JI Flashcards

1
Q

To whom does the OPCON over all AC, aircrews, maintainers, etc. in the combatant command belong to?

A

JFC

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2
Q

Where does the JFACC plan, task, and control Air and Space ops?

A

JAOC

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3
Q

The role ____, which plans, tasks, and controls operations from the JAOC and is appointed by the JFC.

A

JFACC

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4
Q

How is the Combined AOC (CAOC) manned?

A

Multi-service and multinational forces

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5
Q

Who has TACON over CAS missions?

A

Air Support Ops Center CC (ASOC)

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6
Q

Who is your first level of assistance if your AC is experiencing mechanical issues while on a mission?

A

Sq Ops Center (SOC)

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7
Q

Command authority over assigned forces that are limited to the detailed direction and control of movements within the operational area necessary to accomplish assigned tasks

A

TACON

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8
Q

Theater Air to Ground System (TAGS)

A

Arrangement of orgs, PAX, policies, procedures, and facilities required to perform airspace control functions

AF brings its Theater Air Control System (TACS) to the TAGS

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9
Q

What does the AF TACS provide the COMAFFOR?

A

The means to provide centralized control and decentralized execution

(COMAFFOR=JFACC)

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10
Q

What center continuously scans the airspace for friend or foe?

A

CRC

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11
Q

What 4 of the 12 functional areas of the AFDD-1 can RPAs be tasked with?

A

PR
Global Precision Attack
Global Integrated ISR
SecOps

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12
Q

Strike Coord. and Reconnaissance (SCAR)

A

Use AC to detect targets for AI missions in a specified geographic zone

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13
Q

CAS

A

Air action against targets that are in close proximity to friendlies and require detailed integration

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14
Q

AI

A

Divert, Delay, Disrupt, Destroy an enemy’s potential

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15
Q

PCPAD

A

Planning & direction
Collection
Processing & exploitation
Analysis and production
Dissemination

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16
Q

METT-TC

A

Mission
Enemy
Terrain&weather
Troops&support
Time available
Civilians

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17
Q

7 basic weapons effects

A

Armor penetration
Hard target penetration
Fragmentation
Blast
Incendiary
Cratering
Thermobaric

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18
Q

What TGPs can the F16 carry?

A

LANTRIN
LITENING
AT FLIR
SNIPER XR

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19
Q

Which AC utilizes the 30mm and 114?

A

AH 64

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20
Q

Which bomb can the F15 carry?

A

GBU38

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21
Q

AV8B TGPs

A

LITENING
LANTRIN

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22
Q

Which weapon does the Mirage carry?

A

GBU12

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23
Q

The ___ was designed primarily for on-call/surge capability for improved tactical ISR for specops.

A

U28

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24
Q

Battle Management AC with ANAPY7 radar

A

E8 JSTARS

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25
Q

If the Collateral Damage Estimate (CDE is LOW, ____ analysis and use a mitigated attack profile to engage.

A

STOP

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26
Q

A radius representing the largest collateral hazard distance for a given warhead, weapon, or weapon class considering predetermined, acceptable collateral damage criteria established for each CDE level

A

Collateral Effects Radius (CER)

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27
Q

A physical or virtual object defined by the law of war, functionally characterized as noncombatant in nature, and protected from the effects of military operations under international law and/or the rules of engagement.

A

No-Strike Entity (NSE)

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28
Q

What is a degraded mode of CDE typically conducted by JRACs, FOs, or aircrew during dynamic targeting when there is a time-constrained opportunity to engage a target.

A

Field Collateral Damage Estimate (CDE)

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29
Q

A form of collateral effect that causes unintentional or incidental injury/death or damage to persons or objects that wouldn’t be lawful military targets in the circumstances ruling at the time.

A

Collateral Damage (CD)

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30
Q

Counterland Ops

A

AirPower ops against enemy land force capabilities to create effects that achieve JFC objectives

31
Q

5 elements of a SCAR mission:

A

-Aircrew
-Interdiction assets
-C2
-RSTA (Reconnaissance, Surveillance, & TA)
-And support

32
Q

3 SCAR Tasking Types:

A

INVESTIGATE
TARGET
SMACK

33
Q

Joint Integrated Prioritized Target List (JIPTL)

A

Prioritized list of targets
Approved & maintained by JFC

34
Q

What mission type is tasked for on-call targets that may be retasked during execution for targets of opportunity? (also referred to as armed reconnaissance)

A

Airborne Alert AI (XAI)

35
Q

Who has the authority to direct strikers in support of a SCAR mission to proceed against appropriate targets using INVESTIGATE, TARGET, and SMACK taskings?

A

The SCAR Aircrew

36
Q

5 PR Execution tasks:

A

Report
Locate
Support
Recover
Reintegrate

37
Q

CSARTF

A

Protects the survivor on the ground before and during recovery, and the recovery force package from small arms, surface to air, air to air, and air to ground threats

38
Q

Airspace Coordination Area (ACA)

A

Primary Fire Support Control Measure (FSCM)

Allows indirect fires to occur in a a target area, while keeping AC reasonably safe from those surface fires

39
Q

3 types of Airspace Control Measures (ACMs)

A

High Density Airspace Control Zone (HIDACZ)
ROZ
Minimum Risk Route (MRR)

40
Q

CAS 9 Line Breakdown:

A

1) Initial point/battle position
2) heading and offset
3) distance
4) target elevation
5) target description
6) target location
7) type mark/terminal guidance
8) location of friendlies
9) egress
Remarks/Restrictions

41
Q

12 Steps Of CAS

A

Routing/safety of flight
CAS checkin
SITREP
Game Plan
CAS 9Line
R/R
Read backs
Correlation
Attack
Assess effects
BDA
Routing/safety of flight

42
Q

Nonlinear Ops/ Counterinsurgency (COIN) CAS

A

Destroying enemy forces, even if it means losing physical contact with friendlies.
ISR heavy

43
Q

Which step of the 12-step CAS process should modification or a common sense check be discussed?

A

Correlation

44
Q

What’s the primary question aircrew should ask themselves regarding the law of war principle of proportionality?

A

Does the military advantage outweigh the anticipated collateral cost if this target is struck?

45
Q

In general, the authority or responsibility for the expenditure of any weapon in the military normally rest with whom?

A

Supported commander

46
Q

What is Combat identification defined as?

A

The process of attaining an accurate characterization of detected objects in the operational environment sufficient to support an engagement decision (CDE)

47
Q

An identification derived from observation and analysis of target characteristics, including visual recognition, electronic warfare support systems, non-cooperative target recognition techniques, identification, friend or foe systems, or other physics-based identification processes?

A

PID

48
Q

A process normally performed by trained and certified personnel at various echelons and is intended to characterize the level and extent of collateral damage risk for commanders.

A

CDE

49
Q

This particular policy outlines DOD procedures identifying medical, educational diplomatic cultural historical and religious sites and other property as a no strike entity.

A

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) Policy

50
Q

Which of the following is defined as a JFC validated target or set of targets requiring immediate response because it is a highly lucrative fleeting target of opportunity or poses a potential danger to friendly forces?

A

Time Sensitive Target (TST)

51
Q

When you’re conducting AI mission planning which of the following are target area environmental considerations?

A

Restrictive terrain and weather

52
Q

Which AI execution task is accomplished during the egress phase?

A

Passing the in-flight report

53
Q

From whom does the SCAR aircrew derive their authority to conduct interdiction through the ATO or the C2 element?

A

JFC

54
Q

Which type of Kill box is primarily used for the attack of surface targets with air to surface munitions without further coordination with the AO commander?

A

Blue

55
Q

Following striker check in with the SCAR who will pass the AO situation update to the striker asset?

A

SCAR Aircrew

56
Q

For bombers, what is the minimum recommend holding airspace when operating in a GARS enabled Kill Box?

A

30x15 nm

57
Q

Whose responsibility is it to execute a battlefield handover when transferring the role to another SCAR Aircrew?

A

The SCAR Aircrew

58
Q

In Naval doctrine, which warfare commander is responsible for projecting power ashore the aircraft and tomahawk land attack missiles?

A

The Strike Warfare Commander (SIWC)

59
Q

What does a search and rescue point (SARDOT) refer to during a PR mission?

A

A pre-designated specific location relative to which isolated personnel provide their position to recovery forces in a covert manner.

60
Q

Which theater publication will dictate the methods used to pass information during a PR mission?

A

SPINS

61
Q

When you’re mission planning for immediate PR situations, which two EEI’s should provide initial situation awareness of the battle space?

A

Daily enemy order of battle (EOB)
Threat assessments

62
Q

What should the initial on scene commander do prior to committing recovery forces in a threat environment?

A

Authenticate and Locate the IP

63
Q

Who is authorized to conduct terminal attack controls

A

JTAC

64
Q

Which C2 agency do you confirm CAS tasking at initial check in route to the working area?

A

ASOC

65
Q

What’s the minimum information that should be included in the gameplan when talking about CAS?

A

Type of control
Method of attack

66
Q

What’s the format that the JTAC uses to pass specific information on the target to be attacked?

A

9-line

67
Q

Which type of CAS control allows for multiple attacks within a single engagement?

A

Type 3

68
Q

When is a post launch abort require to be pre briefed during a situation update or 9 line?

A

When approved by the ground commander

69
Q

During a keyhole CAS operation, what does the point B reference?

A

Direction EAST of the target

70
Q

What method is used to brief a coordinated attack?

A

TIES

71
Q

How can the MQ9 assist the convoy commander during a convoy escort armed overwatch?

A

Provide real-time SA

72
Q

When conducting the CDE process, if the output of CDE-3 analysis is CDE 3 LOW, then:

A

Stop analysis and use the specific attack profile, fused PGM and DPI

73
Q

Which AOMSW mission provides reconnaissance and surveillance to support the maritime commander’s objective?

A

Surface, Surveillance, Coordination (SSCR)