Social

Question 1

Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction focuses on which of the following?

A. attitude similarity

B. behavior intention

C. physical attractiveness

D. reciprocity

Answer 1

A. attitude similarity

Question 2

The “mere exposure effect” is most useful for explaining which of the following?

A. social loafing

B. interpersonal attraction

C. antisocial behavior

D. conformity to group norms

Answer 2

B. interpersonal attraction

Question 3

Research on the “pratfall effect” has shown that, when a person makes an embarrassing mistake or blunder, this makes:

A. a competent person less attractive.

B. a competent person more attractive.

C. an average person more attractive.

D. a competent or average person less attractive.

Answer 3

B. a competent person more attractive.

Question 4

Aronson and Linder’s (1965) gain-loss theory predicts that we tend to:

A. forget the reasons why we were originally attracted to people we have close relationships with.

B. be affected more by the negative behaviors of people we have close relationships with than by their positive behaviors.

C. have stronger emotional reactions to people we’ve known for a shorter (versus a longer) period of time.

D. like others most when they first evaluate us negatively and, as they get to know us, evaluate us positively.

Answer 4

D. like others most when they first evaluate us negatively and, as they get to know us, evaluate us positively.

Question 5

According to Milgram (1974), subjects in his study were willing to obey authority:

A. only until they realized that doing so caused harm to another person.

B. only because they believed their peers had already done so.

C. because they were concerned about the negative consequences of not doing so.

D. because they didn’t believe they were responsible for their actions.

Answer 5

D. because they didn’t believe they were responsible for their actions.

Question 6

Psychological reactance is associated with which of the following?

A. feeling that one’s personal freedom is being threatened by a request or demand

B. obeying an authority’s orders when doing so has harmful consequences

C. imagining alternative outcomes that could have happened but didn’t

D. conforming to the group norm to avoid the group’s rejection or ridicule

Answer 6

A. feeling that one’s personal freedom is being threatened by a request or demand

Question 7

When making calls for a local charity, Maggie starts out by asking a potential donor for a donation of $50.00. When the donor refuses, she then asks if the donor can donate $10.00. Maggie’s strategy illustrates which of the following?

A. insufficient justification

B. psychological reactance

C. door-in-the-face technique

D. foot-in-the-door technique

Answer 7

C. door-in-the-face technique

Question 8

Your co-worker complains when the boss gives her a new task to complete. According to Kelley’s (1967) covariation model, you’re most likely to attribute your co-worker’s dissatisfaction with her new task assignment to external causes (e.g., to the difficulty or tediousness of the task) if you determine that:

A. consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness are all high.

B. consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness are all low.

C. consensus and distinctiveness are low but consistency is high.

D. consistency is low but consensus and distinctiveness are high.

Answer 8

A. consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness are all high.

Question 9

You are exhibiting the actor-observer effect when you:

A. overuse base rate information when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people and underuse that information when determining the cause of your own behaviors.

B. underuse base rate information when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people and overuse that information when determining the cause of your own behaviors.

C. attribute your successful behaviors to dispositional factors and your unsuccessful behaviors to situational factors.

D. attribute your own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of other people to dispositional factors.

Answer 9

D. attribute your own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of other people to dispositional factors.

Question 10

The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to:

A. overestimate the role of dispositional causes of desirable outcomes and underestimate the role of situational causes of undesirable outcomes.

B. overestimate the role of situational causes of desirable outcomes and underestimate the role of dispositional causes of undesirable outcomes.

C. overestimate the role of dispositional factors when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people.

D. overestimate the role of situational factors when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people.

Answer 10

C. overestimate the role of dispositional factors when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people.

Question 11

_____________ are “mental shortcuts” that allow us to make quick judgments about people or events but can lead to inaccurate conclusions.

A. Mnemonic devices

B. Prototypes

C. Cognitive schemas

D. Heuristics

Answer 11

D. heuristics

Question 12

A customer who is in a long line behind you at the checkout counter says, “no matter what line I get into, it’s always the slowest one.” This is an example of which of the following?

A. illusory correlation

B. base rate fallacy

C. sleeper effect

D. counterfactual thinking

Answer 12

A. illusory correlation

Question 13

A college sophomore has decided to drop out of college at the end of the semester “to see the world,” and she prefers talking to friends and family members who support her decision and avoids talking to those who think it’s a bad idea. This illustrates which of the following?

A. contrast error

B. self-serving bias

C. confirmation bias

D. false consensus effect

Answer 13

C. confirmation bias

Question 14

When relying on the representativeness heuristic to make judgments, we:

A. distort disconfirming information.

B. ignore base rates.

C. focus on previous errors.

D. focus on socially desirable alternatives.

Answer 14

B. ignore base rates

Question 15

Ajzen and Fishbein’s (2005) theory of planned behavior predicts that which of the following is affected by a person’s attitude toward a behavior, what the person thinks others believe he/she should do, and the person’s confidence in his/her ability to perform the behavior?

A. resistance to persuasion

B. level of cognitive dissonance

C. freedom of choice

D. behavior intention

Answer 15

D. behavior intention

Question 16

According to Heider’s (1958) balance theory, the relationships among which of the following can be either balanced or unbalanced?

A. attitudes, behaviors, and cognitions

B. a person, another person, and an attitude object

C. behavior intention, subjective norms, and perceived behavior control

D. a person, place, and thing

Answer 16

B. a person, another person, and an attitude object

Question 17

When discussing some of the topics that were covered in yesterday’s social psychology class, Robert tells Renee that he thinks it’s true that people learn about their own attitudes and emotions in the same way they draw conclusions about the attitudes and emotions of other people – that is, by observing outward behaviors and the situations in which those behaviors occur. Robert’s statement is consistent with which of the following?

A. self-perception theory

B. social judgment theory

C. cognitive dissonance theory

D. balance theory

Answer 17

A. self-perception theory

Question 18

The elaboration likelihood model (Petty & Cacioppo, 1981) distinguishes between:

A. central and peripheral processing routes.

B. latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and noncommitment.

C. alpha and omega strategies.

D. congruent and incongruent states.

Answer 18

A. central and peripheral processing routes.

Question 19

Lola has just received text messages from both Alfred and Alphonse, asking her to the junior prom. Lola likes both of them very much and has a hard time deciding which one to choose. After choosing Alphonse, Lola decides that she really doesn’t like Alfred all that much. The change in Lola’s feelings toward Alfred is best explained by which of the following?

A. elaboration likelihood model

B. self-serving bias

C. attitude inoculation

D. cognitive dissonance theory

Answer 19

D. cognitive dissonance theory

Question 20

Social judgment theory (Sherif & Hovland, 1961) distinguishes between:

A. central and peripheral processing routes.

B. latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and noncommitment.

C. alpha and omega strategies.

D. congruent and incongruent states

Answer 20

B. latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and noncommitment.

Question 21

The results of a study indicate that the different effects of high-credible and low-credible communicators on the attitudes of the recipients of a message faded over time because the recipients remembered the message but forgot its source. These results provide support for which of the following?

A. attitude inoculation

B. the sleeper effect

C. the contrast effect

D. psychological reactance

Answer 21

B. the sleeper effect

Question 22

When people will be exposed to arguments that address two sides of a controversial issue, a recency effect is most likely to occur when:

A. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.

B. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.

C. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.

D. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.

Answer 22

C. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.

Question 23

The meta-analysis conducted by Dittmar, Bond, Hurst, and Kasser (2014) found that materialism is most strongly related to which of the following?

A. risky health behaviors

B. compulsive buying behaviors

C. positive self-appraisal

D. negative affect

Answer 23

B. compulsive buying behaviors

Question 24

As described by McGuire (1973), attitude inoculation is useful for:

A. changing a person’s attitudes.

B. strengthening the link between a person’s attitudes and behaviors.

C. helping people evaluate their own attitudes and behaviors.

D. reducing a person’s susceptibility to persuasion.

Answer 24

D. reducing a person’s susceptibility to persuasion.

Question 25

As described by Steiner (1972), when working on a __________ problem-solving task, each group member submits his/her solution to the problem and the group chooses the best solution from those submitted.

A. conjunctive

B. disjunctive

C. compensatory

D. discretionary

Answer 25

B. Disjunctive

Question 26

Social inhibition is more likely than social facilitation to occur when:

A. the crowd is large.

B. the crowd is small.

C. the task is easy.

D. the task is difficult.

Answer 26

D. the task is difficult

Question 27

The risk for social loafing is greatest when:

A. the group is large and only the final group product will be evaluated.

B. the group is large and each group member’s contribution will be evaluated.

C. the group is small and only the final group product will be evaluated.

D. the group is small and each group member’s contribution will be evaluated.

Answer 27

A. the group is large and only the final group product will be evaluated.

Question 28

Albert is usually a quiet person who abhors violence but, when he attends a large political rally and many of the protesters start yelling loudly and acting violently, Albert becomes uncharacteristically loud and aggressive. Albert’s behavior at the rally is best explained by which of the following?

A. social facilitation

B. bystander effect

C. groupthink

D. deindividuation

Answer 28

D. deindividuation

Question 29

According to the infrahumanization theory of Leyens and colleagues (2007), members of an ingroup tend to attribute which of the following to members of outgroups?

A. more negative primary emotions

B. fewer positive and negative secondary emotions

C. more primary and secondary emotions

D. fewer positive and negative primary emotions

Answer 29

B. fewer positive and negative secondary emotions

Question 30

According to terror management theory (TMT), which of the following function as defenses against the existential terror caused by awareness of one’s own mortality?

A. cultural encapsulation and self-control

B. compartmentalization and self-identification

C. cultural worldview and self-esteem

D. conditions of worth and self-monitoring

Answer 30

C. cultural worldview and self-esteem

Question 31

Sherif (1966) found that superordinate goals:

A. increased resistance to persuasion.

B. reduced intergroup hostility and competition.

C. increased altruistic motives for providing assistance.

D. reduced social loafing.

Answer 31

B. reduced intergroup hostility and competition.

Question 32

Diffusion of responsibility increases as the:

A. similarity between a victim and the bystander increases.

B. the magnitude of stimulus overload decreases.

C. the number of bystanders increases.

D. bystanders’ beliefs about their competence to help decreases.

Answer 32

C. the number of bystanders increases.

Question 33

Microaggressions are a type of __________ racism.

A. intrapersonal

B. interpersonal

C. institutional

D. structural

Answer 33

B. interpersonal

Question 34

__________ refers to a bystander’s decision not to intervene in an emergency situation because the bystander believes the inactivity of other bystanders is due to their conclusion that the situation does not constitute an emergency.

A. The overjustification effect

B. The false consensus effect

C. Audience inhibition

D. Pluralistic ignorance

Answer 34

D. Pluralistic ignorance

Question 35

Realistic conflict theory focuses on conflicts between groups that are due to:

A. status inequality.

B. competition for scarce resources.

C. differences in basic values.

D. differences in political power.

Answer 35

B. competition for scarce resources.

Question 36

Allport (1954) identified four factors that increase the likelihood that intergroup contact will reduce hostility and conflict between the groups. These factors include all of the following except:

A. fair competition

B. equal status

C. superordinate goals

D. support of authorities

Answer 36

A. fair competition