Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Semester 2 > soal tipe lain > Flashcards

soal tipe lain Flashcards

1
Q

the nature of drug introduced into tissue influence:

a. intensity of current
b. resistance of skin tissue
c. effect physiological and therapeutic of magnet
d. effect of iontophoresis

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the half wave rectified sinusoidal current is

a. the unfrequent form of diadynamic current
b. the basic form of dyadinamic current
c. the basic form of russian current
d. the frequent current of all current

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the surge current is:

a. if the intensity is decreased over period of second or so and then increased and this sequenced is repeated
b. if the intensity is increased from zero over period of second or so and then decrease to zero again and this sequenced is repeated
c. if the intensity is increased from zero over period of second or so and then decreased to zero again and this sequenced is repeated
d. if the intensity is increased from zero over period of second or so and then increase more and this sequenced is repeated

A

gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the frequency is 125-250 Hz, the pulse duration is long, the amplitude is highest tolerable, the use is 15 minutes or less. The parameter is:

a. high rate TENS
b. Conventional TENS
c. low rate TENS
d. brief intense TENS

A

ag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the parameter on severe pain is:

a. pulse width is wide, frequency is high, mode burst, intensity is high
b. pulse width is narrow, frequency is high, mode continuous, intensity is lower
c. pulse width is width, frequency is low, mode normal, intensity is high
d. pulse width is narrow, frequency is low, mode continuous, intensity is low

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tendency of particles to move from suspension form is:

a. concentration of particle
b. ambient humidity
c. instability
d. movement particles

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
the maximum aerosol into respiratory tract is approximately
a, 10%
b. 15 %
c. 30%
d. 50%
A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

aerosol deposit in the lung caused by

a. inertial impaction
b. inhalation pattern
c. time
d. ambient humidity

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the right sentence below about aerosol therapy is

a. the babington nebulizer is commonly called ‘room humidifiers’
b. jet nebulizer work through the air into the room through a small hole without pressure
c. one of the advantage of nebulizer is the small side effect
d. the gas-powered hand held nebulizer use gas flow with velocity about 1-2 lt/min

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the dose of bisolvon for child 5-10 years old is

a. 3 ml bid
b. 5 gtt bid
c. 1 ml bid
d. 8 gtt bid

A

C

> 10 y.o. = 2 ml bid
2-5 y.o = 10 gtt bid
< 2 y.o. = 5 gtt bid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the right statement about acoustic streaming (AS) is:

a. AS is a linear effect
b. the AS can be observed in standing wave within Kundi’s tube
c. the viscosity is not responsible for AS
d. the AS is a non-steady current in a fluid driven by the absorption of high amplitude acoustic osciflations

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the essential requirements of a couplant are that is has:

a. an acoustic impedance is higher to the tissue
b. low transmissivity for ultrasound
c. high susceptibility to buble formation
d. a hypoallergenic character

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the length of the near field of ultrasound beam depends on:

a. size of probe only
b. size of probe and wavelength
c. size of probe, wavelength, moves of probe
d. size of probe, wavelength and frequency

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the fraunhofer zone is:

a. near field
b. far field
c. mid field
d. first field

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

about using diathermy in women with copper-bearing IUDs

a. a metallic implant (IUDs) in the treated field is generally regarded as a contraindication to diathermy because at the risk of thermodamage to surrounding
b. the technique was devised at measuring temperature in the copper wire of an IUD in situ during short-wave an ultrasonic therapy
c. the diathermy always to be perfectly safe in women with copper bearing IUDs
d. the save diathermy in women this condition is ultrasound only

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

prescription of massage consist of

a. type, repetition, frequency
b. area, type, repetition, frequency, specifications
c. type only
d. precaution, area and specification

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the prescription for ambulation exercise should be including:

a. strengthening, stretching, using orthotic
b. hydrotherapy and matras
c. resistance
d. physical therapy

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the initial response of peripheral nerve to cold application is

a. cessation on axeplasmic transport
b. slowing of nerve conduction velocity
c. nerve conduction block
d. axonal degeneration

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what form of cryotherapy is used as emergent primary treatment for minor burns?

a. ice massage
b. cold/ice water immersion
c. ice packs
d. vapocoolant spray

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

physiological effect of cold therapy in joint and connective tissue is

a. decreased joint stiffness
b. increased tendon extensibility
c. decreased collagenase activity
d. decreased maximal isometric strength

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cryotherapy is

a. will tend to increase muscle guarding and co-contraction in patients with simple cold intolerance
b. should put into caution when applying over median nerve
c. will permanently reduced spasticity in multiple sclerosis patient
d. is effective in treating acute or chronic pain of moderate tissue inflammation

A

klo ga A/D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which on best suited for circumferential cooling of the limb?

a. cryotherapy-compression unit
b. hydrocollator packs
c. cold water immersion
d. hubbard tank

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which of the following statement regarding fuel sources during exercise is correct?

a. protein contributes a large amount to the total energy productions
b. exercise timing greatly influence fuel selection
c. anaerobic means of energy delivery requires no oxygen for delivery of ATP for muscle contraction
d. ADP is ‘fuel currency’ used by muscle

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which exercise prescription recommended by American College of Sport Medicine for cardio respiratory endurance training?

a. intensity: 70-85% of max HR, 80-90% of VOmax
b. exercise being performed for minimal 5 days a week
c. using larger numer of muscle in rythmic aerobic activity
d. exercise duration for 20-60 minutes of continuous aerobic activity

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

physiologic changes following long term regular exercise program is

a. decreased stored muscle glycogen
b. decreased VO2max
c. increased percentage of fast- and slow- twitch fibers
d. increased in total blood volume

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

rating of perceived exertion (RPE)

a. is considered as a main tool to monitor heart rate during exc
b. used most commonly in Likert Scale
c. used as a valuable aid for patient with difficulty in HR palpation
d. is an exact matching to a percentage of HR max or percentage of HR reserve

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of these types of exercise is ‘anaerobic’?

a. Sprinting 100 m
b. Going for a steady jog
c. Doing a yoga class
d. Going for a long bike ride

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which Stump length is ideal for prosthetics control in transtibial amputation?

a. 1-3 inches
b. 5-6 inches
c. 7-10 inches
d. 10-12 inches

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the starting point for residual limb length measurement in transfemoral limb is

a. ischial tuberosit
b. SIAS
c. umbilicus
d. medial hip joint line

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

refferal for prosthetics fit is made when distal stump circumference is

a. equal to proximal stump circumference
b. > 1/4 inch than proximal stump circumference
c. > 1/2 inch than proximal stump circumference
d. > 1 inch than to proximal stump circumference

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

hip flexion contracture in transtibial amputation is best tested with

a. Mc Murray test
b. lachman test
c. patrick test
d. thomas test

A

D

patrick = FABER (Flexion ABduction External Rotation
McMurray: testing the tear of meniscus (=circumduction test)
Lachman: testing ACL tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which one is the most effective techniques to control postoperative stump edema?

a. TENS
b. soft dressing
c. rigid dressing
d. tapping technique

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

symptoms of fatigue in physical exercise is

a. insomnia
b. loss of appetite
c. altered mood states
d. feeling of tiredness

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

the sequence on proprioceptive exercise is

a. balance exc followed by coordination exc and finally agility exc
b. coordination exc followed by balance exc and finally agility exc
c. balance exc followed by agility exc and finally coordination exc
d. coordination exc followed by agility exc and finally balance exc

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which is the characteristics of proprioceptive exercise?

a. the main goal is to have the patient perform the activity deliberately
b. proprioceptive exc using uncontrolled situation and environment
c. propriocetive exc start with dynamic activities
d. repetition is always necessary in proprioceptive exc

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which organ systems mainly involve in developing balance?

a. proprioceptive system, vestibular system, musculoskeletal system
b. oculomotor system, proprioceptive system, cardiovascular system
c. proprioceptive system, vestibular system, oculomotor system
d. cardiovascular system, musculoskeletal system, oculomotor system

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

component of coordination is

a. activity perception, feedback, repetition, inhibition
b. feedback, overflow, repetition, inhibition
c. activity perception, feedback, repetition, execution
d. position, feedback, repetition, inhibition

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

one MET is equal to

a. 0.035 ml/kg/min
b. 0.35 ml/kg/min
c. 3.5 ml/kg/min
d. 35 ml/kg/min

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

evaluation of HR during physical exc

a. can be measured by palpation of the ulnar artery
b. should be very careful if used too much pressure when palpating radial artery because this could slow the HR by way of baroreceptor reflex
c. is measured over a 10 second time period to obtain a reliable estimate of HR
d. can be measured by using a post-exc HR

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

a 30-year-old man has a resting HR of 60x/min, weighs 80 kg and VO2max of 48 ml/kg/min. his exc intensity is 0.70
what is his target HR according to Karvonen formula? … x/min
a. 190
b. 151
c. 133
d. 112

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

gold standard measure for cardiorespiratory fitness is measurement of

a. METs
b. VO2max
c. HR
d. cardiac output

A

ga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

the increase in metabolic demand placed on the heart during exercise can be estimated by examining

a. HR
b. cardiac output
c. rate-pressure product
d. systolic BP

A

ga

43
Q

fast-twitch muscle as compared to slow-twitch muscle is characterized by

a. higher concentration
b. greater resistance to fatigue
c. lower concentration of oxidative enzymes
d. lower glycogen content

A

ga

44
Q

which of the following is TRUE regarding ultrastructure sarcomere

a. the I band of sarcomere is composed of thick filaments and overlapping with thin actin filaments
b. the H zone of sarcomere is made up only of myosin filaments
c. the M line represents of the point at which actin filaments are bound together with thin filaments
d. the A band is changed during contraction

A

fa

45
Q

which is TRUE regarding muscle fiber contraction

a. Ca2+ diffuse from SR into the sarcoplasm and bind to myosin molecules
b. ATP causes linkages between actin and myosin filaments to break without ATP breakdown
c. tropomyosin molecules move and expose specific sites on actin filaments
d. actin filaments are pushed outward by myosin cross-bridges

A

ga

46
Q

histologic changes accompanying muscle strengthenning with heavy resistance training include

a. increased mitochondrial density
b. reduced sarcoplasm volume
c. additional actin-myosin filaments
d. fiber type grouping

A

ga

47
Q

which of the following is not appropriate regarding energy resources for contraction

a. muscle fiber has enough ATP to contract briefly
b. the initial source of energy available to regenerate ATP from ADP and phosphate is creatinine phospate
c. ATP is used to power muscle contraction or to synthesize creatinine phospate
d. cellular respiration of glucose is no relationship as source of energy for synthesizing muscle ATP

A

ga

48
Q

in aerobic metabolism:
a. CO2 and water are metabolic by products
b. depletion of ATP stores is a limiting factor
c lactic acid accumulates after 3 minutes
d. 100% metabollic recovery does not occur until 24 hours after exc

A

ga

49
Q

holding a heavy object at waist level is considerable easier than lifting the same object because:

a. isometric contractions produce the maximum possible force
b. static exercise requires only adequate glycogen stores as opposed to an aeroic debt
c. motor unit synchronization is more easily achieved in such a position
d. isometric contractions produce more force than concentric contractions

A

ga

50
Q

a 70-year-old sedentary woman is referred to you for an aerobic exc program. from such a program you expect:

a. increased muscle strength
b. increased percent body fat
c. decreased varicosities
d. decreased bone density

A

ga

51
Q

which would be the safest and most efficacious exc program to improve both strength and endurance in a healthy 75-y-o woman?

a. swimming
b. free weights at 60% and 80% of 1RM
c. circuit training
d. stationary cyclling

A

ga

52
Q

in endurance exc, which of the following statement is not appropriate to decrease muscle fatigability

a. increased oxidative capacity of muscle
b. increased utilization of free fatty acid
c. increased aerobic capacity of muscle
d. increased number of muscle fibers

A

ga

53
Q

during strengthening exc, force of muscle contraction is

a. greatest in isometric contraction
b. greatest in isotonic concentric contraction
c. greatest in eccentric contraction
d. greatest in isokinetic concentric contraction

A

ga

54
Q

contraindication to lumbar traction is

a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. pregnancy
c. hypermobile joint
d. vertebral artery diseases

A

ga

55
Q

contraindication for high velocity manipulation techniques is

a. acute and chronic cervical pain
b. hypermobile joint
c. functional and mechanical LBP
d. piriformis syndrome

A

ga

56
Q

thrust manuver of the manual manipulation technique is

a. muscle energy technique
b. mobilization without impulse
c. with high velocity. low amplitude
d. functional technique

A

ga

57
Q

which of the following statement is true according to cervical traction?

a. with the use of a head or chin sling by motorized force
b. can be used in standing position
c. cervical extension position between 20-30 degrees
d. can be used in prone position

A

ga

58
Q

which is true for lumbar traction

a. can be used in prone position
b. with lumbar extension, w/ hip flexion 70o
c. w/ lumbar flexion, hip flexion 30o
d. w/ lumbar flexion, hip flexion 70o

A

ga

59
Q

a 20-y-o female comes to PMR clinic with complaint of back pain. She has been working as a secretary since she graduated from high school, mostly writing reports. Phys exam shows a young woman with good posture. after careful exam, the low back manuver show no abnormalitis, but the adam’s test shows a C-curved thoraco-lumbar scoliosis. what is your estimation of the curve?

a. 40-45
b. 30-35
c. 20-25
d. 10-15

A

ga

60
Q

a 20-y-o female comes to PMR clinic with complaint of back pain. She has been working as a secretary since she graduated from high school, mostly writing reports. Phys exam shows a young woman with good posture. after careful exam, the low back manuver show no abnormalitis, but the adam’s test shows a C-curved thoraco-lumbar scoliosis.
the patient tells you she pains with & on VAS. what is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
a. proper body posture
b. orthotic management
c. physical modalities
d. therapeutic exc

A

ga

61
Q

a 20-y-o female comes to PMR clinic with complaint of back pain. She has been working as a secretary since she graduated from high school, mostly writing reports. Phys exam shows a young woman with good posture. after careful exam, the low back manuver show no abnormalitis, but the adam’s test shows a C-curved thoraco-lumbar scoliosis.
after a time she is in VAS 5, and ask about whether she has to continue with rehab. what is the appropriate management at this stage?
a. orthotic management
b. energy conservation
c. physical modalities
d. therapeutic exc

A

ga

62
Q

what structures of the spine can be affected by rheumatoid arthritis?

a. the sacroiliac joint
b. subaxial apophyseal joints
c. the joint forming the intervertebral foramina
d. the connection between the disc and the vertebral body

A

ga

63
Q 
which treatment is most appropriate for a 20-y-o female comes to PMR clinic with complaint of back pain. She has been working as a secretary since she graduated from high school, mostly writing reports. Phys exam shows a young woman with good posture. after careful exam, the low back manuver show no abnormalitis, but the adam's test shows a C-curved thoraco-lumbar scoliosis.
??
a. physical modalities
b. therapeutic exc
c. joint protection
d. energy conservation
A

ga

64
Q

what is the best option for the management of chronic pain?

a. orthotic and exc
b. exc and ergonomics
c. physical modalities and exc
d. pharmacological medication and ergonomics

A

ga

65
Q

which on is the pain measurement connected to physical functioning?

a. VAS
b. numerical pain scale
c. lesquesne questionaire
d. McGill Pain questionaire

A

ga

66
Q

inclued in the pain patways, except

a. A-delta fibers
b. C-fibers
c. A-alpha fibers
d. spinothalamic tract

A

ga

67
Q

autonomic response which is triggered by pain is

a. postural hypotension
b. bradycardia
c. enuresis
d. hypertension

A

ga

68
Q

what is substance P?

a. a neurotransmitter
b. an inflammatory chemical
c. a vasodilatory agent
d. a histamine like substance

A

ga

69
Q

pain perception, which is the most appropriate

a. the awareness of pain happens in the frontal lobe of the brain
b. the inhibition of the pain impulse in the brain is called modulation
c. male persons are not perceptive to pain
d. when pain reaches the cortex, there is no effect through the efferent iiber

A

ga

70
Q

contra indication of vigorous heating therapy

a. mechanical low back pain with muscle spasm
b. LBP caused by spondilolisthesis
c. LBP caused by spondilitis
d. LBP caused by herniation nucleus pulposus

A

D

71
Q

the common features of MWD

a. the penetration depth in fatty tissue are much lower than in muscle
b. the penetration depth in fatty tissue are much higher than in muscle
c. the penetration depth in fatty tissue are much higher than in metal
d. the frequency decreases as penetration depth decreases

A

hs

72
Q

you are a resident in PMR department when a 28-y-o man came with pain in the left buttock. he felt it about a month and sometimes radiates to the knee. he work as a porter in a train station.
what is the most possible diagnosis for this patient?
a. degenerative joint disease
b. cauda equine syndrome
c. herniated disc
d. lumbar strain

A

D

73
Q

you are a resident in PMR department when a 28-y-o man came with pain in the left buttock. he felt it about a month and sometimes radiates to the knee. he work as a porter in a train station.
from exam there is no pain or jumpsign in lumbar vertebra, there are tender point in left gluteal area also hamstring tightness. SLR -/-. what is the most appropriate program?
a. bed rest for 2 days
b. SWD at hamstring muscle to increase flexibility
c. MWD at gluteal area followed by stretching
d. USD at hamstring muscle combined with massage

A

C

74
Q

MWD demonstrate potential benefit in rheumatoid arthritis because

a. it produces heat via conduction of electromagnetic energy to thermal energy
b. distance applicator without terry cloth produced more desirable heating pattern
c. different applicator produce different temperature in water rich tissue
d. average temp of approximately 41oC at a depth of 1-3 cm

A

ga

75
Q

Ms E, 50 y-o, works as a factory labour, came with pain in the right elbow since 6 weeks ago, from PF there is tenderness in medial epicondylus.
how do you set the laser machine if the desired dose is 5 joule with 100% degree of effectiveness
a. 3 watt for 10 min
b. 3 miliwatt for 10 min
c. 5 miliwatt for 10 min
d. 5 watt for 6 min

A

ga

76
Q

before begining laser therapy, what is the informed consent?

a. laser can be reflected and refracted
b. the degree of effectiveness range between 50-100%
c. laser can increase tissue activity and act as an anti inflammatory
d. laser is safe for pregnancy

A

ga

77
Q

the semiconductor diode laser should not be applied in
a. epiphyseal plate in children
b vein thrombosis
c. patient with pace maker
d. compression fracture caused by osteopporosis

A

ga

78
Q

classification for laser according to american national standard institute

a. class I laser: 400-700 nm, no destruction effect to the skin and eye
b. HeNe laser: 700-1400 nm, visible light
c. class III laser: use for surgical
d. Class IV laser: use for cutting metal

A

ga

79
Q

characteristic of HeNe laser:

a. deplete K-ATP channel that can change enxyme to ADP + energy
b. also known as Non ablative laser skin rejuvenation
c. can be used in the treatment of malignancy disease
d. can be used in the treatment of coronary heart disease

A

ga

80
Q

passive ROM can be useful to increase mobility

a. maintenance elasticity and contractility of muscle
b. increase nutrition for the joint
c. sensory feed back
d. increase mineralization to the bone

A

ha

81
Q

the function of loose connective tissue

a. insulates organ
b. store energy
c. stabilize bone
d. cushions organ

A

ta

82
Q

function of dense regular connective tissue

a. cushion and shocks organs
b. provide strength to resist force
c. conducts pull of muscle
d. helps prevent over expansion of organ

A

ga

83
Q

patient w/ deconditioning syndrome will develop contracture of the joint because

a. permeability of cartilage increase w/ compression
b. immobilization w/o compression causes thickening of articular cartilage
c. periarticular ligamentous became cross-linking and stiff
d. permeability of cartilage correlates dirrectly w/hydration

A

g

84
Q

you are a medical doctor for PERSIB, during practicce C. Gonzales got injured and from USG revealed that the right achiles tendon was partially ruptured
there are some important point to be considered on your program:
a. 1st phase ligamentous healing lasting in 24 hours
b. 1st phase is ischemic phase because local vessels constricted
c. 2nd phase the inflammatory cells infiltrate
d. some cause of failure to reconnect is location of the bone

A

ga

85
Q

patient w/ dysphagia w/ reduced tongue posterior motion, the residue is in

a. pyriform sinusis
b. valleculae
c. spread throughout pharynx
d. on one side of pharynx

A

ga

86
Q

patient w/ dysphagia w/ reduced tongue posterior motion
to this patient, we give postural technique w/ posture applied of
a. head down
b. head back
c. head rotated to damage side
d. head back and rotated

A

ga

87
Q

easiest food consistencies by patient w/ reduced range of tongue motion is

a. liquid
b. thin liquid
c. thicker food
d. thick liquid

A

ga

88
Q

in patient dysphagia we give heightening sensory awareness before the swallow attempt. the purpose is

a. to improve the speed of triggering of pharyngeal swallow
b. to voluntary close the airway at the vocal fold
c. to increase muscle activity in the larynx
d. to hold both liquid and paste bolus in cohesive fashion

A

ga

89
Q

the mandelsohn manuver is designed to solve the problem of

a. reduced or late vocal fold
b. delayed pharyngeal swallow
c. reduced laryngeal movement
d. reduced posterior movement of the tongue base

A

ga

90
Q

hubbard tank is part of hydrotherapy, and well suited for burn and wound treatment in which gentle agitation, heat solvent agent are needed. full body immersion can alter systemic temperature. the chosen temp is

a. 30oC
b. maxx 50oC
c. max 39oC
d. range 30-35oC

A

ga

91
Q

parafin wax is the simple and adaptable method of applying heat therapy, in order to keep parafin liquid at lower temps, mineral water is added to the melted wax. ratio of wax : mineral oil is

a. 2 : 8
b. 2 : 7
c. 1 : 8
d. 1 : 7

A

ga

92
Q

RA patient, is it beneficial to apply to stiff hand by modality of

a. wet pack
b. water vapor bath
c. contrast bath
d. paraffin bath

A

ga

93
Q

exc in water offer certain advantages, because of its property of buoyancy and cohesion. In buoyancy-resisted exc of the deltoid for the posterior muscle, the position of the patient is

a. supine
b. side lying
c. forward flexion of the trunk
d. extension of the trunk

A

g

94
Q

position of patient w/ buoyancy-resisting exc for the back extensor

a. side-floating position supported by the therapist
b. side lying position in an underwater pliath
c. prone lying on an inclined stretcher
d. supine floating w/ his hand on the side rails of the pool

A

hg

95
Q

leprosy patien, risk status of progressive if there is impairment of

a. swelling
b. impair sensibility and no other abnormality
c. muscle wasting
d. blister

A

ga

96
Q

in most leprosy patient, nerve destruction does not occur immediately. We should recognize the stage of nerve damage. Which following statement is correct for stage II

a. nerve damage recovery possible
b. nerve damage but no loss of function
c. sensory loss but no muscle weakness
d. nerve destroyed and recovery not possible

A

ga

97
Q

Tuberculoid leprosy (TT). which is correct

a. m. leprae enter perineural cell
b. m. leprae enter axon
c. m. leprae enter cell Schwann
d. m. leprae enter epineural

A

ga

98
Q

ulcers, shortening of fingers and toes and contractures are changes as consequences o leprosy. which term is appropriate

a. primary impairment
b. secondary impairment
c. disability
d. destitutions

A

ga

99
Q

available option for patient w/ blister on the foot caused by walking

a. cover the blister w/ thin layer of sterile gauze
b. instruct the patient to do active exc
c. instruct the patient to do stretching the joint
d. using crutches during walking, keeping the foot off the ground

A

ga

100
Q

the basic principle of thermal modality is

a. superficial agent effects are limited to depths of less than 3 cm
b. when a moist heat pack is used, energy is drawn away from the tissue and delivered to the pack
c. superficial agents must be able to increase skin temperature to 104oF to 113oF to produce therapeutic effects
d. heat is the decrease in molecular vibration and cellular metabolic rate

A

ga

101
Q

types of heat transfer that transfer heat via medium such as the movement of air or water

a. convection
b. electrical
c. conduction
d. radiation

A

ga

102
Q

which is true

a. vasodilatation may occur form an axon reflex, release of chemical mediators secondary to temperature elevation and local spinal cord reflexes.
b. vasodilatation may occur form an axon reflex, inhibition of chemical mediators secondary to temperature elevation and local spinal cord reflexes.
c. vasodilatation may occur form an axon reflex, inhibition of chemical mediators secondary to temperature decrease and local spinal cord reflexes.
d. vasodilatation may occur form an axon reflex, release of chemical mediators secondary to temperature decrease and local spinal cord reflexes.

A

ga

103
Q

systemic effect in heating

a. artery and capillary vasodillatation
b. increase of body temp
c. increase leucocytes and phagocytosis
d. increase permeability

A

ga

104
Q

physiological responses to heat to increase extensibility of collagen tissue and decreases joint stiffness is not dependent to

a. amount of time the tissue is heated
b. the depth of the tissue heated
c. the degree of stretch applied after heat
d. the type modality used in treatment

A

ga

Semester 2 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions