts

A

Incident priorities
Size up
Goals/objectives
Tactical operations

123
Q

Incident priorities include

A

Incident priorities
Incident stabilization
Property conservation

124
Q

How many command posts are there for each incident

A

Only one

125
Q

Set number of resources of the same kind and type

A

Strike team

126
Q

These are assigned to specific geographic areas

A

Divisions

127
Q

These are functional units that are identified by the function they perform

A

Groups

128
Q

When an incident strategy goes offensive to defensive or vice versa what should be done

A

PAR conducted

129
Q

This staging occurs automatically during the initial stages of an incident unless directed otherwise by IC

A

Level 1 Staging

130
Q

This is a more formalized and organized staging

A

Level 2 staging

131
Q

What type of stream is electrically conductive

A

Straight stream

132
Q

LDH will elongate ____ when charged

A

3” to 7”

133
Q

What are the only methods that may be used to control a loose line

A

Closing valve or hose clamp

134
Q

What are the 2 types of decontamination

A

Emergency/Gross
Technical/Secondary

135
Q

Gross decon shall take place in what zone

A

Warm zone

136
Q

A high rise structure is defined as a building that is

A

50 feet or higher

137
Q

Who is usually designated as the elevator control FF

A

D/E

138
Q

Upon confirmation of a working fire at a high rise building, what should be done

A

Second alarm called immediately by FireCom

139
Q

What should not be connected to a standpipe or used in high rise deployments

A

Gated wye or water thieves

140
Q

How can a D/E check to see if they are moving water or if they are only pumping to the check valve

A

Temporarily close the discharges supplying the FDC , then opening again

141
Q

If you close and open the discharges to the FDC and the discharge gauges don’t drop and then spike up what does this mean

A

You are only pumping to the check valve

142
Q

What are the general priorities for searching in a high rise

A

Immediate fire area
Fire floor
Floor above fire
Top floor
All remaining floors

143
Q

What type of radio waves are less susceptible to the radio frequency interference experienced in high rise structures

A

Simplex (AM)

144
Q

What is the purpose of equipping buildings with standpipe systems

A

To provide a means of water supply at sufficient pressure

145
Q

Standpipe risers are classified as

A

Type I, II, III

146
Q

Riser is equipped with 2 1/2” outlets for fire department use

A

Class I

147
Q

Riser is equipped with 1 1/2” outlets

A

Class II

148
Q

Riser is equipped with both 2 1/2” and 1 1/2” outlets

A

Class III

149
Q

2 1/2” outlets must flow between what pressures

A

100 psi and 175 psi maximum

150
Q

On a vehicle fire the apparatus should be

A

As far as practical with pump panel protected from traffic

151
Q

Silver and blue diamond indicates

A

CNG

152
Q

Black and silver diamond indicates

A

LPG

153
Q

The EV battery package is most often located where

A

Under the vehicle, towards the rear in an inaccessible area

154
Q

What should be done to electric vehicles that have been involved in an accident or fire

A

Chock wheels ASAP

155
Q

If an amount of spilled fuel is greater than 5 gallons what should be done

A

Call HAZMAT

156
Q

The integration of command personnel from each responding agency to a multijurisdictional or multi-agency operational event

A

Unified command

157
Q

During active shooter incidents, fires should be

A

Allowed to burn until confirmation of scene secured

158
Q

What is the sequence of processes to be performed during extrications

A

Scene stabilization
Vehicle stabilization
Patient stabilization

159
Q

How far should smart keys be removed from the vehicle

A

15 feet

160
Q

What are the benchmarks for an extrication

A

Extrication has begun
Patient removed
Extrication complete

161
Q

Refers to the electrical current that remains inside of a battery even when it’s completely disconnected

A

Stranded energy

162
Q

When the stable state of batteries rapidly fails due to increased heat, the cell transitions from stable to unstable to failure of the cell

A

Thermal runaway

163
Q

Vehicles consisting of a fully electric powertrain that is powered solely by an electric motor fueled by rechargeable batteries

A

Battery electric vehicles

164
Q

Low voltage wire loops that emergency responders can cut safely to disconnect high voltage systems from an electric vehicle

A

Cut loops

165
Q

Vehicles combining an internal combustion engine with an electric motor

A

Hybrid electric vehicles

166
Q

This will have no impact on an HEV fire where the battery is involved

A

Foam

167
Q

Venting/hissing sounds, electrolyte bubbling from battery, off-gassing battery vapors are all signs of what

A

Impending thermal runaway

168
Q

How far should the keys of an electric vehicle be moved away from the vehicle

A

At least 16 feet

169
Q

What can still be active after disconnecting the 12 volt batteries and for how long?

A

Safety restraints and airbags for up to 5 minutes

170
Q

This makes it impossible for an electric vehicle to drive

A

Emergency plug

171
Q

What is different about lithium-ion battery car fires

A

They require a large amount of water for extinguishment

172
Q

How long after an EV fire should the vehicle be checked for thermal runaway and what temps should the vehicle be below

A

1 hour after
Temps below 260

173
Q

If you need guidance to ensure the EV is safe to release out of your care who can you call? What is the number

A

Energy security agency
1-855-372-7233

174
Q

How often will hydrants be routinely inspected per SOG

A

Twice a year

175
Q

Who is responsible for communicating hydrant OOS info water purveyors and in service info to Fire Rescue

A

Fire marshal’s office

176
Q

What are the requirements for a fire hydrant

A

7’6” clearance in front and sides
4’ clearance in rear
Center of steamer cap 18” from ground

177
Q

What color road reflector indicates a hydrant or a fire well

A

Blue

178
Q

Each hydrant number issued will be broken down as follows:

A

City ID - Fire zone - Fire grid - Map ID

179
Q

What city only needs to service their hydrants once a year

A

Deerfield

180
Q

In Deerfield who is responsible for running a crystal report at the end of each month

A

Captain of Platform 102 for each shift

181
Q

All fire wells will be routinely inspected every

A

6 months

182
Q

Who is responsible for communicating fire well OOS information

A

Fire prevention admin

183
Q

All apparatus shall be washed and waxed on

A

First Tuesday of every month

184
Q

This form allows for a detailed explanation of the problem or suspected problem of a vehicle

A

Vehicle repairs needed form

185
Q

List the wind speed guidelines for response for:
Sustained wind speed < 50 mph
Sustained wind speed > 35 mph
Sustained wind speed > 50 but < 75 mph
Sustained wind speed > 75 mph

A

1 - normal response
2 - no aerial ladders
3 - response only to imminent life/property loss
4 - no responses

186
Q

What radio channel should be used for units responding to the airport for an incident

A

JOPS 11

187
Q

In the event of radio failure at the airport, all emergency vehicles shall be controlled by who

A

Air traffic control tower

188
Q

What do these light signals mean at the airport:
Steady green
Steady red
Flashing red
Flashing white

A

1 - proceed
2 - stop clear of runway
3 - clear taxiway/runway
4 - turn around and return to originating location

189
Q

For transitional attack, what angle is the stream directed into the window and for how long

A

65-80 degrees
15 seconds

190
Q

Where would the placards be for CNG and LPG be on vehicles

A

Gas cap
Rear bumper

191
Q

What color cables should we avoid for hybrid and electric vehicles

A

Black
Blue
Orange
Yellow

192
Q

How much water is needed for hybrid, electric, and lithium ion/impending thermal runaway

A

1,000
2,500
Up to 30,000

193
Q

What 2 people does a battalion notify for active shooter/hostile situations

A

Fire chief
Staff duty officer

194
Q

How many inches does an airbag deploy for passenger, driver, and side

A

20
10
5-10

195
Q

What is the psi in the canisters for airbags

A

3,000 psi

196
Q

When would a fire well be out of service

A

Less than 500 gpm
Doesn’t draft water in 60 seconds
Has to clear sand and debris within minutes

197
Q

Greenish yellowish smoke indicates

A

Back draft

198
Q

A less experienced FF is defined as

A

Probationary
<2 years on job
FF that requires remediation

199
Q

Notification of an employee’s evaluation will be sent via Target solutions how many days prior

A

30 and 14 days prior to due date

200
Q

The body of an SOG will always begin with

A

The purpose

201
Q

The remainder of a SOG body will include

A

General info
Definitions
Responsibilities
Procedures

202
Q

What are the 4 moderated discussions for a PIA in order

A

Incident overview
Positive outcomes
Areas of improvement
Recommendations

203
Q

Daily morning briefings will be conducted when

A

Between 8-9:30

204
Q

This requires employers to provide reasonable break time for nursing mothers to pump. For how long?

A

Patient protection and Affordable care act
Up to 1 year

205
Q

What group do we utilize for customer satisfaction review process

A

Baldridge group

206
Q

Logistics has utilized a web-based ordering system since ____. When were uniforms able to be ordered online

A

2006
October of 2015

207
Q

Station orders should be placed when

A

Prior to Monday morning of the delivery week

208
Q

What is the benchmark for alarm handling

A

90 seconds

209
Q

What is the benchmark for turnout time for EMS and Fire related incidents

A

60 sec for EMS
80 sec for Fire

210
Q

What is the benchmark for total response time for EMS and Fire incidents

A

6 min for EMS
6 min 20 sec for Fire

211
Q

What are the 3 phases of peer support

A

Pre-crisis preparation
Acute-crisis
Post-crisis

212
Q

The goal is to get a peer support team out within _____ of request

A

2 hours

213
Q

Leading cause of on duty deaths in fire service

A

Cardiovascular disease

214
Q

The process of gathering information regarding performance measures

A

Quality management

215
Q

BLS and ALS patients will require how many sets of vitals

A

BLS 2
ALS 3

216
Q

What is the ESO acronym used for and what does it mean

A

Narrative for report
Events, scene, outcomes

217
Q

All extended complex incidents will follow what format? What does it stand for

A

FIRES format
Found
Incident strategy
Resource allocation
Effect
Summary

218
Q

What is the only approved leather fire helmet

A

TL-2 with phenix bend

219
Q

Personnel in rehab shall rest for at least

A

15 minutes

220
Q

If after ____ of rest and oxygen the heart rate does not decrease to below ____ of target rate what should be done

A

5 minutes
90%
Responder relieved of duty for remainder of shift

221
Q

What steps should be followed when using a TIC

A

Scan ceiling
Scan floor for victims
Scan across for search/attack team members

222
Q

Fire that is moving against wind or downslope

A

Backing fire

223
Q

Fire that is carried from tree to tree above the ground

A

Crown fire

224
Q

Long narrow strips extending out from the main fire

A

Fingers

225
Q

The general area of a working wildland fire

A

Fire line

226
Q

The leading part of the fire that is moving with the wind and does most damage

A

Head

227
Q

Area of fire where it originated

A

Heel

228
Q

What does LCES stand for

A

Lookout
Communication
Escape routes
Safety zones

229
Q

Generally the hottest flank of the fire

A

Right flank

230
Q

Effect of burning materials carried by the wind ahead of main body of fire

A

Spot fire

231
Q

What are the 3 main influences of wild fire behavior

A

Weather
Fuel
Topography

232
Q

Considered a road, terrain feature or waterway that would prevent fire from wrapping back around working crews

A

Anchor point

233
Q

What are the different types of task force

A

Light
Medium
Heavy
Special

234
Q

What areas can and can’t we respond to during civil disturbances

A

Restricted area with DLE escort
Denied areas we will not respond at all

235
Q

What incident types do we use to document severe weather and special incidents on FireRMS

A

800 - severe weather
900 - special

236
Q

What area do we set up for triage, treatment, and transport

A

Casualty collection point
Cold zone

237
Q

A rescue task force is comprised of

A

2 FR
4 DLE

238
Q

What acronym do we use for active shooter and intentional mass casualty incidents

A

THREAT
Threat suppression
Hemorrhage control
Rapid Extraction
Assessment by EMS
Transport

239
Q

If confined to an air conditioned vehicle, the canine shall not be left unattended for how long

A

Periods exceeding 20 minutes

240
Q

How do you recognize the radio system is no longer working

A

Foghorn-like sound every 5-10 sec
Radio displays “out of range”
Verified on several other radios

241
Q

What radio channel do we switch to if normal radio communications system is not working

A

8TAC91 (statewide mutual aid network)

242
Q

Should an incident require a secondary tactical talk group what channel is highly recommended

A

VRSD

243
Q

What are the default emergency failure channels for DLE

A

8TAC92
8TAC93
8TAC94

244
Q

What are the primary and secondary station alerting systems

A

Primary - Station tones (Zetron alerting system)
Secondary - Pagers

245
Q

What is the initial assignment for surface water rescues

A

1 engine
2 rescues
Battalion
Mutual aid dive team
TRT

246
Q

What is a datum point in regards to surface water rescue

A

Last known point of entry

247
Q

What is the cone of probability in regards to surface water rescue

A

Drift up to 3 feet in any direction per foot of depth

248
Q

What are cross bearings in regards to surface water rescue

A

Fixed point used as a reference to create a sighting

249
Q

This is used to anchor/mark a spot of interest

A

Pelican float

250
Q

What is the expected service life of AutoPulse baterries

A

100 charge cycles or 2-4 years

251
Q

What should be done if a black seal is inadvertently damaged or lost

A

Notify Battalion and EMS incident report generated

252
Q

What are the seal colors for Etomidate, Fentanyl, Versed, and Ketamine

A

Etomidate - grey/blue
Fentanyl - brown
Versed - green
Ketamine - purple

253
Q

When a controlled substance is set to expire who does the company officer notify and when

A

Battalion
seven days prior to expiration

254
Q

Persons on scene who deny injury or illness shall be listed as ____ and have what information added to general narrative

A

Subjects
Name
DOB
Home address
Phone #
Statement person denies injury/illness

255
Q

What is the only approved device for restraint

A

Posey T-A-T restraint system

256
Q

All patients restrained shall be monitored continuously by what methods

A

4 or 12 lead
O2 sat
BP
Mental status

257
Q

How many paramedics required to accompany restrained patient

A

At least 2

258
Q

This is an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof

A

Sentinel event

259
Q

How far are we staging for DLE to notify “safe to enter”

A

1 to 2 blocks away

260
Q

What is the pneumonic for start triage and what does it mean

A

RPM
Respirations
Perfusion
Mental status

261
Q

When do we use JUMP Start triage

A

8 years or younger

262
Q

For a MCI, command will designate what officers

A

Triage
Treatment
Transport
Staging

263
Q

Upon notification of MCI what does MEDCOM do

A

Gather each hospital’s capability and relay to transport officer

264
Q

What are the different levels of MCI

A

Level 1 - 5-10
Level 2 - 11-20
Level 3 - 21-100
Level 4 - 101-1000
Level 5 - 1000+

265
Q

This is a specified combination of the same kind and type of resources

A

Strike team

266
Q

This is a group of resources with common communications and a leader

A

Task force

267
Q

This is a team of personnel assigned to triage to move victims from incident

A

Litter bearer

268
Q

Medications must be stored at temperatures between

A

55 to 85 degrees

269
Q

Where are we not allowed to store medications

A

Food cooling devices (refrigerators, coolers, lunchbox)

270
Q

Personnel shall record the minimum and maximum temperatures on the control log when

A

0800 and 1600 everyday

271
Q

What is EMSTARS

A

Florida EMS Tracking and Reporting system

272
Q

This is the measure of how quickly levels return to normal

A

Half life

273
Q

What is the half life of carboxyhemoglobin

A

Approx. 5 hours

274
Q

What is the type of CO monitor we use

A

Airspace AI-2000

275
Q

The Airspace AI-2000 will alarm at what levels of CO

A

30ppm (flashing lights)
120 ppm (92 decibel audio alarm)

276
Q

If an employee is exposed what form needs to be filled out and by when

A

DWC-1 Form
Within 24 hours of incident

277
Q

The supervisor of the exposed employee needs to fill out what form and by when

A

AP 24 form
Within 24 hours of incident

278
Q

Standard for ARFF operations and procedures

A

NFPA 402

279
Q

Standard for ARFF minimum requirements

A

NFPA 403

280
Q

Standard for minimum requirements for career and volunteer FF

A

NFPA 1001

281
Q

Standard for live fire training

A

NFPA 1403

282
Q

How many hours does ISO require for company training

A

16 hours per month
192 hours total per year

283
Q

How many hours does ISO require for Officer training

A

12 hours per year

284
Q

What are the different levels of training and who conducts them

A

Level 1 Training division
Level 2 Station level
Level 3 Online training

285
Q

How often do we do air samples for all in service breathing air compressors

A

Quarterly

286
Q

What type of air do we use to fill SCBA bottles

A

Grade E compressed air

287
Q

What are the top middle and bottom portions for on the red tags

A

Top - remains with piece of equipment
Middle - used by logistics
Bottom - placed on cork board for all equipment sent in for repair

288
Q

All personnel shall actively monitor the radio between

A

0700 and 2000 hours

289
Q

What is our primary FireCom channel

A

BCF D2

290
Q

What station is the Tender located

A

Station 21
Tender 21

291
Q

M cylinders should be replaced when they reach

A

400psi or less

292
Q

Where are the 2 emergency only oxygen cascade systems we use

A

Logistics
North Fire Training Annex

293
Q

What must be communicated to to air rescue by on scene personnel

A

Patient status
Weight
Airway compromise/RSI
Patient combative/suicidal/prisoner

294
Q

What is the optimal landing zone size

A

100ft x 100ft

LT Test (5 decks)

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