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Semester 2 > soal modul > Flashcards

soal modul Flashcards

1
Q

Contraindication of vigorous heating therapy

a. Mechanical LBP w/ muscle spasm
b. Osteoarthritis patient w/ joint contracture
c. LBP caused by spondilolisthesis
d. LBP caused by herniation nucleus pulposus

A

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2
Q

Frequency of SWD use in Indonesia

a. 13.66 Mhz
b. 22 MHz
c. 27.33 MHz
40. 98 MHz

A

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3
Q

The non thermal effect of ultrasound is not:

a. Standing waves
b. Superimposed waves
c. Microstreaming
d. Increase microcirculation

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4
Q

Iontophoresis is

a. Use US energy to deliver topically medication
b. Method of transdermal administration of ionized drug by internal electrical field
c. Method of subdermal administration of ionized drug by external electrical field
d. Method of transdermal administration of ionized drug by external electrical field

A

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5
Q

The effect of acoustic streaming is

a. Increased membrane cell activity
b. Decrease protein synthesis
c. Increase extentiability of tendon
d. Decrease electrical activity

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6
Q

Spatial peak intensity in USD is

a. Total power output of the applicator divided by the area of applicator face
b. Greatest intensity anywhere over the area of the transducer
c. Average intensity over both on and off cyle
d. Similar to beam non-uniformity ratio

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7
Q

24500 MHz frequency MWD is the most widely available but not satisfactory to achieve therapeutic heating because of 2450 MHz…

a. Are also used in telecommunication (mobile phones and satellite)
b. Radiation is reflected almost 50%
c. Particularly absorbed in tissue with high water and ion content
d. Are more rapidly absorbed in fatty tissue and bone

A

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8
Q

Jony, 35 y.o, felt pain at gastrocnemius muscle of right foot since 3 days ago. Tightness (+). The best treatment is

a. US (1MHz, pulsed, 1.2 watt)
b. US (3MHz, continuous, 1.2 watt)
c. US (1MHz, continuous, 1.2 watt)
d. US (3MHz, pulsed, 1.2 watt)

A

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9
Q

Duty cycle is

a. Duration of pulse time (on)/pulse period (on+off)
b. Duration of pulse time (off)/pulse period (on+off)
c. Duration of pulse period (on+off) /pulse time (on)
d. Duration of pulse period (on+off) /pulse time (off)

A

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10
Q

Accordign to Beam Non-uniformity Ratio (BNR) in USD

a. Ideally machines should have a BNR of 6-7
b. BNR is the ratio between peak intensity and lowest intensity of the US beam
c. BNR is an important measurement because of the irregularity of the areas of intensity in the ultrasound beam
d. The higher the BNR the more uniform the US beam

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11
Q

The best coupling medium in ultrasound treatment is

a. Gel
b. Degassed water
c. Cream
d. Air

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12
Q

Which tissue has the lowest half-value depth in USD

a. Fatty tissue
b. Muscle
c. Bone
d. None of the above

A

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13
Q

The essential requirements of a couplant (coupling agent) are that it has

a. An acoustic impedance lower from the tissue being tested
b. High susceptibility to bubble formation
c. A chemically inactive nature
d. Low transmissivity for ultrasound

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14
Q

TRUE for ERA

a. ERA usually in the same size as the actual face of the treatment head
b. Using a 5 cm2 ERA is preferable in small area such as temporomandibular joint
c. The ERA normally cover 85% of the actual area
d. A 10 cm2 head of transducers offers more congruence with the skin than a 5 cm2 head

A

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15
Q

Contraindication of USD except

a. Pacemaker
b. Electronic implants
c. Metal implants
d. Atherosclerosis

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16
Q

To achieve a uniform electric field in SWD treatment

a. The size of electrodes should be a little larger than the part being treated
b. The size of electrodes should be the same as the part being treated
c. The size of electrodes should be a little smaller than the part being treated
d. The electrodes should be put in close spacing with the part being treated

A

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17
Q

According to the electrode positioning in SWD treatment
a. The coplanar technique also known as the transverse technique
b. The coplanar technique produces greater heating in superficial muscle and tissue close to the electrode
c. The crossfire technique is useful for treating the sinuses
The contraplanar technique is applied useing two electrode positions in succession

A

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18
Q

Electrodes should be avoided in obese or overweight patients in SWD treatment

a. Capacitive electrode
b. Drum-type electrode
c. Monode electrode
d. Inductive electrode

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19
Q

Magnetron is a part of

a. SWD
b. MWD
c. USD
d. IRR

A

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20
Q

Which statement true to physiological effects of MWD on the tissue

a. The amount of heating will be lower than the amount of absorbed radiation
b. Microwave are strongly absorbed by tissues of lower water and ion content
c. Heating from microwave radiation would be greatest in fatty tissue and bone
d. When the electromagnetic energy of microwave radiation is absorbed in the tissue, it will provoke ionic movement, rotation of expolles and electrons orbit distortion

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21
Q

The main mechanism of energy transfer in MWD is

a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Conversion

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22
Q 
The physiologic effect of heat in general
a.	Increased chronic inflammation
b.	Decreased acute inflammation
c.	Decreased bleeding
Increased edema
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23
Q

Attenuation process is

a. Occurs in SWD treatment
b. Occurs as ultrasonic waves travel through tissue and lose a proportion of their energy
c. The amount of the ultrasound beam which spread out from the transducer
d. Occurs mainly because of beam deflection

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24
Q

The most common technique of ultrasound application is

a. Circular technique
b. Strocking technique
c. Stationary technique
d. None of the above

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25
Q

The therapeutic target temperature of diathermy in tissue is generally considered to be

a. 38-40oC
b. 40-44oC
c. 45-48oC
d. 48-50oC

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26
Q

Standing waves in USD

a. Is produce especially in stationary techniques of US application
b. Is the product of the velocity of sound and the density of the medium
c. Is produced by stable cavitation
d. Is produced because of the difference in acousstic impedance

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27
Q

MWD

a. Is the therapeutic application of low frequency current
b. The use of 915 MHz would be advantageous over 2456 MHz
c. Techniques of application is condenser technique and induction coil
d. MWD consist of power supply, oscillating circuit and patients circuit

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28
Q

VO2 max refer to

a. The maximum amount of energy that can be produced by anaerobic metabolism
b. Unit of measurement of heat production by the body
c. The oxygen consumption rate
d. The rate of oxygen uptake during maximal exercise

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29
Q

BMI reading considered obese

a. 25-29.9
b. 30
c. 30 – 39.9
d. 40 kg/m2

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30
Q

What is a client in therapeutic exercise

a. Client are all individuals receiving physical therapy services
b. Client is an individual w/ impairment and functional limitations who is receiving physical therapy to improve function and prevent disability
c. Client is an individual w/o diagnosed dysfunction who engages in physical therapy services to promote health and wellness and to prevent dysfunction
d. Client is an individual w/ active participation in the rehab process to learn how to self manage their health need

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31
Q

Characteristic of alactic phase for energy production in exc training

a. Alactic phase is the 2nd stage of energy production during exc training
b. Alactic phase occurs during the 1st few seconds of heavy exc training
c. In alactic phase, stored muscle glycogen & glucose are broken down anaerobically via glycolysis
d. In alactic phase, lactate is reoxidized, phosphocreatine & ATP are replenished

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32
Q

Low risk category for waist circumferencce in adult female is

a. < 70 cm
b. 70-89 cm
c. 80-99 cm
d. 100-120 cm

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33
Q

Standardized procedures for skin fold measurement according to ACSM

a. Skin fold measurement can be made on both sides (R or L side) of the body
b. For abdominal skin fold measurement, the caliper should be place in horizontal position to measure horizontal skin fold
c. Take duplicate measures at each side and retest if duplicate measurement are not within 3-4 mm
d. Diagonal fold techniwues is to measure skinfold in subscapular region

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34
Q

Early exc program appropriate for obesity is

a. Walking
b. Running
c. Stair climbing
d. Jogging

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35
Q 
Room temperature for exc testing should be maintained at
a.	< 10 oC
b.	10-12 oC
c.	15-18 oC
20-22oC
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36
Q

What is the preparation/precaution for exc testing?

a. The participant should refrain from ingesting food, alcohol or caffeine or using tobacco products within 1 hours of testing
b. The participant should continue their medication if the test is for functional purposes
c. The participant is not free to stop the test at any point during exc testing
d. Drink ample fluids over the 10 hours period proceeding the test to ensure normal hydration before testing

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37
Q

General indication for stopping an exc testing in low risk adults is

a. Drop in systolic BP of > 20 mmHg from baseline BP despite an increase in work load
b. Shortness of breath and leg cramps
c. Rise in systolic BP > 200 mmHg
d. Rise in diastolic BP > 105 mmHg

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38
Q

Which frequency is sufficient to maintain or improve VO2 max for patient/participant who exercising at 77-90 % HR max?

a. 1-2 day/week
b. 3 day/week
c. 5 day/week
d. All day/week

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39
Q

What kind of endocrine response occurs during exc training

a. Increased cathecolamine productions
b. Decreased growth hormone productions
c. Increased insulin production
d. Decreaed endorphin production

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40
Q

The objective sign of muscular fatigue is
a. Muscle soreness
b. Muscle stiffness
c. Decreased precision of work performance
Muscle oedema

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41
Q

Gold standard measure for cardiorespiratory fitness is measurement of

a. METS
b. VO2 max
c. HR
d. Cardiac output

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42
Q 
The increase of metabolic demand placed on the heart during exc can be estimated by examining
a.	HR
b.	Cardiac output
c.	Rate-pressure product
Systolic BP
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43
Q

Which training generally refers to high-intensity activities and low activities periods

a. Interval training
b. Functional training
c. Circuit training
d. Cross training

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44
Q

To improve patient complience to physical training, the physical training should be

a. Quick and short to prevent boredom
b. Drastically change one’s life
c. Enjoyable
d. Cheap

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45
Q

Exercising at altitude will increase

a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Muscle mass
d. Lactic acid

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46
Q

The development of muscle coordination depends on

a. Repetition
b. Relaxation
c. Volition
d. Perception

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47
Q

What is the prerequisite for training of muscle control

a. It must be done as a group activity
b. The patient should not be encourage by the therapist
c. The patient must have intact proprioceptive
d. The patient should be allowed to have frequent short rest periods

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48
Q

Factor which increases coordination during muscle control training

a. Strong effort to produce a muscle contraction
b. When a patient is secured and relaxed
c. Long periods of inactivity
d. Excitement or strong emotion

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49
Q

Neuromuscular reeducation exc that appropriate for supraspinal lesion with hypotonia is

a. PNF
b. Brunnstrom techniques
c. Rood methods
d. Neuro developmental techniques (NDT)

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50
Q

Characteristic of proprioceptive exc

a. The main goal is to have the patient perform the activity deliberately
b. Proprioceptive exc using uncontrolled situation and environment
c. Proprioceptive exc start with dynamic activities
d. Repetition is always necessary in proprioceptive exc

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51
Q

Engram is

a. Ability to voluntary activate one motor unit or a small number of motor unit of a single muscle w/o activating any other muscle
b. Specific skill which acquired from learning process
c. Series of accurate practive which will lead to accurate performance
d. A precise automatic performance implying a preprogrammed pattern

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52
Q

The most important system in engram development

a. Corticospinal system
b. Pyramidal system
c. Extrapyramidal system
d. Sensory system

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53
Q

The 1st step in training of neuromuscular control in upper motor lesion is
a. To limit the intensity of effort from patient
b. To obtain relaxation of all muscle
c. To assist the patient to perform the task
To learn to control the muscle prime mover

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54
Q

Frenkel’s exc

a. Commonly used for impairment of proprioception due to peripheral nerve system pathology
b. Consist of only simple movement
c. Begin w/ the patient in sitting position
d. Is a series of exc to improve proprioception and coordination control in the LE

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55
Q

Which exc underscores the improvement of cardiovascular endurance

a. Aerobic
b. Anaerobic
c. Agility
d. Flexibility

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56
Q

The aerobic system process takes place in

a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. ATP
d. Mitochondria

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57
Q 
Molecular activity in the mitochondria of the cells is referred to as
a.	Glycolysis
b.	Cellular respiration
c.	Bioenergetic conversion
Beta-oxidization
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58
Q

Which type of muscle fibre used for quick contraction and does not require oxygen

a. Type I
b. IIA
c. IIB
d. Both b and c

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59
Q

Which of the following system is used for powerful but relatively short-lived physical action

a. Anaerobic system
b. Aerobic system
c. ATP-PC system
d. None of the above

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60
Q

Lactic acid builds up faster during exc when primarily using

a. Large amounts of oxygen
b. Larger muscles
c. Smaller muscles
d. None of the above

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61
Q 
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a slow twitch muscle fiber
a.	Low levels of myosin ATPase
b.	High level of glycolytic enzyme
c.	Red or dark in colour
None of the above
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62
Q

Physical fitness is

a. The range of numbers between which your heart and lungs receive the most benefit from the exercise
b. The ability to handle the physical demands of everyday life, w/o being overly tired
c. A regular activity and exercise that prepares a person for a sport
d. Intense physical activity that requires little oxygen but uses short burst of energy

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63
Q

In neuropraxia based on Seddon and Sunderland Classification of nerve injury you can find this figure

a. Muscle atrophy progressive
b. Interuption of axxon continuity
c. Distal nerve conduction is preserve
d. Motor unit action potential is absent

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64
Q

Neuropraxia occurs primarily because of

a. Axonal loss
b. Anterior horn cell damage
c. Disruption of axonal transport
d. Segmental failure of conduction

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65
Q

In plexus brachialis injury

a. Traction on the shoulder with the arm in the neutral or anatomic position causes injury to C5 and C6
b. The avulsion of the C8 root results in interruption of the sympathetic ganglion and cause a Horner’s Syndrome
c. Dry skin in an anesthetic area suggest a preganglionic lesion, on the contrary, a normal moist skin suggests a postganglionic lesion
d. Distal weakness typically affects most activities of daily living, including those requiring shoulder abduction, flexion, extension, and external rotation and elbow flexion

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66
Q

During a fight, a man is stabbed in the lateral chest beneath the right arm. The wound dose not enter the chest cavity. Physical examination reveals that the vertebral (medial) border of the scapula projects posteriorly and is closer to the midline on the injured side. One return visit the patient complaints that he cannot reach as far forward (such as to reach for a door knob) as he could before the injury. The nerve injured is

a. Radial
b. Axillary
c. Long thoracic
d. Musculocutaneous

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67
Q

Penetrating wound to anterior axillary fold  weakening of flexion of elbow, one or more other effects to be expected is

a. Only weakening of flexion at the shoulder
b. Loss of cutaneous sensation on the tips of several fingers
c. Only loss of cutaneous sensation on the anterolateral surface of the forearm
d. Weakening of flexion at the shoulder and loss of cutaneous sensation on the anterolateral surface of the forearm

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68
Q

The cords of the brachial plexus are

a. At or below the clavicle, closely related to the axillary vein
b. At or below the clavicle, closely related to the axillary artery
c. Above the clavicle, behind the scalenus anticus (anterior scalene)
d. Above the clavicle, medial to the scalenus anticus (anterior scalene)

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69
Q

Lacerated the anterior surface of wrist at the junciton of wrist and hand. Exam shows no loss of hand function, but the skin on the thumb side of his palm is numb. Brances of which nerve must have been severed?

a. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous
b. Medial antebrachial cutaneous
c. Median
d. ulnar

A

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