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IQT > AH > Flashcards

AH Flashcards

1
Q

What runway is the PRIMARY for RPA departure/arrival at March?

A

14 for departures & 32 for arrivals

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2
Q

What taxiways are most commonly used for RPA departures/arrivals at March?

A

A
B
C
D
F

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3
Q

What raceway is the fastest to runway 14 at March?

A

F (Foxtrot)

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4
Q

What is the critical extent of March class-C airspace?

A

Surface-4,000ft MSL

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5
Q

What type of clearance instructions are provided by Clearance Delivery prior to IFR departure from March?

A

AC callsign
Clearance limit
Depart procedure
SID
Route OF Flight
Altitude data
ATC freq & transponder code

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6
Q

What are the primary & alternate RPA hold/orbit points established for use by March?

A

Hold: Lake Perris
Alt hold: High Key

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7
Q

What is the normal MQ9 pattern altitude at March?

A

3,000ft MSL

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8
Q

What controlling agency assigns altitudes and timing for RPA hold/orbit points inside March Class-C?

A

Tower?

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9
Q

Where is the entry waypoint located for the March ATLC E-mission?

A

Point Cobra

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10
Q

Once inside your assigned RPA airspace, you’ll operate under MARSA. What does this signify?

A

Deconfliction from each other

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11
Q

During climbs and descents within your assigned RPA airspace, what is the primary action pilots must take to ensure aircraft deconfliction?

A

Make request with desert radio

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12
Q

What is the standard routing used by March for MQ9 ops?

A

GRIZLY Route

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13
Q

What agency will you coordinate with when taking off from KRIV & transitioning into R2502N/E working airspace?

A

Tower
SoCal
Sport
Desert Radio

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14
Q

What should RPA crews consider when calculating their JOKER for training missions in standard March RPA airspace?

A

Required fuel for training events prior to RTB

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15
Q

How is BINGO calculated for RPA missions?

A

Adding RTB fuel to the Normal Recovery Fuel

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16
Q

When ready to RTB, which controlling agency should be contacted for clearance off range prior to exiting the airspace?

A

Desert radio/sundance

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17
Q

Once clear of R2502 and established in R2515 for RTB, what is the planned COA RTB altitude?

A

9,500

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18
Q

What must be on file to depart KRIV?

A

Signed flight plan (DD1801)

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19
Q

Before entering R2515 (4-corners), which controlling agency should you contact for clearance?

A

Sport

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20
Q

Before entering or leaving R2502, which controlling agency should you get in touch with?

A

Desert Radio

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21
Q

When flying in R2502 N/E, to which controlling agency should Grizzle AC direct their reporting and deconfliction calls?

A

Desert Radio

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22
Q

When flying in R2502 N/E, to which controlling agency should Grizzle AC direct their reporting and deconfliction calls?

A

Desert Radio

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23
Q

What is a mandatory requirement for AC entering the R2502 N/E range control airspace for inert weapons drops?

A

Scheduled airspace from surface to operating altitude

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24
Q

What is the specific procedure for Grizzly AC when conducting reporting and deconfliction calls in R2502?

A

Every 30 minutes
“Desert Radio, Grizzly52 checking in 18,000, ops normal.”

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25
Q

What actions will the RPA take in the event of a LL?

A

It will fly the preprogrammed E-mission which will terminate in the last 6 waypoints
LL loiter

26
Q

During departure from KRIV, what routing will you set the E-mission in the assigned airspace?

A

Follow the cleared departure route and delay in the assigned airspace for >30minutes before recovering.

27
Q

What is the squawk code assigned to the LL E-mission?

A

7400

28
Q

Which dispays are available to crew for plotting targets and relevant info to enhance mission continuity and SA?

A

TacSit
Tracker

29
Q

During transit, why should TacSit displays typically be zoomed out & center on working airspace?

A

Comprehensive view of relevant airspace, restrictions, and traffic en route

30
Q

When prioritizing arrival to target, what is the typical speed used for flying ?

A

Max speed for velocity

Max range for efficiency

Max speed for time-critical

31
Q

Which tracker display functions and modes can be utilized for basic navigation?

A

Fly Here (direct to) function
Control Point “fly here” function
Preprogrammed flight modes

32
Q

How do crew members typically determine ETA to a target location?

A

Add Total time to the Zulu/GMT time

33
Q

Why does the crew need to update the E-mission start point during transit?

A

To ensure AC follows desired path within cleared/deconflicted airspace if LL

34
Q

What is one advantage (and disadvantage) of a wheel hold?

A

Advantage: provides SA on target from all aspects
Disadvantage: constantly changing aspect of target area

35
Q

What is one advantage and disadvantage of the figure eight holding pattern?

A

A: allows consistent look angle throughout
D: increased pilot workload

36
Q

What is one advantage and disadvantage of the figure eight holding pattern?

A

A: allows consistent look angle throughout
D: increased pilot workload

37
Q

What is the most effective way to prevent Nadir?

A

Solid cross check on azimuth & depression

Action to prevent Nadir at 69

38
Q

What are the first 3 steps of kill change process F2T2?

A

Find
Fix
Track

39
Q

What are the 3 target types associated with the target acquisition process and what are the characteristics?

A

Static
Moving
Mobile

40
Q

What are the 5 steps of the CBEAR process?

A

Comm
Build
Execute
Assess
Report

41
Q

What are the various sensor cuing method used to quickly get to the MTS on coordinates?

A

Targeting/cross cue
Walk on
GPS & altimetry

42
Q

Which mode is used to quickly slew the MTS to the target area?

A

Targeting

43
Q

What are the 3 most common objectives of the Track step of the kill chain process?

A

Collection
Exploitation
Maintaining custody

44
Q

What are the TRB and how many are available for use on the MTS toolbar and AMS?

A

Buttons on MTS for DESIGNATING targets;
4 TRBs on MTS toolbar and 20 in AMS

45
Q

What are TRBs? And how many are available on MTS and AMS?

A

Buttons on MTS for DESIGNATING targets; 4 TRBs are available on MTS toolbar and 20 is AMS

46
Q

What are the 2 primary track modes used to maintain tracks on targets?

A

Manual
Auto

47
Q

What are moving targets and some examples?

A

Currently in motion
Cars/surface vessels, aircraft, motorbikes

48
Q

T/F Dismounted personnel in motion are considered moving targets?

A

False

49
Q

Which auto track modes are recommended for use when tracking moving targets?

A

Point
Feature

50
Q

During flight, what are the most common admin checks performed by the crew?

A

Battle damage
Airborne ord checks/weather sweep
In-flight ops checks, fence checks

51
Q

What does an airborne ord check consist of and when is it typically conducted?

A

Visual confirmation with MTS of weapon condition and expenditure shortly after takeoff

52
Q

What does a battle Check consist of and when is it conducted?

A

Both airborne ord Check and visual inspection of aircraft prior to RTB

53
Q

What is the primary benefit in conducting in flight ops checks?

A

Detect developing malfunctions before they become an emergency

54
Q

What are the 3 steps or mantra of the prioritized fence check?

A

Kill
See
Cleanup

55
Q

What is the 4 letter mnemonic commonly used to identify AC features?

A

WEFT

56
Q

What is a SA-8 GECKO and how would you describe it?

A

Radar guided tactical SAM
Easily identified
6 wheels on stretched chassis

57
Q

What are the identifiable features of towed filed artillery?

A

Long range
Indirect fire support
Med-large bore main gun
Towed & self-propelled
Requires anchors

58
Q

What type of instrument is Radar and how does it work?

A

Timing instrument
Uses radio waves to determine, range angle, or velocity of objects

59
Q

What are the 3 primary imaging modes of SAR?

A

Spot
Brickmap
GeoRef

60
Q

What are the 2 MTI modes available in SAR?

A

Spot
Arc

61
Q

In the CLAW, how can a spot image be commanded?

A

Right-click on area select spot

Select spot image tab and define image parameters

62
Q

What info does the CLAW master caution icon provide?

A

System status messages

IQT (7 decks)

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