Social Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

Which is the most important principle of medical ethics?

A

autonomy generally supersedes all else

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2
Q

A patient has an advanced directive indicating he would like to be resuscitated in the event of cardiac death. However, during this hospitalization he has been found to have capacity and communicates the desire for DNR. He then goes unconscious and codes, what is the best next step?

A

fulfill the DNR request because it is the last known wish of the patient, which should be followed even if there is contradicting documentation filled out before

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3
Q

What is the order of decision making in health care?

A
  1. last known wishes of the patient, verbal or documented
  2. advanced directive that includes an agent to carry out wishes
  3. living will
  4. persons clearly familiar with the patient’s wish (e.g. a friend who can prove she knew the patient’s wishes)
  5. family (spouse first then adult children)
  6. if the family is split, go to an ethics council or court order
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4
Q

What role does the ethics committee play in medical decision making?

A
  • resolving an unclear advance directive
  • resolving issues of medical futility when an individual asks for tests and treatments that may have no benefit
  • resolving disputes between family members with the same “rank” of decision making
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5
Q

Rule #1 for health care decision making is what?

A

honor the last known wishes of the patient regardless, even if this is a wish expressed verbally in contradiction to an earlier written wish

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6
Q

What role does a court order play in medical decision making?

A

this is useful in resolving issues on which the family is in disagreement and an ethics committee cannot reach a conclusion

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7
Q

Minors have what medical decision-making capacity?

A

they are able to consent for contraception, prenatal care, substance abuse treatment, and STD treatment

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8
Q

What happens if a patient is declared brain dead and the family would like to continue care?

A

brain death is legal death and as such, a physician does not need consent to stop therapy

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9
Q

Who must obtain consent?
When is consent needed?
Who has decision making capacity for unborn babies?
What modes of interaction are acceptable for obtaining consent?

A
  • the person performing the procedure must get consent
  • consent is needed for each individual procedure
  • mothers have the decision making capacity for their unborn children
  • all modes are acceptable, including consent gained via telephone encounter
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10
Q

What does a DNR include? How does this affect medical care?

A
  • a DNR only means that if the patient dies, he or she should not undergo resuscitation
  • these patients can still receive antibiotics, chemotherapy, and even surgery
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11
Q

What is the law of double effect?

A

medications can be given that will hasten death as long as this is simply an adverse effect and the intent is to relieve pain

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12
Q

What is futile care?

A

futile care is that which will offer no benefit and the physician is not obligated to provide it even if a patient or family member is request it; go to the ethics committee to resolve this issue

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13
Q

Donation of which tissues can be financially compensated?

A

donation of renewable tissues like sperm, eggs, and blood products

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14
Q

True or false, family members can refuse organ donation even if the patient has an organ donor card?

A

true

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15
Q

When can confidentiality be broken?

A

when there is danger to others, including transmissible diseases, and when there is a court order

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16
Q

From whom can physicians accept gifts?

A

small gifts can be accepted from patients as long as they are not tied to specific requests; however, gifts are never acceptable from industries such as drug companies

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17
Q

Which types of abuse can be reported without consent? Which require consent?

A
  • elderly and child abuse can be reported without or against the consent of the patient
  • domestic violence requires consent of the patient
18
Q

How should you handle impaired drivers?

A

suggest the patient find another means of transportation but do not confiscate keys, refuse to let the individual leave, or hospitalize the patient

19
Q

What is the answer to any torture question and ethics?

A

the answer is “no” to any level of involvement, even if the role is to protect the patient against permanent harm

20
Q

What do sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV indicate?

A
  • sensitivity: if you have disease, will you have a positive test?
  • specificity: if you don’t have disease, will you have a negative test?
  • PPV: if you have a positive test, do you have disease?
  • NPV: if you have a negative test, do you not have disease?
21
Q

What are the SNOUT/SPIN mnemonics?

A
  • sensitive tests rule out disease with a negative result

- specific tests rule in disease with a positive result

22
Q

How are sensitivity and specificity calculated?

A
  • sensitivity = TP/(TP + FN)

- specificity = TN/(TN + FP)

23
Q

What question does sensitivity answer and how is it calculated?

A

sensitivity answers “if you have disease, will you have a positive test” and it is calculated as TP/(TP + FN)

24
Q

What questions does specificity answer and how is it calculated?

A

specificity answers “if you don’t have disease, will you have a negative test” and it is calculated as TN/(TN + FP)

25
Q

How does prevalence of a disease affect NPV and PPV?

A

as prevalence increases, the PPV increases while the NPV declines

26
Q

What is the absolute risk reduction and the relative risk reduction?

A
  • ARR is the absolute difference in mortality between groups (3% - 2% = 1% ARR)
  • RRR is the difference divided by the mortality in the control group (1% / 3% = 33% RRR)
27
Q

With normal distribution, how many data points are included by 1, 2, and 3 standard deviations?

A

68, 95, and 99.7 percent of data points

28
Q

What is the central limit theorem?

A

the idea that as you collect more data, it tends to collect around the center of the graph; this is represented by the SEM = ó/sqrt(n)

29
Q

What does the confidence interval tell you? How can it be tightened?

A
  • it tells you how scattered or precise the data is and is essentially 2 times the SEM
  • because it is related to the SEM, increasing the sample size (n) will decrease the CI
  • CI = 2SEM = 2ó/sqrt(n) and for every quadrupling of the sample size, the CI is cut in half
30
Q

What is the relationship between, mean, median, and mode on a right-skewed distribution?

A
  • mode is farthest left
  • median is in the middle
  • mean is the right
31
Q

What makes a data set skewed?

A
  • when the mean is different from the median

- the direction of the mean tells you the direction of the skew

32
Q

How are incidence and prevalence defined?

A
  • incidence is the number of new cases per unit time

- prevalence is the number of existing cases at any particular time

33
Q

What is the difference between reliability, validity, accuracy, and precision?

A
  • reliability: reproducibility
  • validity: same as accuracy
  • accuracy: combination of sensitive and specific
  • precision: degree of clustering, lack of randomness
34
Q

What is meant by an accurate test?

A

this is a test that is both sensitive and specific

35
Q

What is a cohort study? How do we analyze it?

A
  • it is a prospective observational study that starts with individuals of known exposure and looks for disease
  • analyzed using relative risk
36
Q

What is a case-control study? How do we analyze it?

A
  • it is a retrospective observational study that starts with individuals of known disease status and looks for prior exposures
  • analyzed using odds ratio
37
Q

What is the difference between relative risk and odds ratio?

A

relative risk is used to analyze a cohort study while odds ratios are used to analyze case-control studies

38
Q

What is the Hawthorne effect? How is it eliminated?

A
  • the form of bias in which individuals alter their behavior because they know they are being watched
  • eliminated by using a control group and blinding both investigators and participants
39
Q

What are the following types of bias:

  • lead time
  • ascertainment/sampling
  • nonresponse
  • berkson
  • neyman/prevalence
  • attrition
  • observer
  • reporting
  • surveillance
A
  • lead time: early detection is confused with improved survival
  • ascertainment: study population differs from target population
  • nonresponse: error if nonresponders differ in some way from responders
  • berkson: hospital-based patients lead to different results than for target population
  • neyman: exposures long before assessment misses diseased patinets that died or recovered earlier
  • attrition: loss of participants to follow up
  • observer: observers misclassify data due to personal differences
  • reporting: subjects change rporting due to social stigmatization attached
  • surveillance: risk factor itself causes increased monitoring, which increases probability of identifying a disease
40
Q

What are type I and type II errors?

A
  • type I error is also known as alpha and is the risk of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is really true; it is the risk of a false positive
  • type II error is also known as beta and is the risk of rejecting the alternative hypothesis when it is really true; it is the risk of a false negative
41
Q

Which medical errors require reporting to the patient?

A

all medical errors, regardless of whether there were any adverse outcomes, should be reported to the patient

42
Q

Describe a study that uses a factorial design. Describe a study that uses cross-over design.

A
  • factorial involves randomizing patients to different interventions with study of two or more variables
  • cross-over involves patients being randomized to one of two different interventions for a period of time and then switching to the other group after the period is up