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RUSVM Large Animal Medicine II > Small Ruminant Questions > Flashcards

Small Ruminant Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following diseases has an effective vaccination for prevention in sheep?

  • Listeriosis
  • Foot rot
  • Johne’s disease
  • Scrapie
  • Caprine arthritis encephalitis
A

Foot rot​

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2
Q

What element should be added to the ration when there is an outbreak of urethral calculi in a sheep facility?

A

calcium

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3
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for this sheep noted to be grazing on the knees?

A

ovine foot rot

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4
Q

Which one of the following is a reportable chronic wasting neurological disease of sheep?

  • Paratuberculosis
  • Scrapie
  • Babesiosis
  • Cryptosporidiosis
  • Coccidiosis
A

Scrapie​

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5
Q

T/F: Scrapie is a disease mostly of sheep, although any sheep or goat breed may be affected

A

True

The disease is characterized by an insidious onset of clinical signs and affects the Suffolk breed primarily because of a genetic predisposition. There is no treatment for this disease​

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6
Q

T/F: Treatment of caseous lymphadenitis with large doses of antibiotics usually results in resolution of disease within 2 months

A

False

There is no effective treatment for this organism. This organism will produce a very strong capsule around the abscess, which prevents antibacterials from entering and working. Surgery is not considered because the infection could be around vital organs. People have tried other treatments but no cure for the disease​

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7
Q

Which breed of goat is characterized by having a white coat color & higher level of milk production?

A

Saanen

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8
Q

T/F: With regard to Pink Eye in goats, treated animals recover more quickly than non-treated ones

A

False

Therapy may prolong recovery and lead to quicker reinfection

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9
Q

Which of the following species can be infected with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis?

  • Sheep
  • Goats
  • Deer
  • All of the above
A

All of the above​

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10
Q

Scrapie is a disease mostly of sheep, although any sheep or goat breed may be affected. The disease is characterized by an insidious onset of clinical signs and affects the __________ breed primarily because of a genetic predisposition

A

Suffolk

There is no treatment for this disease

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11
Q

T/F: The CAE virus is primarily transmitted to kids via direct contact after birth

A

False

CAE virus is primarily transmitted to kids via colostrum

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12
Q

Identify the condition observed in this goat. Is it contagious?

A

Pink eye

  • Zoonotic
  • Etiology: Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, and secondary infection with Branhamella ovis
  • Treatment: Oxytetracycline
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13
Q

A producer wants to minimize the occurrence of pregnancy toxemia in a flock of crossbred ewes. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

  • Add chloretetracycline to the ration that is fed to the ewes in late gestation
  • Reduce feeding concentrates and limit exercise during the last trimester
  • Target genetic selection from the ewe flock and the breeding ram to produce single lambs rather than multiples
  • Target the plane of nutrition to avoid extremes in body condition in the pregnant ewe
  • Vaccinate the pregnant ewe with C. perfringens types C and D approximately 4 weeks before they are due to lamb
A

Target the plane of nutrition to avoid extremes in body condition in the pregnant ewe​

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14
Q

What is the scientific name for the nasal bot in sheep? What clinical signs are associated with nasal bots?

A

Oestrus ovis

Clinical signs include mucopurulent nasal discharge, sneezing, sniffling

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15
Q

What is the primary clinical sign of iodine deficiency in lambs?

A

Goiter (thyroid enlargement)

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16
Q

The most common cause of death in lambs dying at more than one day of age is __________

A

starvation

due to either mis-mothering or hypothermia​

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17
Q

What is the most economically important parasite in sheep and goats?

A

Haemonchus contortus (Barber Pole Worm)

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18
Q

For what trait is the callipyge gene noted?

A

muscular development

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19
Q

Tentative diagnosis of Listeriosis in small ruminants is based on:

A

CSF tap with increased monocytes and protein

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20
Q

The __________ sheep breed is affected with the callipyge and spider-leg genes

A

Suffolk​

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21
Q

T/F: For optimum protection, sheep or goats should be vaccinated against tetanus once after weaning followed by an annual booster

A

False

For optimum protection, sheep or goats should be vaccinated against tetanus twice after weaning followed by an annual booster

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22
Q

The finding of glucosuria in a moribund 6 week old lamb with a very good body condition would be presumptive evidence of:

A

Enterotoxemia caused by C. perfringens type D

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23
Q

T/F: Haemonchus infections in sheep result in diarrhea as a clinical sign

A

False

Clinical signs include poor growth and productivity, lacrimation, wool matted to face, and anemia

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24
Q

“Hard bag” and listlessness are commonly associated with __________ in sheep

A

pneumonia

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia ​(OPP)

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25
Q

The two sheep on the right are affected with a genetic condition that results in enlarged muscles around the pelvic area. The gene that has been identified with this condition is known:

A

Callipyge gene

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26
Q

Which one of the following diseases would be considered most contagious in dairy goats?

  • Polioencephalomalacia
  • Listeriosis
  • Enterotoxemia
  • Tetanus
  • Caseous lymphadenitis
A

Caseous lymphadenitis​

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27
Q

Which one of the following is the primary clinical sign of vitamin E deficiency in lambs?

  • Rickets
  • Stiffness of the hind legs
  • Opisthotonus
  • Normocytic, homochromic anemia
  • Goiter
A

Stiffness of the hind legs

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28
Q

The most common form of selenium-vitamin E deficiency is known as:

A

White Muscle Disease

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29
Q

A female sheep is usually called a __________ while a male sheep is called a __________

A

A female sheep is usually called a ewe while a male sheep is called a ram

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30
Q

What Kenyan sheep breed is important because of innate parasite resistance?

A

Red Masai

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31
Q

What is the therapy of choice for lead toxicosis in sheep?

A

Calcium versenate IV

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32
Q

Which one of the following practices has been associated with tetanus outbreaks in cattle and sheep?

  • Ear tagging
  • Footrot vaccination
  • Clostridium vaccination
  • Elastration of tails
  • Hoof trimming
A

Elastration of tails

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33
Q

A feeding technique used with ewes to increase ovulation rates is known as:

A

flushing

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34
Q

If a Iamb was found down this morning unable to move or rise with a history of tail docking and castration two weeks ago with rubber bands, what is your primary tentative diagnosis?

  • Blunt trauma
  • Clostridial disease
  • Anthrax
  • Brisket edema
  • Acute parasitic disease
A

Clostridial disease​

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35
Q

Weight loss of a whole flock of ewes accompanied by apparent appetite increase would be suggestive of __________ or __________

A

parasites or pregnancy​

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36
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is:

  • Facultative intracellular
  • A protozoa
  • Non-zoonotic
  • Acid-fast staining
A

Facultative intracellular​

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37
Q

A young goat is called a __________ while a young sheep is called a __________

A

A young goat is called a kid while a young sheep is called a lamb

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38
Q

What is the therapy of choice for polioencephalomalacia in goats?

A

Thiamine hydrochloride

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39
Q

Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for parapox virus in sheep?

  • Bacterin
  • Modified live virus
  • Live virus
  • Killed virus
  • Toxoid
A

Live virus​

40
Q

Identify this breed of Russian sheep noted for its fecundity:

A

Romanov

41
Q

How is the meningeal worm transmitted from deer to small ruminants?

A

By ingestion of snails or slugs which may be intermediate hosts​

42
Q

A useful and practical therapy for hypoglycemic lambs, kids or piglets is:

  • 50% glucose IP
  • 20% glucose IP
  • 20% glucose orally
  • 20% glucose IV
A

20% glucose IP

43
Q

A multi-horned breed of sheep with a spotted coat color is known as the __________

A

Jacob

44
Q

What bacterial organisms are most associated with infectious keratoconjunctivitis in sheep and goats?

A

Mycoplasma and Chlamydia

The disease is known as pink eye and is both zoonotic and contagious The drug of choice for therapy is oxytetracycline

45
Q

How is the OPP virus transmitted from dam to offspring?

A

colostrum

46
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with the disease condition causing this clinical sign in sheep?

A

Thiamine

47
Q

A 4-H member handled some lambs about a week ago at the county fair. Now he has developed lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

contagious ecthyma

48
Q

A castrated male sheep or goat is termed a:

A

wether

49
Q

While dogs may be essential to the management of many sheep flocks, they have the potential for spreading disease to sheep. Among the diseases which they might spread is:

  • Louping ill
  • Scrapie
  • Ovine progressive pneumonia
  • Lungworms
  • Tapeworm cysts
A

tapeworm cysts

50
Q

The control of external parasites such as lice may be a problem in __________ goats due to long fleece.

A

Angora

51
Q

One of the most common causes of chronic lameness in sheep is __________, associated with Bacteroides (Dichelobacter).

In goats, chronic lameness is often associated with __________, a viral infection.

A

One of the most common causes of chronic lameness in sheep is foot rot, associated with Bacteroides (Dichelobacter).

In goats, chronic lameness is often associated with CAE, a viral infection.

52
Q

T/F: it’s possible to include both vaccinated and non-vaccinated animals in an ELISA screening program and get accurate results

A

False

53
Q

Which one of the following diseases would be considered most contagious in dairy goats?

  • Polioencephalomalacia
  • Caseous lymphadenitis
  • Enterotoxemia
  • Tetanus
  • Listeriosis
A

Caseous lymphadenitis​

54
Q

What condition is associated with the Tennessee Fainting Goat breed?

A

Myotonia congenita

55
Q

T/F: Proper vaccination for CLA will usually eliminate the risk of most new infections and sometimes cures infected animals

A

False

56
Q

Sheep are particularly susceptible to which of the following elements?

  • Cobalt
  • Iron
  • Molybdenum
  • Copper
  • Manganese
A

Copper​

57
Q

What is the most common clinical manifestation of caprine arthritis encephalitis virus infection in young goats less than a year of age?

A

Leukoencephalomyelitis​

58
Q

Of the following sheep breeds, which one has the characteristic of being able to lamb at any time of the year?

  • Suffolk
  • Southdown
  • Dorset
  • Merino
  • Cheviot
A

Dorset​

59
Q

What is the approximate age of this sheep?

A

~2 to 2.5 years

60
Q

T/F: Treatment of caseous lymphadenitis with large doses of antibiotics usually results in resolution of disease within a couple months

A

False

There is no effective treatment for this organism :(

61
Q

Jacob sheep are used as a biological model to study which human disease syndrome?

A

Tay-Sachs disease​

62
Q

T/F: Culling of infected animals with CLA isn’t necessary due to the fact that the disease isn’t communicable

A

False

63
Q

T/F: There are two forms of caseous lymphadenitis: internal and external

A

True

Sheep often have internal abscesses. Goats often have external abscesses

64
Q

Contagious ecthyma is also known as __________ or __________

A

Contagious ecthyma is also known as scabby mouth or orf.

This viral disease is most often seen in lambs and kids and is zoonotic​

65
Q

Identify this heat tolerant beef breed developed in the Caribbean:

A

Virgin Island White

66
Q

T/F: Culling is an effective control measure for caseous lymphadenitis in small ruminants

A

True

67
Q

The most common cause of post-weaning growth retardation in lambs is __________

A

parasitism​

Other causes might be low quality or low quantity feed​

68
Q

Which test gives a definitive diagnosis of CLA?

A

culture and isolation

69
Q

Most cases of __________ toxicosis are an acute expression of a chronic problem. This element is closely linked to molybdenum.

A

copper

70
Q

What is a common method of transmission of CLA?

A

draining abscesses

71
Q

A disease of small ruminants characterized by CNS signs including circling & facial nerve paralysis with zoonotic implications is:

A

Listeriosis

72
Q

A Toggenburg goat can be identified by which of the following color markings or characteristics?

  • Long floppy ears, body any color
  • Erect ears, body white in color
  • Black stripes on sides of face, body brown with black underbelly
  • White stripes in face, body any color
  • White stripes on face, body brown in color
A

White stripes on face, body brown in color​

73
Q

A herd of goats with pruritic, crusty lesions on the pastern areas would most likely be affected with:

A

chorioptic mange

74
Q

Recovery from pregnancy toxemia is unlikely once __________ has developed.

A

coma/recumbency

75
Q

A clinical finding in the cerebrospinal fluid that tends to confirm listeriosis is:

A

increased protein and mononuclear cells

76
Q

What sheep breed has the characteristic of being able to lamb at any time of the year?

A

Dorset

77
Q

Which of the following signs are typical of sheep with CLA?

  • Chronic weight loss
  • Intense pruritus
  • Vestibular signs
  • Lameness
A

Chronic weight loss

78
Q

Which one of the following tests would be most accurate in diagnosing the suspected viral cause of a swollen carpus in a goat?

  • PCR test
  • AGID test
  • ELISA test
  • Bacterial culture and sensitivity testing
  • Joint aspiration and cytological evaluation
A

ELISA test

79
Q

In addition to depressed growth and anemia, __________ deficiency produces effects on the wool, namely loss of crimp.

A

Copper

80
Q

A flock of sheep was showing clinical signs of Iethargy and anemia. A couple of lambs had died. Other sheep were grinding their teeth and showing extreme thirst. Which one of these elements would be at the top of your differential diagnosis of toxicity?

  • Iodine
  • Selenium
  • Copper
  • Fluorine
  • Sodium
A

Copper

81
Q

Which one of these breeds originated in Switzerland?

  • Oberhasli
  • Boer
  • Nubian
  • Friesian
  • Limousine
A

Oberhasli​

82
Q

Which of the following sheep breeds is noted for the fine quality of its fleece?

  • Awassi
  • Merino
  • Katahdin
  • Romney
  • Friesian
A

Merino

83
Q

Polioencephalomalacia is a metabolic disease of small ruminants associated with a relative deficiency of __________

A

thiamine

84
Q

T/F: The Hampshire breed of sheep is noted to have the ability to have a litter of lambs at one time

A

False

The _Romanov_ breed of sheep is noted to have the ability to have a litter of lambs at one time

85
Q

T/F: In pregnancy toxemia, glucose therapy is associated with decreased survival rates

A

True

Pregnancy toxemia of ruminants may be accompanied by an elevated blood glucose level. Glucose given to an animal with hyperglycemia can increase the death rate

86
Q

T/F: A common etiology of bacterial pneumonia in sheep is Mannheimia hemolytica

A

True

87
Q

Name the parasite most likely to be associated with the clinical sign shown in this kid:

A

Haemonchus contortus

88
Q

T/F: Culling animals affected with caseous lymphadenitis is not necessary due to the fact that the disease is not communicable

A

False

Contact with draining abscess is a common method of spread

89
Q

What is the best treatment for the meningeal worm that sometimes affects small ruminants?

A

High levels of Fenbendazole (3-10x the normal dose)

90
Q

Live animal testing of sheep for scrapie involves examination of:

A

lymphoid tissue from the 3rd eyelid

91
Q

Why are Mannheimia-induced pneumonias only observed in goats, sheep, and cattle?

A

ruminant-specific leukotoxin

92
Q

What is the causative organism of caseous lymphadenitis in small ruminants?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis​

Organism lives in the environment for a very long period of time (up to ~6 months) and transmission occurs by shearing, discharge from abscesses

93
Q

T/F: In goats the intersex condition is linked to the hornless gene

A

True

94
Q

T/F: A common etiology of bacterial pneumonia in sheep is Mannheimia hemolytica

A

True

95
Q

T/F: Mild iodine tincture is recommended for disinfection of the umbilicus of Iambs, kids, calves and foals

A

True

RUSVM Large Animal Medicine II (9 decks)

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