SO Closed Book

Question 1

Change out one crewmember at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the AC. The ___ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace crews.

Answer 1

Incoming PIC

Question 2

Zoom lock prevents an inadvertent change in the selected FOV when________.

Answer 2

Firing LRD, LTM, LRD/LTM with auto track engaged

Question 3

The LRD is firing at a degraded level (LRD LP DES). The energy output is approximately ___% or less. If a weapon has been released ___________. If a weapon has not been released, it is advised to____________.

Answer 3

65; continue to lase; abort and cycle the laser

Question 4

T/F: Both LRD and LTM provide means of obtaining slant range info.

Answer 4

False

Question 5

In the event the AC loses command link/uplink and enters the lost link profile, the lasers are automatically set to __ and ___.

Answer 5

OFF; disarmed

Question 6

What are the max temperature limits for the MTS during an operation and non-operation?

Answer 6

+55 and +85*C

Question 7

The MTS sensor can be used to inspect the ___ of the wing for ice accumulation.

Answer 7

Leading edge

Question 8

Operational techniques, procedures, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.

Answer 8

Caution

Question 9

___ express non-mandatory provisions.

Answer 9

Should and May

Question 10

The EPO switch disconnects ____.

Answer 10

All AC power from the GCS

Question 11

There are 3 ranges of condition lever settings. The ___ position provides for normal ops, the detent position closes the fuel shutoff valve, and ___ position mechanically feathers the propeller and closes the fuel shutoff valve.

Answer 11

Full fwd; full aft

Question 12

Outboard wing tanks feed the inboard tanks via___.

Answer 12

Gravity

Question 13

Below what fuel feed pressure does the RCM turn on the electric fuel pump that is not in use to supply fuel from the header tank to the engine?

Answer 13

15psi

Question 14

If the header tank exceeds ___psi, a return solenoid failure warning is downlinked to the GCS.

Answer 14

4.2

Question 15

The transmission of the C-band LOS datalink is referred to as the ___ and ___, while Ku-band SATCOM transmissions are called ___ and ___.

Answer 15

Uplink and Downlink;
Command link and Return link

Question 16

___ is indicated by a complete loss of HUD video with continuous presence of telemetry.

Answer 16

Video source failure

Question 17

T/F: The laser PRF code is a direct reflection of the actual pulse rate. The higher PRF code, the faster the laser pulses.

Answer 17

False

Question 18

The accuracy of estimated remaining flight time is reduced when the battery capacity is at or below ___%.

Answer 18

20

Question 19

Do not allow the engine to windmill between ___ and ___% RPM.

Answer 19

18 and 28

Question 20

Gear must be extended before the system drops below ___ volts. Attempting to lower gear with less than ___volts may cause complete loss of battery power.

Answer 20

22; 22

Question 21

When the LRD is ON it typically draws ___ amps (the same as the MTS turret heater).

Answer 21

15

Question 22

If the range to the target is 10km, what is the LTM spot height and width?

Answer 22

11x18m

Question 23

Operational altitude for the LRD and LTM is___.

Answer 23

45,000ft

Question 24

Fast blink fires the LTM ____ times per second. Slow blink fires the LTM ___.

Answer 24

3; once every 2 seconds

Question 25

GCS generated payload graphics are created within ___ using the RS-422 telemetry data embedded in the downlink.

Answer 25

GCS

Question 26

The deadband modifier can adjust the SOs joystick deadband between ___.

Answer 26

0-63

Question 27

Never intentionally point the MTS at the sun. This renders the system inoperable for up to ___.

Answer 27

1 minute

Question 28

GIM DIS ___ code means the EU to Ethernet communication has failed.

Answer 28

100

Question 29

There are 2 over temperature warnings that can appear on the MTS HUD: WRA 1 OVHT (turret) and WRA 2 OVHT (electronics assembly). The temp threshold for both is ___.

Answer 29

85*C

Question 30

When a tracked target is lost due to momentarily obscured, the track enters ____mode. This mode is indicated by the track gate corners___. If the system is able to require track, the track gate corners will return to a ___ display. If the system is unable to require the track, after ___ seconds it will automatically cancel the auto track ode and revert to rate mode.

Answer 30

Coast; flashing; solid; 2

Question 31

Do NOT fire lasers at ____, flat glass, glazed ice, or any other reflective surface.

Answer 31

Still water

Question 32

If the ___ tank fuel pressure does NOT recover and the level continues to drop, the engine will only run until the ___ tank is depleted.

Answer 32

Header; header

Question 33

A jet pump manifold solenoid that fails ___ would prevent fuel from being pumped in the header tank and cause a ___ header tank level. Lockout the affected tank if required.

Answer 33

Closed; Low

Question 34

___ mode is intended to provide the operator stable control of the MTS when flying directly over a target. Effective use of ___ mode requires the AC to fly directly towards the target and then have the target pass through nadir.

Answer 34

Vertical; vertical

Question 35

If excessive gimbal bouncing is encountered while using ___mode, attempt to minimize the length of time that the mode is activated to prevent a possible GIM DIS condition.

Answer 35

Targeting

Question 36

The point track function is designed to keep the sensor aligned with an area of ___.

Answer 36

Significant contrast

Question 37

T/F: During the SO FENCE check, the general flow goes bottom-to-top and right-to-left.

Answer 37

False

Question 38

T/F: Post-impact procedures include pilot commands for “CEASE LASER, SAFE LASER” and “MASER ARM SAFE.”

Answer 38

False

Question 39

The ATLC mission consists of ___ waypoints that define the runway and flight pattern around the airfield.

Answer 39

10

Question 40

Which two files are required for ATLC ops?

Answer 40

(A) profile & (C) runway

Question 41

Once the AC ground speed is less than or equal to ___, ATLC logic will ramp the brakes to 100% over 2 seconds.

Answer 41

20knots

Question 42

For ATLC LL logic, the RCM will wait ____ to establish if it is temporary or permanent dropout. If after ___, the link is still severed, the DCM will declare LL.

Answer 42

2 & 2 seconds

Question 43

Crews must positively ID all targets prior to weapons release. For training sorties, achieve pos ID either ___ or by confirming ____ via valid onboard/off board cues.

Answer 43

Visually; target location

Question 44

T/F: Stores can be jettisoned with nose gear extended.

Answer 44

False

Question 45

DEADEYE

Answer 45

Laser Designation system inoperative

Question 46

______ acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point.

Answer 46

CONTACT

Question 47

______ means the specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.

Answer 47

CAPTURED

Question 48

_____ is the sighting of a target, non-friendly AC, or enemy position. Opposite of _____.

Answer 48

TALLY; NO JOY

Question 49

LRD PRF code range:

Answer 49

1111-1888

Question 50

Do NOT power ON hellfires unnecessarily. Leaving it powered on for extended durations may___.

Answer 50

Decrease reliability

Question 51

Which launch mode results in higher impact angles?

Answer 51

LOAL-High

Question 52

Which launch mode results in a lower impact angle?

Answer 52

LOAL-Low

Question 53

The PRF code entered into the GBU12/51 PRF setting does NOT change the PRF code set____________________.

Answer 53

By the load crew into the bombs CCG code select switches.

Question 54

The hellfire gets its targeting parameters ______.

Answer 54

Directly from the MTS

Question 55

The ____ has an increased fragmentation ring warhead.

Answer 55

AGM114/R9E

Question 56

All personnel must remain clear of AC with hung-fire ordnance for ____ after last attempted launch.

Answer 56

1 hour

Question 57

Type 3 control - once satisfied the attacking AC are correlated on the appropriate targets, the JTAC will provide attacking AC “CLEARED TO ENGAGE” or “TYPE 3 CONTINUE DRY” The attack aircrew will report __________ to JTAC.

Answer 57

“Commencing engagement” and “engagement complete”

Question 58

If the JTAC required a specific attack heading for the weapon (but not the AC), that restriction ____ be stated clearly when the FAH is passed.

Answer 58

MUST

Question 59

Which of the following manners can a JTAC use to provide target location during CAS brief (9line)?

Answer 59

(A) Lat/long, (B) grid coords., & (C) offset from known point

Question 60

Friendly grids should not be passed if it can be avoided. If necessary, use no more than ___ digits.

Answer 60

6

Question 61

Danger close, final attack headings, and TOTs are all examples of what during CAS briefing (9Line)?

Answer 61

Restrictions

Question 62

________ targets are properly validated and placed in the joint target list. Deliberate targets are further broken down into 2 categories: scheduled and on-call.

Answer 62

Deliberate

Question 63

Which role is not primary JTAC responsibility?

Answer 63

Location

Question 64

UAS either FW or RW operate using similar CAS procedures to manned AC, to include airborne laser procedures. Which is NOT a unique consideration that needs to be addressed when using UAS?

Answer 64

Weapons loadout

Question 65

Danger close for GBU 12 is

Answer 65

270meters

Question 66

T/F: With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least 15ft.

Answer 66

False

Question 67

T/F: The pilot will use the TGP to ensure AC is clear of obstructions during taxi?

Answer 67

False

Question 68

Maintain safe taxi speeds at all times, not to exceeed _____ knots ground speed (KGS) on taxiway, ____KGS on runway, and less than ____KGS in turn 30* or greater.

Answer 68

10; 20; 6

Question 69

Minimum taxi interval between MQ9 AC is : ___ft daytime, ___ft nighttime.

Answer 69

150; 300

Question 70

Minimum runway length for MQ9 operation is ___ft.

Answer 70

5000

Question 71

Minimum runway width for MQ9 is ____ft while min taxiway width is ___ft.

Answer 71

75; 50

Question 72

Pilots will establish normal glide path by ___ft AGL. Descent rates greater than___ft per minute (FPM) below 200AGL, greater than ___FPM below 50AGL, airspeed more than ___KIAS below calculated approach speed, or a PIO/bounce requires a go-around.

Answer 72

200; 1200; 800; 5

Question 73

Unless otherwise briefed, SO will announce altitude deviations exceeding +/- ___ft at the IAF, FAF, and min descent Alt, as well as when reaching descent height or missed approach point. IN OTHER WORDS ALL THE FUCKING TIME

Answer 73

100

Question 74

For landing, place the MTS in position mode and display flight graphics on both PSO racks no later than ___ft AGL.

Answer 74

500

Question 75

Minimum approach airspeed during SFO traffic pattern is stall speed plus ___ KIAS.

Answer 75

15

Question 76

Forecast weather must be at or above AFI 11-2MQ9v3 minima at the ETA +/- ____.

Answer 76

1 hour

Question 77

When actual or forecasted ceiling is below ____ft and visibility is less than ____NM, aircrew will increase recovery fuel to allow holding for ___ hours over the destination at max endurance speed,……

Answer 77

3000; 3; 2

Question 78

A momentary increase in engine RPM and ___ during the shutdown process indicates the purge system is functioning.

Answer 78

EGT

Question 79

To perform a normal engine shutdown, the pilot moves the throttle to the ___ position for a minimum of ___minutes.

Answer 79

Ground idle; 3

Question 80

T/F: When power is applied to AC, INS function goes through a self-test aligns its sensors, and outputs attitude and navigation data. Moving the AC at this time is I’ll NOT AAFFECT THE INS attitude and nav results.

Answer 80

False

Question 81

During AV preflight, many nav health status parameters are presented. The main concern for the operator is that FCA # stat is ____ and FCA # err is ___. Under normal conditions, this will take ____ minutes.

Answer 81

F7; 20; 7-9

Question 82

The GPS key code 4400 means:

Answer 82

The P-code key is unverified, that it expires in 2 hour or less, and no keys were loaded.

Question 83

During AV preflight the oil level should be ____% or above.

Answer 83

90

Question 84

When running the transfer LOS/SATCOM, link test checklist, the pilot and crew chief must ensure the ground personnel are at least ____ft from the AC and the ___ are on before enabling SATCOM RL Tx.

Answer 84

70ft; strobe lights

Question 85

If lights-off does NOT occur within ___seconds after 10% RPM, the start should be aborted.

Answer 85

10

Question 86

Speed lever must be set to ___ for takeoff. Do not attempt to takeoff with speed lever in ___ position.

Answer 86

High; low

Question 87

Nose gear temp can be monitored on VIT ___. If steering becomes jammed at full lock, apply steering _____ the direction of turn.

Answer 87

VIT 8; opposite

Question 88

What EP checklist should you initiate if you experience degraded or frozen video and telemetry when low to the ground?

Answer 88

Total downlink failure below 2,000ft AGL or on ground

Question 89

Max gear in transit speed is:

Answer 89

135

Question 90

Crews may takeoff prior to a raised cable provided there is at least ___ft of runway or minimum required takeoff distance prior to raised cables.

Answer 90

5000

Question 91

When an alternate airfield is not an option, aircrews will comply with the following ceiling/visibility requirements: the worst weather must be at or below ceiling of ___or___ above the lowest compatible minima and a visibility of ___or___miles above lowest compatible minima.

Answer 91

800; 500
2; 1

Question 92

The shape of the GDT horn antenna (wide) allows the GDT to easily acquire the AC at approximately ___NM.

Answer 92

5.5

Question 93

What must be considered if landing with a flat main tire?

Answer 93

A & B

Question 94

(GEN2IR) An error exists within the scaling of the IR nose camera, resulting in HUD overlay and flight path marker (FPM) offsets. The HUD overlay graphics and FPM may be up to ___* off and may not reflect the actual AC attitude or aimpoint, which could result in steep/shallow approaches or nose-first landings.

Answer 94

2

Question 95

Set ___ for comm. delay RMIT

Answer 95

1.25sec

Question 96

Bingo fuel

Answer 96

600lbs

Question 97

Who is responsible for checking AC forms during changeout?

Answer 97

PIC

Question 98

Crew will preface laser call with:

Answer 98

Training

Question 99

Standard load-out A is:

Answer 99

2x R9E, 2x R2, 2x GBU12

Question 100

During losing Hand Over ops, crews will set the second waypoint of the ops mission to “lost link ok” with a ____ minute loiter.

Answer 100

30

Question 101

What’s the primary question aircrew should ask themselves regarding the law of war principle of proportionality?

Answer 101

Does the military advantage outweigh the anticipated collateral cost if this target is struck?