SO Closed Book Flashcards
Change out one crewmember at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the AC. The ___ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews.
Incoming PIC
Zoom lock prevents an inadvertent change in the selected FOV when________.
Firing LRD, LTM, LRD/LTM with auto track engaged
The LRD is firing at a degraded level (LRD LP DES). The energy output is approximately ___% or less. If a weapon has been released ___________. If a weapon has not been released, it is advised to____________.
65; continue to lase; abort and cycle the laser
T/F: Both LRD and LTM provide means of obtaining slant range info.
False
In the event the AC loses command link/uplink and enters the lost link profile, the lasers are automatically set to __ and ___.
OFF; disarmed
What are the max temperature limits for the MTS during an operation and non-operation?
+55 and +85*C
The MTS sensor can be used to inspect the ___ of the wing for ice accumulation.
Leading edge
Operational techniques, procedures, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
Caution
___ express non-mandatory provisions.
Should and May
The EPO switch disconnects ____.
All AC power from the GCS
There are 3 ranges of condition lever settings. The ___ position provides for normal ops, the detent position closes the fuel shutoff valve, and ___ position mechanically feathers the propeller and closes the fuel shutoff valve.
Full fwd; full aft
Outboard wing tanks feed the inboard tanks via___.
Gravity
Below what fuel feed pressure does the RCM turn on the electric fuel pump that is not in use to supply fuel from the header tank to the engine?
15psi
If the header tank exceeds ___psi, a return solenoid failure warning is downlinked to the GCS.
4.2
The transmission of the C-band LOS datalink is referred to as the ___ and ___, while Ku-band SATCOM transmissions are called ___ and ___.
Uplink and Downlink;
Command link and Return link
___ is indicated by a complete loss of HUD video with continuous presence of telemetry.
Video source failure
T/F: The laser PRF code is a direct reflection of the actual pulse rate. The higher PRF code, the faster the laser pulses.
False
The accuracy of estimated remaining flight time is reduced when the battery capacity is at or below ___%.
20
Do not allow the engine to windmill between ___ and ___% RPM.
18 and 28
Gear must be extended before the system drops below ___ volts. Attempting to lower gear with less than ___volts may cause complete loss of battery power.
22; 22
When the LRD is ON it typically draws ___ amps (the same as the MTS turret heater).
15
If the range to the target is 10km, what is the LTM spot height and width?
11x18m
Operational altitude for the LRD and LTM is___.
45,000ft
Fast blink fires the LTM ____ times per second. Slow blink fires the LTM ___.
3; once every 2 seconds
GCS generated payload graphics are created within ___ using the RS-422 telemetry data embedded in the downlink.
GCS
The deadband modifier can adjust the SOs joystick deadband between ___.
0-63
Never intentionally point the MTS at the sun. This renders the system inoperable for up to ___.
1 minute
GIM DIS ___ code means the EU to Ethernet communication has failed.
100
There are 2 over temperature warnings that can appear on the MTS HUD: WRA 1 OVHT (turret) and WRA 2 OVHT (electronics assembly). The temp threshold for both is ___.
85*C
When a tracked target is lost due to momentarily obscured, the track enters ____mode. This mode is indicated by the track gate corners___. If the system is able to require track, the track gate corners will return to a ___ display. If the system is unable to require the track, after ___ seconds it will automatically cancel the auto track ode and revert to rate mode.
Coast; flashing; solid; 2
Do NOT fire lasers at ____, flat glass, glazed ice, or any other reflective surface.
Still water
If the ___ tank fuel pressure does NOT recover and the level continues to drop, the engine will only run until the ___ tank is depleted.
Header; header
A jet pump manifold solenoid that fails ___ would prevent fuel from being pumped in the header tank and cause a ___ header tank level. Lockout the affected tank if required.
Closed; Low
___ mode is intended to provide the operator stable control of the MTS when flying directly over a target. Effective use of ___ mode requires the AC to fly directly towards the target and then have the target pass through nadir.
Vertical; vertical
If excessive gimbal bouncing is encountered while using ___mode, attempt to minimize the length of time that the mode is activated to prevent a possible GIM DIS condition.
Targeting
The point track function is designed to keep the sensor aligned with an area of ___.
Significant contrast
T/F: During the SO FENCE check, the general flow goes bottom-to-top and right-to-left.
False
T/F: Post-impact procedures include pilot commands for “CEASE LASER, SAFE LASER” and “MASER ARM SAFE.”
False
The ATLC mission consists of ___ waypoints that define the runway and flight pattern around the airfield.
10
Which two files are required for ATLC ops?
(A) profile & (C) runway
Once the AC ground speed is less than or equal to ___, ATLC logic will ramp the brakes to 100% over 2 seconds.
20knots
For ATLC LL logic, the RCM will wait ____ to establish if it is temporary or permanent dropout. If after ___, the link is still severed, the DCM will declare LL.
2 & 2 seconds
Crews must positively ID all targets prior to weapons release. For training sorties, achieve pos ID either ___ or by confirming ____ via valid onboard/off board cues.
Visually; target location
T/F: Stores can be jettisoned with nose gear extended.
False
DEADEYE
Laser Designation system inoperative
______ acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point.
CONTACT
______ means the specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.
CAPTURED
_____ is the sighting of a target, non-friendly AC, or enemy position. Opposite of _____.
TALLY; NO JOY
LRD PRF code range:
1111-1888
Do NOT power ON hellfires unnecessarily. Leaving it powered on for extended durations may___.
Decrease reliability
Which launch mode results in higher impact angles?
LOAL-High
Which launch mode results in a lower impact angle?
LOAL-Low
The PRF code entered into the GBU12/51 PRF setting does NOT change the PRF code set____________________.
By the load crew into the bombs CCG code select switches.
The hellfire gets its targeting parameters ______.
Directly from the MTS
The ____ has an increased fragmentation ring warhead.
AGM114/R9E
All personnel must remain clear of AC with hung-fire ordnance for ____ after last attempted launch.
1 hour
Type 3 control - once satisfied the attacking AC are correlated on the appropriate targets, the JTAC will provide attacking AC “CLEARED TO ENGAGE” or “TYPE 3 CONTINUE DRY” The attack aircrew will report __________ to JTAC.
“Commencing engagement” and “engagement complete”
If the JTAC required a specific attack heading for the weapon (but not the AC), that restriction ____ be stated clearly when the FAH is passed.
MUST
Which of the following manners can a JTAC use to provide target location during CAS brief (9line)?
(A) Lat/long, (B) grid coords., & (C) offset from known point
Friendly grids should not be passed if it can be avoided. If necessary, use no more than ___ digits.
6
Danger close, final attack headings, and TOTs are all examples of what during CAS briefing (9Line)?
Restrictions
________ targets are properly validated and placed in the joint target list. Deliberate targets are further broken down into 2 categories: scheduled and on-call.
Deliberate
Which role is not primary JTAC responsibility?
Location
UAS either FW or RW operate using similar CAS procedures to manned AC, to include airborne laser procedures. Which is NOT a unique consideration that needs to be addressed when using UAS?
Weapons loadout
Danger close for GBU 12 is
270meters
T/F: With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least 15ft.
False
T/F: The pilot will use the TGP to ensure AC is clear of obstructions during taxi?
False
Maintain safe taxi speeds at all times, not to exceeed _____ knots ground speed (KGS) on taxiway, ____KGS on runway, and less than ____KGS in turn 30* or greater.
10; 20; 6
Minimum taxi interval between MQ9 AC is : ___ft daytime, ___ft nighttime.
150; 300
Minimum runway length for MQ9 operation is ___ft.
5000
Minimum runway width for MQ9 is ____ft while min taxiway width is ___ft.
75; 50
Pilots will establish normal glide path by ___ft AGL. Descent rates greater than___ft per minute (FPM) below 200AGL, greater than ___FPM below 50AGL, airspeed more than ___KIAS below calculated approach speed, or a PIO/bounce requires a go-around.
200; 1200; 800; 5
Unless otherwise briefed, SO will announce altitude deviations exceeding +/- ___ft at the IAF, FAF, and min descent Alt, as well as when reaching descent height or missed approach point. IN OTHER WORDS ALL THE FUCKING TIME
100
For landing, place the MTS in position mode and display flight graphics on both PSO racks no later than ___ft AGL.
500
Minimum approach airspeed during SFO traffic pattern is stall speed plus ___ KIAS.
15
Forecast weather must be at or above AFI 11-2MQ9v3 minima at the ETA +/- ____.
1 hour
When actual or forecasted ceiling is below ____ft and visibility is less than ____NM, aircrew will increase recovery fuel to allow holding for ___ hours over the destination at max endurance speed,……
3000; 3; 2
A momentary increase in engine RPM and ___ during the shutdown process indicates the purge system is functioning.
EGT
To perform a normal engine shutdown, the pilot moves the throttle to the ___ position for a minimum of ___minutes.
Ground idle; 3
T/F: When power is applied to AC, INS function goes through a self-test aligns its sensors, and outputs attitude and navigation data. Moving the AC at this time is I’ll NOT AAFFECT THE INS attitude and nav results.
False
During AV preflight, many nav health status parameters are presented. The main concern for the operator is that FCA # stat is ____ and FCA # err is ___. Under normal conditions, this will take ____ minutes.
F7; 20; 7-9
The GPS key code 4400 means:
The P-code key is unverified, that it expires in 2 hour or less, and no keys were loaded.
During AV preflight the oil level should be ____% or above.
90
When running the transfer LOS/SATCOM, link test checklist, the pilot and crew chief must ensure the ground personnel are at least ____ft from the AC and the ___ are on before enabling SATCOM RL Tx.
70ft; strobe lights
If lights-off does NOT occur within ___seconds after 10% RPM, the start should be aborted.
10
Speed lever must be set to ___ for takeoff. Do not attempt to takeoff with speed lever in ___ position.
High; low
Nose gear temp can be monitored on VIT ___. If steering becomes jammed at full lock, apply steering _____ the direction of turn.
VIT 8; opposite
What EP checklist should you initiate if you experience degraded or frozen video and telemetry when low to the ground?
Total downlink failure below 2,000ft AGL or on ground
Max gear in transit speed is:
135
Crews may takeoff prior to a raised cable provided there is at least ___ft of runway or minimum required takeoff distance prior to raised cables.
5000
When an alternate airfield is not an option, aircrews will comply with the following ceiling/visibility requirements: the worst weather must be at or below ceiling of ___or___ above the lowest compatible minima and a visibility of ___or___miles above lowest compatible minima.
800; 500
2; 1
The shape of the GDT horn antenna (wide) allows the GDT to easily acquire the AC at approximately ___NM.
5.5
What must be considered if landing with a flat main tire?
A & B
(GEN2IR) An error exists within the scaling of the IR nose camera, resulting in HUD overlay and flight path marker (FPM) offsets. The HUD overlay graphics and FPM may be up to ___* off and may not reflect the actual AC attitude or aimpoint, which could result in steep/shallow approaches or nose-first landings.
2
Set ___ for comm. delay RMIT
1.25sec
Bingo fuel
600lbs
Who is responsible for checking AC forms during changeout?
PIC
Crew will preface laser call with:
Training
Standard load-out A is:
2x R9E, 2x R2, 2x GBU12
During losing Hand Over ops, crews will set the second waypoint of the ops mission to “lost link ok” with a ____ minute loiter.
30
What’s the primary question aircrew should ask themselves regarding the law of war principle of proportionality?
Does the military advantage outweigh the anticipated collateral cost if this target is struck?