Organizational Flashcards

1
Q

An advantage of behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) is that they:

A. are easy to develop.

B. are aligned with organizational values and goals.

C. provide an objective (versus subjective) measure of job performance.

D. provide information that’s useful for performance feedback.

A

D. provide information that’s useful for performance feedback.

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2
Q

Frame-of-reference training is useful for which of the following?

A. improving the accuracy of job performance ratings

B. improving the accuracy of job selection techniques

C. ensuring that trainees apply newly acquired skills to job tasks

D. ensuring the accuracy of job analysis results

A

A. improving the accuracy of job performance ratings

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3
Q

A positive halo error occurs when:

A. a rater gives all employees high ratings on a measure of job performance, regardless of their actual performance.

B. a rater who just rated a below-average employee gives a subsequent employee higher performance ratings than she deserves.

C. a rater consistently rates employees who seem similar to him more favorably than employees who seem dissimilar.

D. a rater who views one performance dimension as being most important rates employees who score high on that dimension high on all other dimensions.

A

D. a rater who views one performance dimension as being most important rates employees who score high on that dimension high on all other dimensions.

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4
Q

____________ is occurring when ratings on a measure of job performance are affected by non-performance factors.

A. Criterion contamination

B. Criterion deficiency

C. The contrast error

D. The halo effect

A

A. Criterion contamination

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5
Q

Which of the following is used to help establish comparable worth?

A. job specification

B. needs analysis

C. organizational analysis

D. job evaluation

A

D. job evaluation

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6
Q

To identify the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) that workers must have to perform a job successfully, you would conduct a:

A. job evaluation.

B. job analysis.

C. needs analysis.

D. task analysis.

A

B. job analysis.

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7
Q

When rating employee performance, a supervisor’s ratings of one employee are often biased in an upward/ downward way due to the supervisor’s comparison of that employee to another employee the supervisor just evaluated. The supervisor is exhibiting which of the following?

A. halo error

B. leniency/strictness bias

C. contrast error

D. recency effect

A

C. contrast error

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8
Q

The “forced distribution” is a(n):

A. absolute measure of job performance.

B. relative measure of job performance.

C. worker-oriented method of job analysis.

D. work-oriented method of job analysis.

A

B. relative measure of job performance.

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9
Q

A psych is hired to assist with the development of an assessment center that will be used to hire and promote managerial level employees. The psychologist will most likely recommend including which of the following in the assessment center?

A. leaderless group discussion and in-basket exercise

B. in-basket exercise and vestibule training

C. cross-training and business games

D. realistic job preview and job rotation

A

A. leaderless group discussion and in-basket exercise

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10
Q

An organizational psych was hired by a large mental health clinic to develop a structured interview that will be used to hire clinical psychs. Qs included in the interview ask applicants to describe how they would respond to hypothetical job-related situations that are similar to those they’re likely to encounter on-the-job. The psych has dev a :

A. a situational interview
B. a behavioral interview
C. a case interview
D. an informational interview

A

A. a situational interview

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11
Q

Research evaluating the validity of general mental ability tests as predictors of job performance has generally found that they are:

A. valid only when used in conjunction with other selection techniques.

B. valid only when the performance measure is quantitative (versus qualitative).

C. about equally valid for members of all racial/ethnic groups.

D. the most valid predictors across different jobs and job performance measures.

A

D. the most valid predictors across different jobs and job performance measures.

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12
Q

Which of the following techniques is being used when job applicants must obtain a score above the cutoff score on one selection technique in order for the next selection technique to be administered to them?

A. multiple regression

B. multiple hurdles

C. multiple cutoff

D. multiple baseline

A

B. multiple hurdles

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13
Q

One problem with empirically developed biographical information blanks (BIBs) is that:

A. they often provide inaccurate information because supervisors are not adequately trained in their scoring and interpretation.

B. they often provide inaccurate information because of the ambiguity of many of the questions.

C. applicants often have a negative reaction to them because some of the questions seem to be irrelevant to job performance.

D. supervisors dislike them because they resent having to compare job applicants to each other.

A

C. applicants often have a negative reaction to them because some of the questions seem to be irrelevant to job performance.

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14
Q

Minority group members tend to obtain lower scores than majority group members on a selection test, even though both groups do equally well in terms of job performance. The difference in selection test scores results in a smaller proportion of minority group members being hired. As described in the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection, this is an ex of:

A. criterion deficiency.

B. test unfairness.

C. differential selection.

D. predictor contamination.

A

B. test unfairness.

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15
Q

When evaluating the adequacy of a newly developed selection test, a test developer would use the 80% (four-fifths) rule to determine:

A. the test’s positive hit rate.

B. the appropriate cutoff score for the test.

C. if the test is likely to have an adverse impact.

D. if the test has adequate criterion-related validity.

A

C. if the test is likely to have an adverse impact.

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16
Q

The Taylor-Russell Tables provide an estimate of a predictor’s incremental validity for various combinations of which of the following?

A. the number of applicants, number of job openings, and positive hit rate

B. the number of applicants, number of job openings, and predictor cutoff score

C. the base rate, selection ratio, and predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient

D. the base rate, positive hit rate, and predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient

A

C. the base rate, selection ratio, and predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient

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17
Q

The research has found that general mental ability tests are good predictors of job performance and that administering a structured interview, integrity test, or work sample in conjunction with a general mental ability test increases the accuracy of prediction. In other words, adding a second selection technique to a general mental ability test has an effect on which of the following?

A. incremental validity

B. construct validity

C. differential validity

D. discriminant validity

A

A. incremental validity

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18
Q

A new selection test will most likely increase decision-making accuracy when the base rate is:

A. 0.

B. .20.

C. .50.

D. .90.

A

C. .50.

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19
Q

A summative evaluation report is least likely to include information on the results of which of the following?

A. evaluability evaluation

B. economic evaluation

C. impact evaluation

D. outcome evaluation

A

A. evaluability evaluation

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20
Q

As described by the full-scope evaluation model (Dessinger & Moseley, 2010), which of the following is true about summative evaluation?

A. It’s conducted during training program development to determine if any changes are needed to meet the program’s goals.

B. It’s conducted immediately after a training program is delivered to determine if the program has achieved its goals.

C. It’s conducted several months after a training program is delivered to evaluate its long-term effects on the trainees and the organization.

D. It’s conducted during training program development and after the program is delivered to evaluate the adequacy of the evaluation process.

A

B. It’s conducted immediately after a training program is delivered to determine if the program has achieved its goals.

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21
Q

When creating a training program, it’s important to keep in mind that:

A. massed practice and whole-task training are more effective than distributed practice and part-task training for most tasks.

B. distributed practice and part-task training are more effective than massed practice and whole-task training for most tasks.

C. distributed practice is usually more effective than massed practice, but the effectiveness of whole- versus part-task training depends on the type of task.

D. whole-task training is usually more effective than part-task training, but the effectiveness of distributed versus massed practice depends on the type of task.

A

C. distributed practice is usually more effective than massed practice, but the effectiveness of whole- versus part-task training depends on the type of task.

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of Kirkpatrick’s (1998) four levels of training program evaluation?

A. results

B. reaction

C. application

D. learning

A

C. application

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23
Q

Which of the following is useful for ensuring that trainees will learn and retain newly acquired behaviors and be able to perform them successfully with little conscious effort?

A. distributed practice

B. massed practice

C. overtraining

D. overlearning

A

D. overlearning

24
Q

Which of the following best describes mentoring and coaching?

A. Both focus primarily on the acquisition of skills and knowledge but mentoring is more formal and task-oriented.

B. Both focus primarily on career development but coaching is more informal and relationship-oriented.

C. Mentoring focuses primarily on the acquisition of skills and knowledge, while coaching focuses primarily on career development.

D. Mentoring focuses primarily on career development, while coaching focuses primarily on the acquisition of skills and knowledge.

A

D. Mentoring focuses primarily on career development, while coaching focuses primarily on the acquisition of skills and knowledge.

25
Q

Vestibule training is a type of:

A. job rotation.

B. cross-training.

C. simulation training.

D. mentoring.

A

D. mentoring

26
Q

An organizational psychologist would conduct a(n) __________ to identify a company’s training needs.

A. needs analysis

B. competency analysis

C. job analysis

D. operations analysis

A

A. needs analysis

27
Q

Satisfaction and satisfactoriness are key concepts in which of the following theories?

A. Krumboltz’s social learning theory of career decision-making

B. Super’s self-concept theory of career development

C. Brousseau and Driver’s career concept model

D. Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment

A

D. Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment

28
Q

As defined by Holland (1985), differentiation refers to:

A. the match between a person’s personality and the characteristics of his/her work environment.

B. the degree to which a person’s personality type is clearly defined in terms of the RIASEC types.

C. the distinctiveness of the roles the person adopts at any point during his/her lifespan.

D. the degree to which a person’s vocational identity is consistent with his/her ego identity.

A

B. the degree to which a person’s personality type is clearly defined in terms of the RIASEC types.

29
Q

According to Tiedeman’s career decision-making model, career development involves two major phases. These are:

A. anticipation and implementation.

B. induction and implementation.

C. exploration and commitment.

D. anticipation and maintenance.

A

A. anticipation and implementation

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the six personality/environment types identified by Holland?

A. realistic

B. investigative

C. administrative

D. social

A

C. administrative

31
Q

According to Donald Super, career development involves five stages that occur over the lifespan. These stages include all of the following except:

A. establishment.

B. exploration.

C. maintenance.

D. anticipation.

A

D. anticipation

32
Q

Inputs, throughputs, and outputs are the key elements of:

A. Weber’s bureaucracy,

B. Taylor’s scientific management,

C. Katz and Kahn’s open-system theory.

D. McGregor’s Theory Y.

A

C. Katz and Kahn’s open-system theory.

33
Q

According to McGregor (1960), Theory X managers:

A. have a high need for power and a low need for affiliation.

B. match their leadership style to an employee’s career maturity.

C. believe that workers lack ambition and avoid taking responsibility.

D. communicate a positive vision for the future.

A

C. believe that workers lack ambition and avoid taking responsibility.

34
Q

An advocate of which of the following is most likely to recommend that time-and-motion studies be used to identify the most efficient way to perform a job?

A. Taylor’s scientific management

B. McGregor’s Theory Y

C. Katz and Kahn’s open-system theory

D. Herzberg’s two-factor theory

A

A. Taylor’s scientific management

35
Q

As described by Janis (1982), the symptoms of groupthink include all of the following except:

A. collective rationalization.

B. an illusion of moral superiority.

C. low group cohesiveness.

D. self-censorship.

A

C. low group cohesiveness.

36
Q

In organizations, decisions that rely on established rules and procedures are referred to as __________ decisions.

A. nonprogrammed

B. programmed

C. reactive

D. proactive

A

B. programmed

37
Q

According to Simon’s (1957) bounded rationality model, managers often “satisfice” when making decisions due to:

A. time restrictions and limited information.

B. their tendency to make decisions autocratically.

C. the lack of connection between their decisions and personal outcomes.

D. their tendency to make “middle-of-the-road” decisions.

A

A. time restrictions and limited information.

38
Q

Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing are stages of which of the following?

A. Ludema, Cooperrider, and Barrett’s appreciative inquiry

B. Lewin’s model of planned change

C. Schein’s process consultation

D. Herzberg’s job enrichment

A

B. Lewin’s model of planned change

39
Q

Members of self-managed work teams (SMWTs):

A. use statistical analysis, project management, and problem-solving methods to reduce the defect rate of products.

B. provide management with recommendations for resolving the work-related problems they’ve identified.

C. have total control over their own work, including task assignments and methods, work schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal.

D. identify the unique and best aspects of the organization and then generate ideas about how to build on them.

A

C. have total control over their own work, including task assignments and methods, work schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal.

40
Q

Research by Baltes and colleagues (1999) investigating the outcomes associated with flextime found that it has:

A. the strongest beneficial effect on absenteeism and the weakest beneficial effect on self-rated job performance.

B. the strongest beneficial effect on self-rated job performance and the weakest beneficial effect on job productivity

C. the strongest beneficial effect on job satisfaction and the weakest beneficial effect on job productivity.

D. the strongest beneficial effect on absenteeism and the weakest beneficial effect on job satisfaction.

A

A. the strongest beneficial effect on absenteeism and the weakest beneficial effect on self-rated job performance.

41
Q

House’s (1971) path-goal theory predicts that the best leadership style is determined by which of the following?

A. the favorableness of the situation.

B. the nature of the leader-employee relationship.

C. the employee’s level of job maturity.

D. certain characteristics of the employee and the work environment.

A

D. certain characteristics of the employee and the work environment.

42
Q

According to Fiedler’s (1967) contingency theory, a high LPC leader is most effective in:

A. moderately favorable situations.

B. very unfavorable situations.

C. very favorable situations.

D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

A

A. moderately favorable situations.

43
Q

An advocate of Hersey and Blanchard’s (1988) situational leadership model is most likely to agree that the best leadership style depends on the:

A. favorableness of the situation.

B. nature of the leader-employee relationship.

C. employee’s job maturity.

D. congruence between the employee’s and the organization’s goals.

A

C. employee’s job maturity.

44
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the bases of social power identified by French and Raven (1959)?

A. legitimate

B. referent

C. intuitive

D. expert

A

C. intuitive

45
Q

Research conducted in the 1950s at Ohio State University found that leader behaviors can be categorized in terms of which of the following dimensions?

A. initiating structure and consideration

B. autocratic and democratic

C. transformational and transactional

D. emotion-focused and problem-focused

A

A. initiating structure and consideration

46
Q

Research conducted in the 1950s at Ohio State University investigated the __________ of leaders.

A. behaviors

B. attitudes

C. needs

D. salaries

A

A. behaviors

47
Q

According to Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory, if a worker’s job is redesigned so that it provides adequate hygiene (job context) factors, the worker will be:

A. satisfied and motivated.

B. satisfied but not motivated.

C. motivated but dissatisfied.

D. neither satisfied nor motivated.

A

D. neither satisfied nor motivated.

48
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of Maslow’s five basic needs?

A. safety

B. meaningfulness

C. esteem

D. physiological

A

B. meaningfulness

49
Q

Expectancy theory (Vroom, 1964) predicts that worker motivation is affected by three beliefs. One of these is “expectancy,” which refers to the belief that:

A. adequate effort leads to successful performance.

B. adequate performance leads to certain outcomes.

C. job outcomes are desirable.

D. job outcomes are equitable.

A

A. adequate effort leads to successful performance.

50
Q

Which of the following theories attributes a worker’s job motivation to the worker’s social comparisons?

A. need hierarchy theory

B. equity theory

C. two-factor theory

D. expectancy theory

A

B. equity theory

51
Q

Which of the following best describes the prediction of goal-setting theory about the relationship between a supervisee’s participation in goal setting and his or her commitment to goals?

A. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is always necessary to ensure his/her commitment to goals.

B. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is likely to affect his/her commitment to goals only when the supervisor has a task-oriented leadership style.

C. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is not always necessary for his/her commitment to goals but is important when the supervisee is not likely to accept assigned goals.

D. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is not necessary for his/her commitment to goals unless the supervisee is low in both self-esteem and need for achievement.

A

C. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is not always necessary for his/her commitment to goals but is important when the supervisee is not likely to accept assigned goals.

52
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main types of organizational commitment?

A. continuance

B. affective

C. normative

D. behavioral

A

D. behavioral

53
Q

Kobasa (1982) identified three core characteristics of hardiness. Which of the following is NOT one of these characteristics?

A. commitment to family and work

B. a sense of control over one’s life

C. an inner conviction of self-worth

D. a view of new experiences as a challenge

A

C. an inner conviction of self-worth

54
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the types of organizational justice?

A. distributive

B. normative

C. interactional

D. procedural

A

B. normative

55
Q

During the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), the adrenal cortex releases which of the following?

A. cortisol

B. norepinephrine

C. thyroxine

D. glutamate

A

A. cortisol

56
Q

The core symptoms of the Type A behavior pattern include all of the following except:

A. competitiveness.

B. time urgency.

C. hostility.

D. depersonalization.

A

D. depersonalization

57
Q

Based on the results of their study of twins separated shortly after birth, Arvey, Bouchard, Segal, and Abraham (1989) concluded that genetic factors explain about _____ of observed variability in job satisfaction scores.

A. 70%

B. 50%

C. 30%

D. 10%

A

C. 30%