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RUSVM Large Animal Medicine II > Final Exam Swine (Old Exam Questions) > Flashcards

Final Exam Swine (Old Exam Questions) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following tests is a measure of stress immune function in swine?

  • Alpha-1 acid glycoprotein
  • Alkaline phosphatase
  • Creatine phosphokinase
  • Alpha mannosidase
  • Sorbital dehydrogenase
A

α1 acid glycoprotein (AGP)

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2
Q

Noisy, anxious day-old pigs probably indicate:

  • Heat stress
  • Cold stress
  • Hunger
  • Endotoxemia
  • Bacteremia
A

Hunger

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3
Q

What is your diagnosis for the skin condition shown on these pruritic pigs?

  • Ringworm
  • Parakeratosis
  • Sarcoptic mange
  • Vitamin A deficiency
  • Greasy pig disease
A

Sarcoptic mange​

  • Hypersensitivity reaction to mite
  • Sensitization takes place over several weeks
  • Crusting and pruritis develop
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4
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Vietnamese Pot-belly

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5
Q

What is your diagnosis of this piglet whose skin was covered with exudate?

  • Ringworm
  • Parakeratosis
  • Greasy pig disease
  • Vitamin A deficiency
  • Papillomatosis
A

Greasy pig disease

I would also remember the stupidly small picture below ;)

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6
Q

Before sows are moved into the farrowing crates they should be:

  • Flushed with a high energy ration
  • Flushed with a high calcium and protein ration
  • Medicated with a broad spectrum antibiotic to help sterilize the intestinal tract and prevent coliform buildup in the environemt
  • Vaccinated against tuberculosis
  • Washed to remove dirt and parasite eggs
A

Washed to remove dirt and parasite eggs

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7
Q

The probability for swine influenza occurring in animals reared in confinement on concrete should be less than in animals raised on soil because:

  • Concrete can be effectively disinfected
  • Pigs raised on concrete retain colostrum derived immunity for a longer period
  • Contact with the virus via earthworms is reduced
  • Concrete has recently been shown to have viricidal properties
  • Contact with the virus via ascarids is reduced
A

Concrete can be effectively disinfected

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8
Q

A 7 week old Pot-bellied Pig is presented with a posterior swelling that looks like this. Which one of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

  • Perineal hernia
  • Inguinal hernia
  • Testicular torsion
  • Cryptorchidism
  • Intersex syndrome
A

Inguinal hernia

  • A COMMON problem in pigs, Rx surgically: midline skin incision, cranial to scrotum; ligate and excise vas deferens, blood vessels.​*
  • (Zuku or VetPrep question)*
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9
Q

Which one of the following clinical signs occurs most commonly in pigs affected with PMWS?

  • Sudden death
  • Depression
  • Inappetance
  • Pale mucous membranes
  • Peripheral lymphadenopathy
A

Peripheral lymphadenopathy

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10
Q

T/F: Salmonella choleraesuis and Salmonella typhimurium are both treated with Oxytetracycline

A

False

  • Salmonella choleraesuis is treated with Oxytetracycline.
  • Salmonella typhimurium is resistant to Oxytetracycline (as well as most other antibiotics allowed in food animals)
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11
Q

Tail biting in swine may cause abscesses in the spine due to:

  • Actinomyces pyogenes
  • Lawsonia intracellularis
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
  • Mannheimia hemolytica
A

Actinomyces pyogenes

I think this is now called Trueperella pyogenes

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12
Q

Bull nose in swine is caused by the organism:

  • Bordetella
  • Shigella
  • Fusobacterium
  • Treponema
  • Salmonella
A

Fusobacterium​ necrophorum

Necrotic rhinitis is an uncommon, sporadic disease of young pigs characterized by suppuration and necrosis of the snout, arising from wounds of the oral or nasal mucosa

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13
Q

Swine pox is transmitted by:

  • Culicoides varipennis
  • Ixodes ricinus
  • Stomaxys calcitrans
  • Boophilus annulatus
  • Hematopinus suis
A

Hematopinus suis

Haematopinus suis is also known as the hog louse

  • Swine Pox is associated with CUTANEOUS Lesions
  • Transmitted by virus contact associated with skin injury
    • The hog louse acts as a mechanical vector – may carry the virus for weeks or months
  • Pigs usually recover without problems
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14
Q

Test and slaughter is the usual method of control for which one of the following diseases in both cattle and hogs?

  • Leptospirosis
  • Brucellosis
  • Corona virus
  • Spongiform encephalopathy
  • Campylobacter
A

Brucellosis

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15
Q

Modified medication early weaning programs have been useful in elimination of many pathogens from piggeries. Which one of the following diseases is a good example of this?

  • Mycoplasmosis
  • Creeper syndrome
  • Eubacterium
  • Brucellosis
  • Splay leg
A

Mycoplasmosis

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16
Q

Mange in swine can be diagnosed by the vacuum cleaner filter sampling technique. A drug which is useful for treatment of mange is:

  • Fenbendazole
  • Ivermectin
  • Thisbendazole
  • Sulfamethazine
  • Monensin
A

Ivermectin

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17
Q

Modified medicated early weaning programs for swine will not eliminate:

  • Actinobacillus
  • Hemophilus
  • Pseudorabies
  • Streptococcus
  • Eubacterium
A

Eubacterium

  • Lives in the sheath of the prepuce of the boar
  • Transmission believed to occur at breeding - associated with failure of breeding, failure to conceive, or fetal death and resorption
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18
Q

Why is a uniform microenvironment important in a pigpen?

  • Water consumption increases
  • Need for vaccination is reduced or eliminated
  • Feed conversion is better
  • Tendency to fight is reduced
  • Immune function is improved
A

Tendency to fight is reduced

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19
Q

The etiology of pityriasis rosea in swine is:

  • Fungal
  • Bacterial
  • Viral
  • Neoplastic
  • Undetermined
A

Undetermined

Pityriasis rosea is a sporadic disease of unknown etiology of pigs, usually 8–14 wk old, but occasionally as young as 2 wk and very rarely in pigs as old as 10 mo​

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20
Q

Which of the following viral diseases below affects only swine?

  • Vesicular exanthema
  • Foot and Mouth Disease
  • Vesicular stomatitis
  • Rinderpest
  • Malignant Catarrhal Fever
A

Vesicular exanthema​

Vesicular exanthema does not affect cattle, sheep, goats or any species other than the pigs (and sea mammals). So, unlike FMD, if you keep other livestock they will not be affected. However, keep in mind that it produces a disease in pigs that is clinically indistinguishable from FMD.

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21
Q

Several piglets in a group weaned 10 days ago in the nursery facility of a large commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead. Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. The most likely causative organism is:

  • Streptococcus suis
  • Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
  • Clostridium septicum
  • Escherichia coli
  • Lawsonia intracellularis
A

Escherichia coli

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22
Q

Which one of the following statements about toxicosis in swine is true?

  • Carbon dioxide and ammonia are the two most common gases involved in swine deaths
  • Swine are the least susceptible to ergot of all domestic animals
  • Salt poisoning or water deprivation is the least common poisoning seen in swine
  • Carbon monoxide gas is highly toxic to swine
A

Carbon monoxide gas is highly toxic to swine​

This is often due to faulty space heaters in barns

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23
Q

T/F: Addition of conjugated linoleic acid to grow-finish diet at the rate of 1% increases average daily gain and improves feed efficiency while cutting market hog backfat levels by 20%

A

True

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24
Q

PRRS (Porcine Reproductive Respiratory Syndrome) can be characterized as:

  • Highly infectious with persistent infection that may last for several months
  • A disease for which no vaccination exists
  • An afebrile disease of young pigs with minimal clinical signs
  • A disease that causes infertility but not abortion
  • A disease that mostly affects boars and causes sterility
A

Highly infectious with persistent infection that may last for several months​

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25
Q

Which one of the following substances will reduce or kill salmonella organisms when fed to pigs or cattle?

  • Tetracycline
  • Cottonseed
  • Soybean hulls
  • Sodium chloride
  • Sodium chlorate
A

Sodium chlorate

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26
Q

In the southern United States neonatal swine may be affected with which one of the following parasites if a rigid control program is not followed?

  • Threadworms
  • Roundworms
  • Whipworms
  • Kidney worms
  • Stomach worms
A

Threadworms​

Strongyloides; can be passed through placenta and colostrum and can kill piglets!

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27
Q

On most pig farms today piglets are weaned at what age?

  • 5 days
  • 10 days
  • 15 days
  • 3 weeks
  • 2 months
A

3 weeks

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28
Q

A commercial pig farm experiences an explosive outbreak of respiratory disease with high mortality, primarily in young pigs under 6 months of age.

Affected pigs show severe respiratory distress, fever up to 107°F (41.5°C), anorexia, and reluctance to move. Some animals display open-mouth breathing with a blood-stained, frothy nasal and oral discharge.

On necropsy, the lungs are bilaterally dark and swollen and ooze bloody fluid from the cut surface.

Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
  • Haemophilus parahaemolyticus
  • Swine influenza
A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

  • This is a classic scenario of an outbreak of pleuropneumonia, caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae​*
  • (Zuku or VetPrep Question)​*
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29
Q

These animals are all the same age. They have been raised together. Which one of the following diseases is probably associated with this?

  • Erysipelas
  • Tuberculosis
  • Leptospirosis
  • Ileitis
  • Ascariasis
A

Ileitis

Lawsonia intracellularis is a Gram [+] organism responsible for causing porcine ileitis (and wet tail in hamsters). One of the main clinical signs is uneven growth - some look normal and some look stunted.

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30
Q

Age segregated rearing of pigs on swine farms is made possible through:

  • The North Carolina system
  • The McLean County system
  • Breeding sows at specific time intervals
  • Breeding sows at random intervals
  • Depopulation/ repopulation
A

Breeding sows at specific time intervals

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31
Q

Which one of the following problems would more likely be diagnosed in post-weaned pigs six to eight weeks of age?

  • Colibacillosis
  • Ascariasis
  • Swine dysentery
  • Whipworms
  • Proliferative enteropathy
A

Ascariasis​

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32
Q

Atrophic rhinitis is a chronic progressive disease of swine. It has a multi-factorial etiology consisting of infectious, environmental, and animal factors. Whatever control measures are implemented, the disease must be monitored to assess efficacy and cost benefit. Which of the following parameters is/are useful in analysis of control measures?

  • Atrophic rhinitis lesion scores
  • Days to market
  • Percentage light weight market hogs
  • Feed: gain ratio
  • All of the above
A

All of the above

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33
Q

A swine parasite transmitted through the milk is:

  • Ascaris
  • Parascaris
  • Oesophagostomum
  • Strongylus
  • Strongyloides
A

Strongyloides

Passed through placenta and colostrum

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34
Q

Which of the following byproduct feeds did researchers at Purdue University formulate into swine diets as an aid in reducing odor in the environment?

  • Brewers grains
  • Whole cottonseed
  • Soybean hulls
  • Beet pulp
  • Citrus pulp
A

Soybean hulls

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35
Q

What disease can be diagnosed from this picture?

  • Mulberry heart disease
  • Colibacillosis
  • Sarcoptic mange
  • Atrophic rhinitis
  • Swine pox
A

Atrophic rhinitis​

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36
Q

T/F: Before five weeks of age piglets may benefit from added salt in the diet to aid in digestion of proteins and cut down on growth of pathogenic bacteria in the stomach

A

True

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37
Q

Which one of the following pathogens is associated with Glasser’s disease of swine?

  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • Hemophilus parasuis
  • Streptococcus suis
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
A

Hemophilus parasuis

  • Virulent and avirulent strains exist
  • Clinical signs 3-10 weeks of age
    • Acute fulminating SEPTICEMIA
    • POLYSEROSITIS & POLYARTHRITIS
  • Confirm diagnosis with histopathology
  • Stress is very important in pathogenesis
  • Specific Pathogen Free (SPF) pigs are VERY susceptible - no previous exposure
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38
Q

Identify this breed of swine used for research into obesity and polycystic ovary syndrome at Purdue University

A

Ossabaw Island

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39
Q

As environmental temperatures increase to over 85 °F, feed intake in swine tends to decrease necessitation the feeding of:

  • Energy dense diet
  • Increased amounts of threonine
  • Increased amounts of thiamine
  • Decreased amounts of lysine
  • Decreased amounts of fatty acids
A

Energy dense diet

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40
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Kunekune

Double joweled; originated in New Zealand

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41
Q

Failure to control mild endemic respiratory disease in swine caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to complications.

Exudative bronchopneumonia and polyarthritis are most commonly seen in herds infected with both Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae and which other organism?

  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Hemophilus parasuis
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Swine influenza virus
A

Pasteurella multocida​

  • Pasteurella multocida infection in conjunction with Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae causes exudative bronchopneumonia, polyarthritis, and chronic lung lesions. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae, (also called “Enzootic pneumonia”) is a common, smoldering low-level illness. Stressors (parasites, other infections, even weather) can result in severe pneumonia.​*
  • (Zuku or VetPrep Question)*
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42
Q

A swine farmer has an outbreak of transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) in his herd. What is the correct advice to give him regarding this situation?

  • Expose later farrowing sows to the infection
  • Cull infected animals
  • Isolate the affected animals
  • Medicate all the pigs with antibiotics
  • None of the above
A

Expose later farrowing sows to the infection

Exposure of gestating sows to the virus at least 3 weeks before farrowing can help the sow develop immunity for herself and the piglets

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43
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Yorkshire

  • (aka Large White)*
  • Sows have increased incidence of lameness secondary to increased nutritional demands because of high milk production and large litter size*
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44
Q

Immunoglobulins ingested by the piglet at birth decline rapidly after the first week of life and fall below protective levels by:

  • 7 days
  • 10 days
  • 15 days
  • 18 days
  • 21 days
A

21 days

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45
Q

Which of the following would be of importance for anesthesia and/or surgery of a miniature pig?

  • Thick tongue
  • Short, thick neck
  • Small mouth
  • Laryngeal diverticulum
  • All of the above
A

All of the above​

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46
Q

What is the limiting amino acid in most swine rations?

  • Threonine
  • Valine
  • Isoleucine
  • Tryptophane
  • Lysine
A

Lysine

If you meet requirements for lysine, the rest of the amino acids are given in proportion to lysine

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47
Q

What is the name of the organism associated with proliferative enteropathy in swine and weanling foals?

  • Erysipelas
  • Lawsonia
  • Circovirus
  • Serpulina
  • Fusobacterium
A

Lawsonia​

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48
Q

A pig farmer complains of strange behavior in his feeder pigs. Most are hyperexcitable yet are not squealing. A few are lethargic, wandering aimlessly and seem to be blind. Bloodwork shows a marked increase in sodium concentration. Upon inspection of the pen, it turns out that the waterer had been inadvertently turned off. Which one of the following treatments is indicated?

  • Ad lib water
  • Ad lib water and IV 1/2 strength Ringers solution
  • Furosemide
  • Mannitol
  • Frequent small amounts of water
A

Frequent small amounts of water​

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49
Q

Hairlessness in baby pigs is associated with a deficiency of:

  • Zinc
  • Cobalt
  • Iodine
  • Selenium
  • Chromium
A

Iodine

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50
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Duroc

Red breed, common in US

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51
Q

Which of the following diseases poses a serious threat to the US swine industry since there is no vaccine?

  • Hog cholera
  • African swine fever
  • Pseudorabies
  • Erysipelas
  • Botulism
A

African swine fever

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52
Q

A new and effective therapy for sarcoptic mange in swine is:

  • Enroflaxacin
  • Tylosin
  • Doramectin
  • Tiamulin
  • Carbadox
A

Doramectin

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53
Q

If the following image is seen on necropsy, what would be recommended as a treatment plan for the remaining group of pigs?

  • There is no effective treatment
  • Clorsulon PO, all animals
  • Lincomycin IM, underweight animals
  • Decrease non-protein nitrogen in diet
  • Antihelminthics
A

Antihelminthics​

  • Antihelminthics are the treatment of choice.*
  • This is ascarid (roundworm) infestation and these are classic “milk spots”- liver scars left by migrating ascarid larva traveling to the lungs. In heavy ascarid infestations, larvae can cause pulmonary edema, consolidation, severe respiratory distress. May see icterus.*
  • (Zuku or VetPrep Question)*
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54
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Tamworth

Red breed, not common in US

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55
Q

A farmer has a few 8-12 week old pigs with weight loss, diarrhea, and a few with expiratory dyspnea. Several pigs with similar symptoms have died recently. Mucous membranes are pale, and inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged.

Which one of the following viruses is the most likely causative agent?

  • Herpesvirus
  • Parvovirus
  • Manangle virus
  • Circovirus
  • Paramyxovirus
A

Circovirus​

  • Circovirus, a nonenveloped DNA virus, causes postweaning multisystemic wasting syndrome (PMWS). The virus is also associated with porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome caused by necrotizing vasculitis, which is more prominent in the skin, renal pelvis, mesentery, and spleen.​*
  • (Zuku or VetPrep Question)​*
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56
Q

Three very common sites of FMD virus lesions in swine are:

  • Snout, vulva, and ear
  • Heart, abomasums, uterus
  • Snout, ear, tail
  • Ear, eye tonsil
  • Snout, coronary band, and tongue
A

Snout, coronary band, and tongue

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57
Q

Two parasites which pose a definite threat to neonatal swine are:

  • Coccidian and ascarids
  • Stomach worms and whip worms
  • Thread worms and cryptosporidia
  • Nodular worms and kidney worms
  • Lungworms and ascarids
A

Thread worms and cryptosporidia​

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58
Q

Identify the breed

A

Yorkshire

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59
Q

You are called to investigate an outbreak of diarrhea at a local swine farm. The farmer relates that the problem started about a month after she brought in 5 new animals. Of these, one developed fever and diarrhea a week after arrival. You note diarrhea and death among nursing piglets; in weanlings and growing-finisher pigs you note diarrhea with fever. Which diarrheal disease affects pigs of all ages?

  • Swine dysentery
  • Porcine proliferative enteritis (PPE)
  • Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis
  • Rotavirus
  • Intestinal Salmonellosis
A

Intestinal Salmonellosis​

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60
Q

65-70% of the total cost of swine production is:

61
Q

Baby pigs are particularly susceptible to infections at about three weeks of age because of:

  • Anemia
  • Digestive problems that occur at that time
  • The life cycle of most swine parasites
  • The buildup of pathogenic organisms in the environment
  • Declining antibody levels
A

Declining antibody levels

62
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Meishan

Chinese pig; increased fecundity; two times as many nipples as other breeds

63
Q

Which organism is associated with a clinical sign of meningitis in swine?

  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • Corynebacterium renale
  • Hemophilus parasuis
A

Hemophilus parasuis

64
Q

Which infectious agent causes the clinical presentation of pigs most similar to Haemophilus parasuis (Glasser’s disease)?

  • Streptococcus suis
  • Mycoplasma hyosynoviae
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
A

Streptococcus suis

The correct answer is Streptococcus suis. Streptococcus suis and H. parasuis both cause polyarthritis, polyserositis, fever, and pneumonia in young piglets up to several weeks of age. Both can cause fibrinopurulent inflammation as well as meningitis and convulsions.

Erysipelas and M. hyosynoviae typically occur in grower and finisher pigs and do not result in pneumonia. Diamond-shaped skin lesions (thus the name “diamond skin disease”) are pathognomonic for Erysipelas. Fusobacterium necrophorum causes lameness via footrot or laminitis.

(Zuku or VetPrep Question)​​

65
Q

The largest cause of loss to the swine industry from disease is:

  • Gastric ulcers
  • Respiratory disease
  • Toxicosis
  • Iron deficiency anemia
  • Skin disease
A

Respiratory disease

66
Q

Which one of the following is true concerning PRRS infections in swine?

  • Veterinarians prefer to treat respiratory disease in swine with chloramphenicol
  • Respiratory disease has a minimal effect upon growth rate
  • PRRS virus attacks and kills immune system cells in the lungs
  • Swine affected with PRRS often test positive for Bordetella
  • PRRS infections most often affect pigs in the early finishing stage
A

PRRS virus attacks and kills immune system cells in the lungs

67
Q

The most important way in which pseudorabies is spread among pigs is by:

  • Vehicles
  • Passive carriage on people
  • Contact with infected pigs, including carriers
  • Birds
  • End case hosts, such as dogs and cats
A

Contact with infected pigs, including carriers

68
Q

Why are baby piglets supplemented with iron?

  • To counteract effects of intestinal parasitism
  • To counteract effects of eperythrozoonosis
  • Because their requirement exceeds that supplied by the sow’s milk
  • To counteract blood losses associated with coccidiosis
  • Because they can not absorb iron from the intestine until three weeks of age
A

Because their requirement exceeds that supplied by the sow’s milk

69
Q

Which one of the following is true concerning Streptococcus suis infection in swine? The organism is:

  • Associated with edema disease of swine
  • A common cause of preweaning scours
  • Associated with pityriasis rosea
  • Associated with congenital tremors in piglets
  • Not resistant to procaine penicillin G
A

Not resistant to procaine penicillin G​

70
Q

Which of the following is a major cause of culling of sows from a swine herd?

  • External parasitism
  • Lameness
  • Internal parasitism
  • Gastric ulcers
  • Dental problems
A

Lameness​

71
Q

Which one of the following statements about toxicosis in swine is true?

  • Boars are more susceptible to organophosphate poisoning than are sows
  • Carbon dioxide and ammonia are the two most common gasses involved in swine deaths
  • Swine are the least susceptible to ergot of all domestic animals
  • Salt poisoning or water deprivation is the most common toxicosis seen in swine
  • Methane gas is highly toxic to swine
A

Salt poisoning or water deprivation is the most common toxicosis seen in swine​

72
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) in swine is caused by __________

A

Coronavirus

  • Contagious enteric viral disease affecting swine of all ages
  • May be spread by DOGS, CATS, BIRDS (STARLINGS)
  • Main clinical signs are VOMITING & DIARRHEA
73
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Landrace

White breed, floppy ears, fast-growing. Most common breed in Europe

74
Q

Which one of the following diseases is associated with Fusobacterium?

  • Hard udder of cows
  • Big head of horses
  • Wry nose of swine
  • Calf diphtheria
  • Big head of sheep
A

Calf diphtheria

75
Q

A disease of swine raised outdoors that is associated with Fusobacterium infection is known as:

  • Foot rot
  • Enzootic abortion
  • Bull nose
  • Atrophic rhinitis
  • Atypical interstitial pneumonia
A

Bull nose​

76
Q

What is the name of the organism associated with post weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome (PMWS) in swine?

A

Porcine Circovirus 2

  • PCV2 is endemic worldwide. Symptoms, duration and mortality can vary.
  • Signs include anorexia, rapid weight loss, unthrifty pigs, skin discoloration, respiratory signs, and diarrhea.
  • Clinical signs may be related to stress
77
Q

What would be your diagnosis for the poor weight gain and coughing observed in these post-weaned Kittitian pigs?

  • Whipworms
  • Threadworms
  • Ascarids
  • Stomach worms
  • Lungworms
A

Ascarids​

Ascaris suum; Migration through organs (liver, lung), predisposes to other problems; weaned pig 6-8 weeks of age; can live in environment for 16 years​

78
Q

Which one of the following will reduce aggressive behavior in a group of housed pigs?

  • Ad libitum feeding
  • Provision of toys to prevent boredom
  • Using round pens for housing
  • Putting dividers within the pens
  • Tail docking
A

Provision of toys to prevent boredom

79
Q

With regard to salmonella in pigs, what is the main route of infection?

A

Ingestion

From the feed or the water

80
Q

The most common cause of anemia in neonatal pigs is:

  • Lice infestation
  • Copper deficiency
  • Strongyloides infection
  • Eperythrozoonosis
  • Iron Deficiency
A

Iron Deficiency

81
Q

Which of the following diseases might be responsible for these pigs of the same age being different sizes?

  • Erysipelas
  • Sarcoptic mange
  • Proliferative enteropathy
  • Ringworm
  • Exudative epidermitis
A

Proliferative enteropathy

  • Caused by Lawsonia intracellularis
  • Mainly seen in growing and finishing pigs
  • See uneven growth in the pigs – some look normal and some look stunted
  • RODENTS are important as vectors
82
Q

The most common strain of tuberculosis in swine is:

  • Mammalian
  • Bovine
  • Avian
  • Porcine
  • Human
83
Q

The treatment of sows for internal parasitism before farrowing should result in increased weaning weight of piglets, while the similar treatment of sows and gilts before breeding should result in:

  • Decreased incidence of respiratory disease
  • Increased conception and litter size
  • Decreased incidence of agalactia
  • Decreased risk of thin sow syndrome
  • Increased comfort of the sows while being housed in the crates
A

Increased conception and litter size​

84
Q

Identify the breed of swine characterized by a white coat color with floppy ears

  • Yorkshire
  • Hampsire
  • Tamworth
  • Pietrain
  • Landrace
85
Q

Large white (Yorkshire) sows have a higher incidence of lameness secondary to increased nutritional demands because of:

  • Higher metabolic rate
  • High milk production and larger litter size
  • Smaller feed and straighter legs
  • Methionine deficiency in hoof keratin
  • Increased appetite associated with lean carcass quality
A

High milk production and larger litter size

86
Q

T/F: Salt poisoning or water deprivation is the most common toxicosis seen in swine

87
Q

An outbreak of diarrheal disease of piglets has occurred which affected the healthiest animals in the herd, 1-2 weeks after weaning. Some affected piglets had no signs except peracute death. Other affected piglets exhibit diarrhea, ataxia, paralysis, and recumbency.

What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?

  • Clostridium perfringens type C enteritis
  • Edema disease
  • Porcine proliferative enteritis
  • Epidemic transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE)
  • Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus (HEV)
A

Edema disease

Edema disease is caused by entertoxigenic E. coli (ETEC). Look for severe acute illness ranging from peracute death with no signs to CNS involvement with ataxia, paralysis, and recumbency in healthiest pigs 1-2 weeks after weaning.

  • Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus (HEV), is almost exclusive to piglets less than 4 weeks old. Two clinical presentations: Vomiting and wasting disease (VWD) and encephalitic.
  • Clostridium perfringens type C enteritis ,also called enterotoxemia in other animals, is characterized by a HEMORRHAGIC diarrhea in 1-3 day old piglets.
  • Porcine proliferative enteritis is principally a diarrheal disease of growing finishing (40- to 80-lb) pigs and young breeding pigs.
  • Epidemic transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) in non-immune pig herds characterized by HIGH MORBIDITY and HIGH MORTALITY in piglets less than 1 week old.

(Zuku or VetPrep Question)

88
Q

T/F: Addition of phytase to swine diets aids in the breakdown of the phytate form of phosphorus therefore decreasing excretion of phosphorus into the environment

89
Q

Extended stressful situations can lead to disturbances in the intestinal mucosal epithelium of swine associated with hormones, and, in turn, cause:

  • Prolapsed rectum
  • Parakeratosis
  • Psychic depression
  • Porcine stress syndrome
  • Retardation of growth rate
A

Retardation of growth rate​

90
Q

What is the main causal agent of swine dysentery?

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

  • Clinical disease usually occurs in growing & finishing pigs
  • Presents as mucoid diarrhea, and progresses to bloody diarrhea mixed with mucus and fibrin
  • Vaccination is not very effective
91
Q

Which of the following diseases has been eradicated in the US?

  • Equine Infectious Anemia
  • Porcine pseudorabies
  • Ovine fleece rot
  • Bovine lymphosarcoma
  • Hog cholera
A

Hog cholera​

92
Q

Which one of the following swine diseases can now be vaccinated against using an oral vaccine?

  • Mannheimia
  • PRRS
  • PMWS
  • Erysipelas
  • Anthrax
A

Erysipelas

93
Q

Which of the following can be identified as a short-term control measure for swine respiratory disease?

  • Increasing the amount of essential fatty acids in the ration
  • Vaccination against a specific pathogen present in the herd
  • Diminishing the infection pressure of the herd
  • Doubling the vitamin content of the ration
  • Building a new hog house with a better ventilation system
A

Vaccination against a specific pathogen present in the herd

94
Q

Which of the following statements is most correct concerning FMD?

  • In most outbreaks the spread is slow, as contact is the primary method of spread
  • Horses and ruminants are equally susceptible
  • Humans are not susceptible
  • During viremia swine produce many more virus particles than do ruminants
  • The virus is relatively susceptible to cold and freezing temperatures
A

During viremia swine produce many more virus particles than do ruminants

95
Q

Why are baby pigs supplemented with iron?

A

to prevent anemia

Sow’s milk is deficient in Fe-, so iron is supplemented to prevent anemia

96
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Hampshire

High stress level (think porcine stress syndrome

97
Q

You are asked to examine some feeder pigs that have stopped eating yesterday. The group is lying down and seems lethargic. They have fevers of 105˚-106˚F (40.6˚ -41.1˚ C), firm dry feces, and the skin has rhomboid-shaped red blotches scattered on it. What treatment should be recommended?

  • Chloramphenicol
  • Gentamicin
  • Metronidazole
  • Streptomycin
  • Penicillin
A

Penicillin​

  • Erysipelas is susceptible to penicillins, as well as tetracyclines (usually), lincomycin and tylosin. Chloramphenicol and nitroimidazoles (including metronidazole) are not approved for food animal use.*
  • (Zuku or VetPrep Question)​*
98
Q

The main clinical sign of whipworm infestation on swine is:

  • SQ edema
  • Vomiting
  • Dysentery
  • Convulsions
  • Peripheral lymphadenopathy
99
Q

Neonatal swine have difficulty digesting plant-based starch and protein before about four weeks of age partly because:

  • Large molecules cannot be absorbed from the gut
  • Pepsin production is not yet well developed
  • Lactase levels are too high
  • Amylase levels are too low
  • Lactase levels are too low
A

Amylase levels are too low

100
Q

Swine with symptoms of poor weight gain, feed refusal, and renal insufficiency may have:

  • Sodium toxicosis
  • Gossypol toxicosis
  • Ochratoxicosis
  • Zearolenone toxicosis
  • Ergotism
A

Ochratoxicosis

Ochratoxicosis is the nephropathy caused by poisoning by the mycotoxin ochratoxin A. Characterized by degeneration of renal epithelium, polydipsia, polyuria, diarrhea and uremia​

101
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Ossabaw

English; can drink salt water

102
Q

Identify this miniature breed:

103
Q

Regarding swine respiratory disease, which one of the following statements is correct?

  • Cold temperature reduces the pig’s ability to clear bacteria from the respiratory tract
  • Pneumonia reduces average daily gain in swine
  • Crowding, mixing, and castration all may increase risk of respiratory disease in swine
  • All of the above are correct
  • Only B. and C. are correct
A

All of the above are correct​

104
Q

Immunization for swine herds is often termed “herd specific,” as all measures must be:

  • aimed at minimizing drug residues
  • directed at specific pathogens
  • used to minimize induced drug resistance
  • cost effective
  • based upon developing autogenous immunity
A

cost effective

105
Q

Which type of livestock is most sensitive to moldy corn poisoning?

  • Cattle
  • Horses
  • Sheep
  • Swine
  • Goats
106
Q

Sixty percent of swine affected with PRRS test positive for bacterial infections, most often:

  • Pasteurella
  • Erysipelas
  • Lawsonia
  • Corynebacterium
  • Bordetella
A

Pasteurella​

107
Q

The rationale behind multiple isolated site production of swine is two fold. One concept involves segregation of pigs by age in all-in-all-out units. The second purpose involves:

  • Separation of medication of piglets at an age when colostral antibodies still provide protection
  • Separation of piglets at an age before they have developed their social dominance order
  • Segregation of piglets by body weight
  • Minimizing stress by removal before the maternal-fetal bond has been developed
  • Separation to avoid cannibalism by the sow
A

Separation of medication of piglets at an age when colostral antibodies still provide protection

108
Q

This piglet has polyarthritis and a soft fluctuant lesion under the jaw. Which one of the following organisms is probably responsible for the jaw lesion? He was being fed waste milk from the dairy.

  • Streptococcus agalactiae
  • Streptococcus porcinus
  • Staphylococcus hyicus
  • Lawsonia intracellularis
  • Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
A

Streptococcus porcinus​

Causes cervical lymphadenitis (“jowl abscess”)

109
Q

Climate management should be used for sows and pigs in controlling mastitis-metritis-agalactia (MMA). The temperature for the crate should be:

  • Sow 70˚ F. and pig 90˚ F
  • Sow 95˚ F. and pig 70˚ F
  • Sow 90˚ F. and pig 90˚ F
  • Sow 70˚ F. and pig 70˚ F
  • Sow 75˚ F. and pig 75˚ F
A

Sow 70˚ F. and pig 90˚ F​

110
Q

Which one of the following organisms is associated with exudative epidermitis in swine?

  • Actinobacillus
  • Hemophilus
  • Staphylococcus
  • E. coli
  • Streptococcus
A

Staphylococcus​

111
Q

The most common consequence of sows having MMA syndrome is:

  • Iron deficiency anemia in piglets
  • Porcine stress syndrome in the piglets
  • Hypoglycemia in the piglets
  • Cannibalism of the piglets
  • Hypothermia of the piglets
A

Hypoglycemia in the piglets

Mastitis, metritis and agalactia, commonly referred to as MMA, is a complex syndrome seen in sows shortly (12 hours to three days) after farrowing.​

112
Q

The indispensable amino acid ratio requirements for segregated early-weaned pigs are usually determined by:

  • The methionine:tryptophan ratio
  • The ingredients in the diet
  • Experimental data for each individual amino acid
  • The order of limiting amino acids
  • The ratio relative to lysine
A

The ratio relative to lysine

113
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding gastric ulcers in swine?

  • Selenium and Vitamin E play no role in gastric ulcers
  • The most important risk factor seems to be interruption of feed intake
  • Low lysine levels are associated with increased risk
  • High dietary fat levels are associated with increased risk
  • The form and stability of the feed is unimportant as a risk factor for ulcers
A

The most important risk factor seems to be interruption of feed intake

114
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Yorkshire

Whire breed, erect ears. Most common breed in US

115
Q

What does the term “lower critical temperature” mean with respect to swine production?

  • 70˚F
  • 90˚F
  • The temperature at which the pig starts not gaining well because energy is being used to maintain body temperature
  • The temperature at which the pig fails to clear bacteria from the airway adequately
  • The temperature at which pigs begin to show stress by fighting
A

The temperature at which the pig starts not gaining well because energy is being used to maintain body temperature

116
Q

The number of airborne microorganisms in a hog building closed up and ventilated for cold weather can be 5K to 10k times greater than when the building is ventilated for hot weather. One of the pathogens most important in this situation is:

  • Moribillivirus
  • Moraxella bovis
  • Swine pox virus
  • Pseudorabies virus
  • Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

117
Q

The organism most commonly isolated from the respiratory tract of swine is:

  • Haemophilus parasuis
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
  • Lawsonia intracellularis
A

Pasteurella multocida

Can be part of normal microflora but does not cause disease until break in barrier of respiratory tract

118
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Pietrain

Double muscled

119
Q

Which one of the following cardiovascular conditions of swine is often associated with erysipelas?

  • Mulberry heart disease
  • Valvular endocarditis
  • Non-suppurative myocarditis
  • Vena caval thrombosis
  • Aortic thrombosis
A

Valvular endocarditis​

120
Q

Identify the breed of swine that is very lean and originated in Belgium

  • Belgian Landrace
  • Salers
  • Pietrain
  • Montbeliarade
  • Brugge
121
Q

Identify the breed of swine characterized by a black coat color with a white band around the thoracic area.

  • Poland China
  • Hampshire
  • Tamworth
  • Pietrain
  • Landrace
122
Q

A disease associated with rodents which is common in piggeries is:

  • Whipworms
  • Swine pox
  • Leptospirosis
  • Lungworms
  • Ascariasis
A

Leptospirosis​

  • L. pomona or L. Bratislava are the most common in swine
  • Clinical signs include abortion, stillbirths, or weak piglets at birth
123
Q

T/F: Nursery diets should contain 60,000IU of Vit E per ton to aid in prevention of sudden deaths due to deficiency

124
Q

A type of virus infection in swine characterized by vomiting would be:

  • Porcine circovirus
  • Transmissible gastroenteritis
  • Porcine reproductive/ respiratory syndrome
  • Vesicular stomatitis
  • Pseudorabies
A

Transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE)

Occurs primarily during the winter months - pigs are under cold stress

125
Q

Identify this breed:

A

Poland China

LARGEST breed of pig. Record belongs to ‘Big Bill’, a Poland China that weighed in at 2,552 lbs (1,157 kgs)

126
Q

What do you get when you play tug-of-war with a pig?

A

Pulled Pork

127
Q

T/F: Whipworms are a major problem in pigs in the finishing stage

A

True

Trichuris; Causes mucoid, hemorrhagic diarrhea and production losses. Buries itself and tunnels through the epithelium. Common in growing/finishing pigs

128
Q

What are the most common type of worms seen in swine?

A

Roundworms

Ascarid suum; seen in ~90% of infected herds. Immature L3 migrate through liver and lungs à losses in production, predisposes to pneumonia

129
Q

Between roundworms and whipworms in swine, which one typically results in greater losses?

A

Whipworms

Whipworms cause greater losses due to the L3 stage 2-3 week tunneling phase in epitheilial tissues in cecum. Dewormers cannot reach larvae in the mucosa

130
Q

This is the only drug that qualifies as a Class II dewormer in swine:

A

Safe Guard® (Fenbendazole)

Broad spectum; controls L3 of roundworm and whipworm; safe even on pregnant, no withdrawal​

131
Q

Female swine are most sensitive to __________ toxicosis. Swine are highly susceptible to __________, which causes agalactia.

A

Female swine are most sensitive to organophosphate toxicosis. Swine are highly susceptible to ergotism, which causes agalactia.

132
Q

Swine are the animals most sensitive to the mycotoxicosis known as deoxynivalenol (DON) or __________

A

vomitoxin

This mycotoxin occurs predominantly in grains such aswheat, barley, oats, rye, and maize, and less often in rice, sorghum, and triticale.​

133
Q

__________ and __________ are the two gases most commonly associated with animal or human deaths in confinement operations

A

Hydrogen sulfide and carbon monoxide are the two gases most commonly associated with animal or human deaths in confinement operations

134
Q

T/F: Generally speaking, post-weaning pigs are the most likely to be affected by disease

135
Q

In 1989 the National Pork Producers Council initiated a program to ensure the provision of a quality, wholesome product to consumers. This program is called the ___________

A

Pork Quality Assurance (PQA) program

136
Q

A disease control program in a piggery may fail because of:

  • Lack of rodent control
  • Feed toxicosis
  • Social pressures within pig groups
  • Early weaning
  • Over medication of feed
A

Lack of rodent control

137
Q

Which one of the following statements is true concerning chronic ileitis in swine?

  • Production loses are seen even if little or no scouring is observed in the swine
  • Campylobacter is the organism usually responsible for the problem
  • All-in-all-out movement of pigs has little effect on the incidence of this disease in a piggery
  • Intramuscular vaccination programs seem to be successful in controlling the disease
  • The medication time period recommended for this disease is 6 days
A

Production loses are seen even if little or no scouring is observed in the swine​

138
Q

Mycoplasma hyorhinis will produce a polyserositis in young pigs. Which one of the following agents will likewise produce polyserositis?

  • Corynebacterium pyogenes
  • Pasterurella multocida
  • Mycoplasma hypopneumonia
  • Hemophilus suis
A

Hemophilus suis​

139
Q

Sows should be thoroughly washed before being placed in farrowing crates to avoid:

  • Baby pigs being contaminated with external parasites
  • Problems with urinary tract infections around farrowing time
  • Bringing viruses into the hog house
  • Contamination of the crates with dirt and parasite ova
  • Heat stress during movement into the building
A

Contamination of the crates with dirt and parasite ova

140
Q

What age of pig is most affected clinically by whipworms?

  • 2-10 days
  • 2-4 weeks
  • 4-8 weeks
  • 2-6 months
  • Over 6 months
A

2-6 months

141
Q

Often the first indication of agalactia in a sow is:

  • Swollen mammary glands
  • Constipation
  • Fever
  • Anorexia
  • Noisy piglets
A

Noisy piglets​

142
Q

Why would the pen of pigs shown in photo “A” appear to be more comfortable than the pigs in photo “B”?

  • They have more pen space
  • They probably are warmer
  • They are less likely to get their feet trapped in the slats
  • They have a larger mat upon which to lie
  • They have more light in their pen
A

They probably are warmer

Note that group B is more huddled together for warmth

143
Q

T/F: PRRS virus attacks and kills immune system cells in the lungs

144
Q

T/F: Sixty percent of swine affected with PRRS test positive for bacterial infections, most often Bordetella

A

False

60% test positive for bacterial infections, most often Pasteurella

145
Q

T/F: Streptococcus is associated with meningitis in swine

146
Q

T/F: The most important way in which pseudorabies is spread among pigs is by contact with infected pigs, including carriers

147
Q

Stremodo is a:

  • Swine record keeping program
  • Antiviral drug used in the treatment of swine influenza
  • A sound recording device used to detect stress in swine
  • An enzyme added to swine rations to enhance feed conversion
  • A new antibacterial used for therapy of Streptococcal infections in swine
A

A sound recording device used to detect stress in swine​

148
Q

Streptococcus suis Type 2 is most common in pigs 4-8 weeks old (weaned pigs). What is the most common form of transmission?

A

Aerosol transmission

RUSVM Large Animal Medicine II (9 decks)

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