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My Qs > Physiological > Flashcards

Physiological Flashcards

1
Q

Theo is not color blind but his wife, Tillie, is red-green color blind. Which of the following describes the likelihood that the biological children of Theo and Tillie will be red-green color blind?

A. Their male and female children will be red-green color blind.

B. Their male children will be red-green color blind, but their female children will not be red-green color blind.

C. Their female children will be red-green color blind, but their male children will not be red-green color blind.

D. Their male and female children may or may not be red-green color blind.

A

B. Their male children will be red-green color blind, but their female children will not be red-green color blind.

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2
Q

Gate control theory is most useful for:

A. identifying ways to relieve pain.

B. identifying ways to relieve chronic stress.

C. understanding the cause of colorblindness.

D. understanding the cause of synesthesia.

A

A. identifying ways to relieve pain.

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3
Q

Of the following, which is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance?

A. motion parallax

B. interposition of objects

C. retinal disparity

D. linear perspective

A

C. retinal disparity

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4
Q

Afterimages and red/green and blue/yellow colorblindness are explained by which of the following?

A. opponent-process theory

B. trichromatic theory

C. Weber’s law

D. Fechner’s law

A

A. opponent-process theory

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5
Q

Whenever Corky looks at numbers, each number elicits a different color (1 elicits red, 2 elicits blue, etc.). This is referred to as:

A. anosognosia

B. prosopagnosia

C. achromatopsia

D. synesthesia

A

D. synesthesia

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6
Q

A psychologist interested in the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations finds that doubling the weight of an object doubles the sensation of heaviness but that doubling the brightness of a light more than doubles the sensation of brightness. This finding is most consistent with which of the following?

A. Stevens’s power law

B. Fechner’s law

C. Weber’s law

D. Gerstmann’s law

A

A. Stevens’s power law

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7
Q

Which of the following is true about REM sleep and dreaming?

A. All dreams occur during REM sleep.

B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep.

C. Most dreams occur during REM sleep but are similar in content to those that occur during non-REM sleep.

D. Dreams are equally common during REM and slow-wave sleep but are more likely to be recalled when they occur during REM sleep.

A

B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep.

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8
Q

Long-term potentiation has been linked to the:

A. formation of new memories.

B. recall of emotional memories.

C. maintenance of memories in short-term memory.

D. maintenance of memories in remote long-term memory.

A

A. formation of new memories.

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9
Q

The primary difficulty experienced by the patient known as “H.M.” was related to which of the following?

A. maintaining information in short-term memory

B. forming new long-term declarative memories

C. recalling procedural memories

D. recalling remote long-term declarative memories

A

B. forming new long-term declarative memories

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10
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain are most responsible for implicit memories?

A. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex

B. mammillary bodies and cerebellum

C. basal ganglia and cerebellum

D. thalamus and mammillary bodies

A

C. basal ganglia and cerebellum

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11
Q

Sleep spindles and K complexes are markers of Stage ___ sleep.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

B. 2

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12
Q

Which of the following is true about the sleep patterns of older (versus younger) adults?

A. Older adults spend more time in Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep.

B. Older adults experience more REM sleep in the second half of the sleep period.

C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase.

D. Older adults often begin a sleep period with REM sleep.

A

C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase.

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13
Q

Damage to which of the following is likely to have the greatest adverse impact on event-based prospective memory?

A. amygdala

B. mammillary bodies

C. cerebellum

D. prefrontal cortex

A

D. prefrontal cortex

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14
Q

The __________ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories.

A. amygdala

B. hippocampus

C. thalamus

D. cingulate gyrus

A

A. amygdala

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15
Q

Which of the following theories proposes that defensive behavioral reactions and the conscious feeling of fear are separate consequences of threat detection that are mediated by different but interacting systems?

A. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory

B. LeDoux’s two-system theory

C. Cannon-Bard theory

D. Lazarus’s cognitive appraisal theory

A

B. LeDoux’s two-system theory

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16
Q

Damage to certain areas of the left (dominant) hemisphere are most likely to cause:

A. inappropriate rage and aggression.

B. inappropriate euphoria.

C. an indifference reaction.

D. a catastrophic reaction.

A

D. catastrophic reaction

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17
Q

According to Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, secondary appraisal involves:

A. determining if an event is irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful.

B. re-evaluating a primary appraisal when additional information is obtained.

C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event.

D. determining if an emotional response to an event is appropriate.

A

C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event.

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18
Q

A psychology undergraduate tells his roommate who’s depressed that, if he smiles more often, he’ll feel a lot better. The student’s suggestion is consistent with the predictions of which of the following?

A. Cannon-Bard theory

B. two-factor theory

C. James-Lange theory

D. cognitive appraisal theory

A

C. James-Lange theory

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19
Q

Which of the following attributes the experience of emotion to physiological arousal followed by assigning a cognitive label to that arousal?

A. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory

B. Cannon-Bard theory

C. Lazarus’s cognitive appraisal theory

D. Hering’s opponent process theory

A

A. Schachter and Singer’s 2-factor theory

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20
Q

Allostasis refers to:

A. the interpretation of an event as personally important and stressful.

B. the beneficial effects of moderate (normal) levels of stress.

C. adaptive processes that maintain the body’s stability during times of stress.

D. long-term “wear-and-tear” on the body that’s caused by chronic stress.

A

C. adaptive processes that maintain the body’s stability during times of stress.

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21
Q

Benzodiazepines and barbiturates enhance the effects of which of the following neurotransmitters?

A. GABA

B. serotonin

C. ACh

D. norepinephrine

A

A. GABA

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22
Q

A person will experience nausea, shortness of breath, and other unpleasant symptoms when he drinks alcohol after taking which of the following?

A. acamprosate

B. disulfiram

C. valproic acid

D. naltrexone

A

B. disulfiram

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23
Q

As a treatment for anxiety, propranolol (Inderal) is:

A. effective only for psychological symptoms.

B. more effective for psychological symptoms than somatic symptoms.

C. more effective for somatic symptoms than psychological symptoms.

D. equally effective for somatic and psychological symptoms.

A

C. more effective for somatic symptoms than psychological symptoms.

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24
Q

Benzodiazepines have a __________ half-life for older adults than for younger adults and, therefore, are often prescribed for older adults at a __________ dose than they are for younger adults.

A. shorter; lower

B. shorter; higher

C. longer; lower

D. longer; higher

A

C. longer; lower

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25
Q

A potential side effect of carbamazepine is agranulocytosis, which is a(n) __________ disorder.

A. endocrine

B. immune system

C. blood

D. kidney

A

C. blood

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26
Q

All of the following drugs are used to slow down the progression of Alzheimer’s disease by delaying the breakdown of acetylcholine except:

A. donepezil.

B. galantamine.

C. rivastigmine.

D. memantine.

A

D. memantine

27
Q

Compared to first-generation antipsychotics, second-generation antipsychotics are:

A. less effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

B. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but less effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

C. as effective or more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

D. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and equally effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

A

C. as effective or more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.

28
Q

Clozapine and other second-generation antipsychotics are:

A. dopamine and serotonin agonists.

B. dopamine and serotonin antagonists.

C. dopamine agonists and serotonin antagonists.

D. dopamine antagonists and serotonin agonists.

A

B. dopamine and serotonin antagonists.

29
Q

__________ may develop after long-term use of a first-generation antipsychotic and begins with involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw.

A. Metabolic syndrome

B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

C. Dystonia

D. Tardive dyskinesia

A

D. Tardive dyskinesia

30
Q

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) and other antidepressants that __________ have an energizing (stimulating) effect.

A. increase norepinephrine and dopamine levels

B. decrease norepinephrine and increase dopamine levels

C. increase norepinephrine and decrease dopamine levels

D. decrease norepinephrine and dopamine levels

A

A. increase norepinephrine and dopamine levels

31
Q

A person who takes an SSRI concomitantly with an MAOI may develop serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by:

A. agitation, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability.

B. substantial weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia.

C. throbbing headache, stiff neck, and light sensitivity.

D. parkinsonism, akathisia, and dystonia.

A

A. agitation, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability.

32
Q

Which of the following antidepressants is least likely to have an adverse impact on sexual functioning?

A. fluoxetine

B. phenelzine

C. paroxetine

D. bupropion

A

D. buproprion

33
Q

Which of the following is true about the SSRIs and TCAs?

A. The SSRIs are more cardiotoxic than the TCAs.

B. The SSRIs are less cardiotoxic than the TCAs.

C. The SSRIs and the TCAs are similar in terms of cardiotoxicity.

D. The SSRIs and the TCAs are not cardiotoxic.

A

B. The SSRIs are less cardiotoxic than the TCAs.

34
Q

Patients with lesions in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex are most likely to exhibit:

A. acquired sociopathy.

B. perseverative responses.

C. decreased initiative and motivation.

D. behavioral disinhibition.

A

B. perseverative responses

35
Q

A disinhibited syndrome that is characterized by impulsivity, aggressive behaviors, social inappropriateness, and emotional lability is most likely to be the result of damage to the:

A. orbitofrontal cortex.

B. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

C. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

D. ventrolateral prefrontal cortex.

A

A. orbitofrontal cortex

36
Q

As the result of a traumatic brain injury, a middle-aged man exhibits ________, which means he cannot recognize family members by their faces.

A. anosognosia

B. asomatognosia

C. prosopagnosia

D. Gerstmann’s syndrome

A

C. prosopagnosia

37
Q

A patient with damage to her primary visual cortex in both the right and left hemispheres is shown a photograph of a happy face. Although she claims she cannot see the image, she responds to it by smiling. This illustrates which of the following?

A. visual agnosia

B. facial feedback hypothesis

C. blindsight

D. Gerstmann’s syndrome

A

C. blindsight

38
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia and Broca’s aphasia share which of the following symptoms?

A. impaired repetition

B. anomia

C. impaired repetition and anomia

D. neither impaired repetition nor anomia

A

C. impaired repetition and anomia

39
Q

The words “food mart” are presented to split-brain patients so that “food” is presented to their left visual fields only and “mart” is projected to their right visual fields only. When they’re asked what they have seen, the patients will most likely say which of the following?

A. food

B. mart

C. food mart

D. mart food

A

B. mart

40
Q

A patient with __________ will deny that her left arm is paralyzed.

A. anosognosia

B. asomatognosia

C. prosopagnosia

D. Gerstmann’s syndrome

A

A. anosognosia

41
Q

PTSD has been linked to:

A. hyperactivity in the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

B. hyperactivity in the amygdala and hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

C. hypoactivity in the amygdala and hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

D. hypoactivity in the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

A

B. hyperactivity in the amygdala and hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex.

42
Q

Severe damage to the ________ is often fatal because of its role in the regulation of respiration and cardiovascular functioning.

A. suprachiasmatic nucleus

B. medulla oblongata

C. caudate nucleus

D. mammillary bodies

A

B. medulla oblongata

43
Q

The __________ allows you to remember how to ride a bicycle, swim, and play a musical instrument.

A. cerebellum

B. medulla oblongata

C. suprachiasmatic nucleus

D. hypothalamus

A

A. cerebellum

44
Q

The __________ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories for surprising and shocking events.

A. thalamus

B. amygdala

C. substantia nigra

D. suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

B. amygdala

45
Q

Three months after a car accident that damaged his hippocampus, a 24-year-old man is most likely to be unable to:

A. remember the names of his parents and other family members.

B. recall what he did on his 21st birthday.

C. remember how to shave and comb his hair.

D. recall events that happened after the accident.

A

D. recall events that happened after the accident.

46
Q

Although the exact cause of Tourette’s disorder is unknown, its symptoms have been linked to abnormalities in which of the following?

A. basal ganglia

B. suprachiasmatic nucleus

C. thalamus

D. cingulate cortex

A

A. basal ganglia

47
Q

One of the functions of the __________ is to maintain a constant body temperature.

A. thalamus

B. mammillary bodies

C. hippocampus

D. hypothalamus

A

D. thalamus

48
Q

Which of the following is the most important reward pathway in the brain and the key pathway in substance abuse?

A. mesocortical dopaminergic pathway

B. mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway

C. nigrostriatal dopaminergic pathway

D. tuberoinfundibular dopaminergic pathway

A

B. mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway

49
Q

Memory loss during the initial stage of Alzheimer’s disease has been most consistently linked to low levels of __________ in the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus.

A. dopamine

B. norepinephrine

C. acetylcholine

D. GABA

A

C. acetylcholine

50
Q

A drug that increases which of the following is likely to be most effective as a treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A. serotonin

B. acetylcholine

C. norepinephrine

D. GABA

A

A. serotonin

51
Q

The somatic nervous system conveys information from the sense organs to the central nervous system and from the central nervous system to:

A. the skeletal muscles.

B. the smooth muscles.

C. the skeletal and smooth muscles.

D. neither the skeletal nor the smooth muscles.

A

A. the skeletal muscles

52
Q

A drug that has the same effects as a neurotransmitter or that increases the effects of a neurotransmitter is referred to as a(n):

A. antagonist.

B. inverse agonist.

C. partial agonist.

D. agonist.

A

D. agonist

53
Q

Stimulus intensity is encoded by:

A. the intensity of action potentials.

B. the frequency of action potentials.

C. the intensity and frequency of action potentials.

D. neither the intensity nor the frequency of action potentials.

A

B. the frequency of action potentials

54
Q

________ is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, and low levels have been linked to chronic insomnia and anxiety disorders.

A. Dopamine

B. Acetylcholine

C. GABA

D. Glutamate

A

C. GABA

55
Q

The primary function of the myelin sheath is to:

A. increase the speed of nerve impulses.

B. increase the size of the action potential.

C. facilitate synaptic transmission.

D. facilitate neurogenesis.

A

A. increase the speed of nerve impulses

56
Q

Parkinson’s disease has been linked to a degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the:

A. amygdala.

B. suprachiasmatic nucleus.

C. pons.

D. substantia nigra.

A

D. substantia nigra

57
Q

Idris is in a serious car accident that causes a traumatic brain injury. After regaining consciousness in the hospital, Idris has anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that affects memories for the ten months prior to the accident. When Idris’s long-term memories begin to return, he’s most likely to recall which of the following first?

A. his sister’s graduation from college nine months ago

B. the fight he had with his parents about his financial situation six months ago

C. the birthday dinner he had with a close friend one week before the accident

D. where he was going when he was in the accident

A

A. his sister’s graduation from college nine months ago

58
Q

A(n) ________ is caused by a blood clot that developed in an artery in the brain:

A. embolic stroke

B. thrombotic stroke

C. intracerebral hemorrhage

D. subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

B. thrombotic stroke

59
Q

Which of the following types of seizures involves a very brief loss of consciousness with a blank stare?

A. focal onset impaired awareness

B. generalized onset non-motor

C. tonic

D. clonic

A

B. generalized onset non-motor

60
Q

Loss of __________ neurons in the __________ is believed to contribute to depression and cognitive impairment in patients with Parkinson’s disease.

A. dopamine; striatum

B. norepinephrine; striatum

C. dopamine; locus coeruleus

D. norepinephrine; locus coeruleus

A

D. norepinephrine; locus coeruleus

61
Q

Which of the following is an MRI-based technique that is used to detect abnormalities in the brain’s white matter?

A. electroencephalography

B. computerized axial tomography

C. positron emission tomography

D. diffusion tensor imaging

A

D. diffusion tensor imaging

62
Q

Migraine headaches have been linked to abnormal levels of:

A. norepinephrine.

B. serotonin.

C. glutamate.

D. acetylcholine.

A

B. serotonin

63
Q

A client with __________ tells her therapist that, since her traumatic brain injury, she has had trouble disciplining her children because, when she tells them she’s angry about what they’ve done, she doesn’t sound angry and, as a result, they don’t listen to her. As the client describes the problems she has with her children, she speaks in a monotone.

A. athetosis

B. aprosodia

C. dysarthria

D. dystonia

A

B. aprosodia

64
Q

Which of the following symptoms is least characteristic of hypothyroidism?

A. decreased libido

B. confusion

C. heat intolerance

D. unexplained weight gain

A

C. heat intolerance

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