Exam 2 Bovine (Old Exam Questions) Flashcards
Includes questions from Bovine digestive, musculoskeletal, cardiac, renal, neuro, etc. and is a compilation of old exams as well as questions from his lectures. There's probably some goat stuff in there too. Whoops.
What condition would you suspect if you palpated a cow rectally and found the rumen enlarged as shown in the picture?
Vagal indigestion
The rumen becomes distended in ventral sac so much that the rumen takes up the entire left side and lower half of right abdomen. You should be able to feel this on palpation
A dairy heifer was tested for a national sale. Everything was fine, except that she was positive for lymphosarcoma. Because of this we know that:
- She is very likely to develop clinical signs of disease
- She is very likely to develop persistent lymphocytosis
- Her natural life span will be significantly reduced
- All of her offspring will be positive
- She can be used as an embryo donor without transmitting the disease to the ova
She can be used as an embryo donor without transmitting the disease to the ova
What is the etiology of heel wart in cattle?
Treponema
Two months after culling four of your six goats for Johne’s disease you have bought new does each with a nursing kid. Choose the best management strategy for these new herd additions.
- Place them in the pen with your original goats right away to get them used to each other while the kids are young
- Build a separate pen to house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off
- Introduce the new goats after shoveling out all visible pellets, fencing off any standing water, and installing feeders that prevent fecal contamination
- Build a separate pen to house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off, continue to test and monitor the body condition of the remaining two goats to make sure they are not infected
Build a separate pen to house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off, continue to test and monitor the body condition of the remaining two goats to make sure they are not infected
The dairy cow in this picture had a selective appetite for roughage but not grain shortly after a normal calving. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Abomasal displacement
Which one of the following statements is most correct with regard to colostrum management in calves?
- The majority of antibodies in colostrum are not destroyed by pasteurization
- The ability of the calf to absorb IgG does not decline until the calf is about 48 hrs old
- Johne’s disease can be transmitted through the colostrum from an infected cow
- Colostrum quality in non-dependant upon the season of the year, breed, or nutrition of the dam
- Colostrum quality is not related to the quantity of colostrum produced
Johne’s disease can be transmitted through the colostrum from an infected cow
This photograph shows the proper place to auscult and percuss for gas in the:
abomasum
Which one of the following drugs would be the therapy of choice for a bloated cow that was just brought in after overeating on a legume pasture?
- Magnesium carbonate
- Sodium acid phosphate
- Calcium borogluconate
- Poloxalene
- Turpentine
Poloxalene (Therabloat®)
You took a blood sample from an anemic cow and made a slide for examination. This is what you see. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
- Babesiosis
- Anthrax
- Anaplasmosis
- Copper deficiency
- Phosphorus deficiency
Anaplasmosis
With respect to salmonellosis of cattle, which one of the following statements is most correct?
- Salmonella typhimurium DT104 is not a significant zoonotic risk for humans
- Salmonella are not killed by exposure to volatile fatty acids of fully functioning normal rumens
- Normal mice can be infected with the same dose of salmonella as mice, which are germ free or have been treated with antibiotics before exposure
- The majority of salmonella infections in a herd over time are clinical
- Control of salmonella is probably best achieved by minimizing the challenge dose (by limiting exposure) and by maximizing host resistance
Control of salmonella is probably best achieved by minimizing the challenge dose (by limiting exposure) and by maximizing host resistance
The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle on a high starch diet is:
5.5 to 6.5
Identify this beef breed which was used in the development of the Senepol cattle found in the West Indies:
Red Poll
This heifer did the “splits” after calving, so now she has her legs tethered together. What is the most appropriate environment for this heifer at this time?
- Concrete floor with grooves
- Dirt or sand lot or pen
- Concrete floor with some straw
- Rubber mat
- Gravel based lot or pen
Dirt or sand lot or pen
Bovine pyelonephritis is most commonly diagnosed in:
- Cows after parturition
- Steers on a heavy grain feeding program
- Bulls after a period of intensive service
- Heifers shortly after being bred for the first time
- Calves in the first few weeks of life
Cows after parturition
With respect to rumenal acidosis in cattle:
- Clostridium and Escherichia are the primary lactic acid producers in the microflora
- As the disease progresses, the rumen pH rises
- As the rumen pH rises, rumen motility decreases
- No regimen of preventative therapy exists to decrease the problem
- Osmolality of the rumen increases to more than twice normal
Osmolality of the rumen increases to more than twice normal
A student has a yearling steer tied up in his back yard. Two days ago the steer got loose and ate a half of a bag of shelled corn that was under a shed in the yard. The next day the steer was anorectic and had diarrhea, but was still drinking. What would be your most likely diagnosis?
- Ergot toxicosis
- Intestinal parasitism
- Abomasal displacement
- Rumen acidosis
- Intestinal obstruction
Rumen acidosis
A valuable 3 year old Angus bull is being evaluated because of lameness in his left hind (LH) limb. The bull will touch the toe to the ground, but does not bear weight on the foot. There is a large, smooth, pedunculated mass between the toes of the LH limb. The mass is touching the ground at the back of the interdigital space. The bull reacts painfully as the toes are pushed together. What is the appropriate management?
- Application of tetracycline spray
- Confine the bull to dry, clean paddock
- Cull the bull
- Injection of systemic tetracycline
- Surgical removal of the mass
Surgical removal of the mass
What is the etiologic agent associated with Black Disease in cattle?
Clostridium novyi
This beef calf is four days old and presented with acute diarrhea. What pathogen is most likely to have caused the problem?
E. coli
T/F: Top producing cows spend the same amount of time lying down, but more time eating than lower ranking cows
False
Top producing cows spend the same amount of time eating, but more time resting/laying down than lower ranking cows
Name the structures found in the calf’s umbilicus:
- Umbilical arteries
- Umbilical vein
- Urachus
Grass tetany is associated with _________ deficiency
Grass tetany is associated with magnesium deficiency
What is the etiological agent associated with Wooden Tongue in cattle?
Actinobacillus lignieresii
The Romanov breed of sheep is noted for which of the following characteristics?
- Ability to have a litter of lambs at one time
- Genetic resistance to footrot
- Genetic susceptibility to scrapie
- Resistance to parasites
- High milk production
Ability to have a litter of lambs at one time
What dairy cattle breed is most susceptible to milk fever?
Jersey
T/F: The AC-ELISA test is an accurate test for persistent BVDV infection in calves
True
Pooling saline from ear notch samples from 2 animals tested by AC-ELISA could provide an inexpensive, reliable method for whole herd screening for bovine viral diarrhea virus
Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves is associated with:
- Bovine virus diarrhea-mucosal disease complex
- Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
- Consumption of lupines during the first 30 days of pregnancy
- Malignant catarrhal fever
- Foot and Mouth Disease
BVD-mucosal disease complex
Outbreaks of tetanus in lambs and calves have been associated with:
- Feeding spoiled hay or silage
- Failure to vaccinate the dam before calving or lambing
- Vaccination “breaks”
- Outbreaks of hemophilus associated respiratory disease
- Use of elastrator rubber bands for castration or tail docking
Use of elastrator rubber bands for castration or tail docking
T/F: Salmonella are usually killed by exposure to the volatile fatty acids of fully functioning normal rumens
True
T/F: Diseases of cattle which are characterized by having an “iceberg effect” include anaplasmosis and bovine lymphosarcoma
True
T/F: As long as there is no swelling above the coronary band, cattle with footrot that has been properly treated should be noticeably improved within a couple of days and often even the next day
True
Which of the following is true regarding White Muscle Disease in young calves?
- Providing selenium supplementation in a salt/mineral mix year round to all stock is a good method to control/prevent white muscle problems in calves
- A selenium injection at birth will effectively prevent white muscle disease and will provide adequate selenium levels until the calf is around 1-year-old
- The cardiac form tends to be more amenable to treatment than the skeletal form
Providing selenium supplementation in a salt/mineral mix year round to all stock is a good method to control/prevent white muscle problems in calves
The key to locating a sole abscess in a cow is/are ________
- Radiographs
- To pare out the black tracts
- To ude nerve blocks
To pare out the black tracts
What is a “persistently infected animal” with respect to bovine viral diarrhea virus?
- An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
- An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero after establishing immunocompetence
- An animal that was infected within the first 120 days of life and has remained infected
- An animal that was infected with BVDV and recovered but remains a carrier
- Always an animal infected with mucosal disease
An animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
A dairy cow with a perforating abomasal ulcer would have clinical signs similar to which one of the following diseases?
- Simple indigestion
- Traumatic gastritis
- Pneumonia
- Bloat
- Left abomasal displacement
Traumatic gastritis
Pulmonary arterial pressure is used as a screening test for which one of the following diseases?
- Atypical interstitial pneumonia
- Brisket disease
- Pulmonary thromboembolism
- Pericarditis
- Tuberculosis
Brisket disease
In a cow with Brisket disease (Pulmonary hypertension, High altitude disease), high altitude leads to hypoxic vasoconstriction. This leads to cardiac failure, which results in the development of edema in the brisket
A cow was affected with chronic progressive wasting disease, paratuberculosis. One distinction between the disease in cattle and small ruminants is that usually in small ruminants:
- “Star gazing” is a noted clinical sign
- There is usually no diarrhea
- There is no thickening of the intestine
- Only the pigmented form of the organism causes disease
- “Bottle jaw” is not a clinical sign
There is usually no diarrhea
You can auscultate and percuss an area of gas distention as shown on the side of this cow as marked with the tape. What organ is more likely to be involved with this finding?
- Cecum
- Abomasum
- Omasum
- Reticulum
- Rumen
Abomasum
The drug of choice for therapy of ovine pinkeye, heel wart, and anaplasmosis would be:
Oxytetracycline
Here are three sheep with different signs. They are from a flock with many sheep affected with anorexia, salivation, and lameness. Which one of the following diagnoses would be most likely?
- Malignant catarrhal fever
- Bluetongue
- Foot and mouth disease
- Sheep and goat pox
- Peste de petit ruminant
Bluetongue
Identify the breed.
Brown swiss
White muscle disease in calves and lambs is a result of ________ deficiency
Vitamin E/Selenium
What is the most important thing to do after diagnosing a heifer calf with blackleg in a beef herd?
- Make sure the producer and those in contact with the heifer get proper medical care
- Treat the heifer immediately with high doses of PPG and antitoxin
- Vaccinate the susceptible members of the herd
Vaccinate the susceptible members of the herd
This picture shows group feeding of dairy calves. What is the principal advantage of this system of management?
- Labor savings
- Quicker growth rate
- Less risk of mastitis infections
- Less risk of contact infections
- Exercise
Labor savings
The possible _dis_advantage of this system is that calves may suckle each other
Concerning intestinal obstructions in cattle:
- Heart rate is usually decreased
- Rumen motility is unaffected
- Reduced fecal output is a consistent sign
- Serum chloride value is not a reliable prognostic indicator
- Intraluminal obstructions are fairly common
Reduced fecal output is a consistent sign
T/F: The pupillary light reflex may be present in a blind steer with polioencephalomalacia
True
You have been called to see a dairy cow that has been off feed for the past two days and is seven months pregnant. She does not have a magnet. Based upon the history and clinical findings you have made a tentative diagnosis of traumatic reticulitis. Which one of the following is contraindicated in the management of this case?
- Administration of procaine penicillin G
- Administration of a magnet
- Administration of dexamethasone
- Administration of vitamin B complex
- Administration of a carminative and laxative
Administration of dexamethasone
What is the most common bacterial cause of Neonatal Diarrhea Complex in calves?
E. coli
What condition is shown on the foot of this chronically lame cow after hoof trimming?
Rusterholtz Ulcer
(Typical sole ulcer in cattle); usually found on lateral rear digit (on the sole); This is a sequela of not having the hooves trimmed properly. If not treated early, infection can extend to the coffin joint, and may have to be treated by digital amputation
Control of digital dermatitis in a dairy herd is best accomplished by:
- Vaccination
- Systemic antibiotics
- Persistent local treatment
- Improving fly control
- Culling affected cows
Persistent local treatment
T/F: Mild iodine tincture is recommended for disinfection of the umbilicus of calves and foals
True
What is a “persistently infected animal” with respect to bovine virus diarrhea virus?
an animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
Which one of the following viral diseases has the clinical signs similar to blue tongue but affects cattle as well as deer?
- West nile virus
- Cervid calcivirus
- Chronic wasting disease
- Epizootic hemorrhagic disease
- Malignant catarrhal fever
Malignant catarrhal fever
Post-partum hemoglobinuria is associated with __________ deficiency
phosphorus
- Most common deficiency seen worldwide
- Hypophosphatemia is most commonly seen in grazing cattle (animals on a grain diet get plenty of phosphate)
Apart from foal heat diarrhea, which one of the following is a major cause of diarrhea in foals less than three months of age?
- E. coli
- Salmonellosis
- Rotavirus
- Rhodococcus
- giardia
(I actually don’t know if this one is correct)
Rotavirus
Occurs in calves that are a few days old and may last for several days. Can recover but may predispose to other infections that can kill
Leptospirosis and salmonellosis in all types of livestock are often associated with:
- Periodic ophthalmia
- Intravascular coagulopathy
- Vomition
- Diarrhea
- Rodent contamination of feedstuffs
Diarrhea
T/F: Diseases of cattle which are characterized by having an “iceberg effect” include anaplasmosis and salmonellosis
True
Bovine leukocyte adhesion deficiency (BLAD) is hereditary in what bovine breed?
Holstein
This cow was affected with pitting of the teeth and a fracture of the 3rd phalanx. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Fluorosis
Diagnosed by removing bone in tail & having it analysed
This cow died from the condition shown here, valvular vegetative endocarditis. What type of heart murmur or rhythm is associated with this condition?
- Holosystolic
- Irregular rhythm with pulse deficit
- Accentuated first sound
- Slow heart rate with varying first sound
- Mid-diastolic murmur
Holosystolic
What is the normal blood glucose level for dairy cows?
40 to 80 mg/dL
T/F: Somatic cells are epithelial cells shed in the milk in response to invasion of the mammary gland with pathogenic bacteria
False
Which one of the following statements is most correct?
- Hemoglobinuria is a commonly observed clinical sign with babesiosis
- Copper deficiency is the most commonly diagnosed mineral deficiency worldwide in cattle.
- The AGID test is the most sensitive test for detection of bovine lymphosarcoma.
- Persistent right aortic arch is the most common congenital cardiovascular anomaly observed in cattle.
- Post-partum hemoglobinuria is associated with magnesium deficiency.
Hemoglobinuria is a commonly observed clinical sign with babesiosis
- Phosphorus is the most commonly diagnosed mineral deficiency worldwide in cattle
- The ELISA test is the most sensitive test for detection of bovine lymphosarcoma
- Ventricular septal defect is the most common congenital cardiovascular anomaly observed in cattle
- Post-partum hemoglobinuria is associated with phosphorus deficiency
Which one of the following would most likely be responsible for the condition observed on this bull?
- Ergotism
- Bluetongue
- Foot and mouth disease
- Vesicular stomatitis
- Anaplasmosis
Ergotism
What is the most likely diagnosis for this dairy calf with clinical signs of rear leg stiffness affecting both legs?
- Polioencephalomalacia
- Lead toxicosis
- Listeriosis
- Spastic paresis
- Tetanus
Spastic paresis
Which one of the following tests would be most accurate in diagnosing the suspected viral cause of a swollen carpus in a goat?
- PCR test
- AGID test
- ELISA test
- Agglutination test
- Joint aspiration and cytologic evaluation
ELISA test
Bovine pyelonephritis is most commonly diagnosed in:
- Cows after parturition
- Steers on a heavy grain feeding program
- Bulls after a period of intensive service
- Heifers shortly after being bred for the first time
- Calves in the first few weeks of life
Cows after parturition
You find interdigital hyperplasia (a corn) in the front right foot of a lame Hereford bull. How do you determine if it might be the cause of lameness.
- Perform a regional nerve block to see if the lameness improves
- Poke it and observe for evidence of pain
- Radiograph it to see if the coffin joint is involved
- Smell it for a foul odor
Poke it and observe for evidence of pain
Serum chloride value of less than 60 mEq/L in cattle usually represents:
- Normal value
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Good prognosis
- Rapid rumen outflow
Metabolic alkalosis
T/F: Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle
True
T/F: The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 70 and 110 mg/dL
False
The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 40 and 80 mg/dL. The renal threshold is 105 mg/dL. After that, the cow would begin to lose glucose in the urine
T/F: The calves at highest risk of contracting neonatal disease are those from first calf heifers
True
A cow is presented with the primary complaint of not eating. The history indicates that the animal freshened 3 weeks before being presented. PE revealed a T: 103˚ F, protrusion of the 3rd eyelid, stiffness in all four limbs, and there is a diffuse ping on the left abdominal wall. The most likely diagnosis is?
- LDA
- Primary acetonemia
- Torsion of the abomasum
- Tetanus
- Hypocalcemia
Tetanus
T/F: Milk from cows free of mastitis pathogens has a somatic cell count of <200,000/mL
True
T/F: Removal of the milking claw at the end of milking without releasing the vacuum causes teat end impacts
True
Which one of the following conditions is not associated with laminitis in cattle?
- Horizontal ridges of the hoof wall
- Sand crack
- White line separation
- Double sole
- Rusterholz ulcer
Sand crack
These stones were found on a rectal examination of a cow with indigestion. What is the significance of this finding?
- Suggestive of possible intestinal obstruction
- Suggestive of pica
- Commonly found in cattle with hardware disease
- Accompanies clostridial enteritis
- Suggestive of abomasal impaction
Suggestive of pica
Pica is a condition of depraved appetite in which the animals start eating objects that they normally do not eat
Which one of the following diseases is characterized by unilateral facial nerve paresis or paralysis in cattle?
- Rabies
- Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
- Polioencephalomalacia
- Thrombotic meningoencephalitis
- Listeriosis
Listeriosis
Cranial nerve deficits = one of the main clinical signs in cattle. This is usually unilateral and results in a head tilt. You may also see ptosis of the eyelid and lip, paralyzed tongue, nares, ear, or eyelid, or walking in circles.
What is the normal rumen pH of a cow that is on a mostly forage diet?
6.0 - 7.0
Cows that are more on a grain diet will have a more acidic pH (5.5 - 6.5)
The nasal discharge seen in cattle with a rhinitis caused by the presence of certain pollens in the environment would show:
- Inclusion bodies
- Numerous fungi
- Numerous lymphocytes
- More eosinophils than normal
- Numerous polymorphs
More eosinophils than normal
T/F: Total protein level is an unreliable indicator of dehydration in calves
True
Colostrum deprived calves may have normal to low levels even when dehydrated
T/F: Cattle vaccinated for paratuberculosis may react positively to a single intradermal test for tuberculosis
True
When are most cases of acute rumen acidosis diagnosed in dairy cows?
- Within the first 2 months after calving
- At peak lactation
- About 4 to 6 months after calving
- At drying off
- During the dry period
Within the first 2 months after calving
T/F: In the field, most cases of atrial fibrillation seem to be secondary to treatment of milk fever with calcium solutions
True
T/F: Winter dysentery in cattle is associated with corona virus infection
True
This cow had a slowly progressive firm lesion as seen in the photograph. Her appetite and milk production were good and no other abnormalities were found. You have a presumptive diagnosis.
What would you recommend as a therapy?
Oxytetracycline
Which is the most likely mechanism for development of septic arhritis in young calves?
- Direct inoculation into the joint
- Spread from periarticular tissue infections
- Stress on the joint induced by high growth rates
- Hematogenous spread
- Auto-immune disease
Hematogenous spread
Under similar conditions of management, which one of these animals would be most likely to develop lameness?
B
Darker hooves are more resistant
T/F: BVDV can survive in frozen semen
True
T/F: Pupillary constriction is a clinical sign consistent with hypocalcemia in recumbent dairy cows
False
Ninety percent of cattle lameness is associated with the foot. In addition, ninety percent of lameness is associated with the rear limb, particularly the:
- Digital flexor tendons
- Lateral digit
- Interdigital area
- Medial digit
- Navicular bursa
Lateral digit
What are the normal calcium levels in a cow?
9-12 mg/dL
Which of the following tests gives the best positive predictive value for Johne’s disease in an individual cow showing clinical signs of the disease?
- ELISA
- AGID
- compliment fixation
- fecal culture
- agglutination
fecal culture
Which three diseases are on the differential diagnosis list when encountering sudden death in a young, fast-growing calf?
- Lasalocid toxicity, salmonellosis, lymphosarcoma (juvenile form)
- Salmonellosis, colibacillosis, enzootic calf pneumonia
- White muscle disease, enterotoxemia, colibacillosis
- Bovine viral diarrhea, lasalocid toxicity, white muscle disease
- Winter dysentery, enterotoxemia, IBR (encephalitic form)
White muscle disease, enterotoxemia, colibacillosis
T/F: StepMetrix® is an automatic method for identification of lameness in cattle
True
Which one of the following statements is most correct concerning winter dysentery in cattle?
- Campylobacter jejuni is the etiology of the disease
- Retrovirus is the etiology of the disease
- The condition cannot be easily differentiated from coccidiosis
- Spontaneous recovery is likely
- Oxytetracycline in the feed or water is the therapy of choice
Spontaneous recovery is likely
Individual course may run 2-3 days, but recovery in milk production may take longer
What is the name of the instrument shown in the picture?
Colostrometer
Can be used to evaluate the quality of colostrums prior to administration to the calf or foal
An important reason for adding glucose to IV replacement fluids for a calf with severe diarrhea is to:
- Enhance secretion of hydrogen ions by the kidneys
- Enhance absorption of sodium ion from the intestines
- Reduce the loss of bicarbonate through the kidneys
- Increase the osmolality of the replacement fluids
- Enhance the movement of extracellular potassium into cells
Enhance the movement of extracellular potassium into cells
The use of calcium chloride gels has been shown to be clinically effective in both the therapy and prevention of hypocalcemia in dairy cattle when given orally. Which one of the following is a possible disadvantage of this type of therapy?
- Risk of toxicosis is greatly increased
- The product is acidic in nature
- A larger dose is needed than if calcium propionate is used
- Absorption of this product is very slow from the gastrointestinal tract
- Calcium chloride is very caustic and may irritate the pharyngeal mucosa
Calcium chloride is very caustic and may irritate the pharyngeal mucosa
A dairy cow with clinical signs of an arched back, shallow breathing, and dorsal subcutaneous emphysema accompanied by a neutrophilic leukocytosis would probably have:
- Grain overload
- Mastitis
- Left abomasal displacement
- Abomasal volvulus
- Traumatic reticulitis
Traumatic reticulitis
With respect to clinical hypocalcemia in dairy cattle, which one of the following statements is most correct?
- Calcium solution should be administered relatively quickly to affect the desired result
- The route of administration of calcium solution is not important; the solution will be equally effective regardless of the route of administration
- A relatively high prepartum calcium diet may suppress parathyroid activity leading to rapid depletion of the calcium pool once lactation begins
- Stage two of clinical hypocalcemia is associated with constriction of the pupils
- Stage one of clinical hypocalcemia is assocated with being down and unresponsive to a stimulus
A relatively high prepartum calcium diet may suppress parathyroid activity leading to rapid depletion of the calcium pool once lactation begins
This heifer had a slight case of calving paresis. Now she is hobbled. Why?
- So she won’t be able to escape.
- To decrease the risk of the ”splits” on a concrete surface.
- To prevent kicking during the breaking-in to be milked.
- To assist in the reduction of udder edema.
- To restrict leg movement so that the nerves can heal more quickly.
To decrease the risk of the ”splits” on a concrete surface.
Which one of the following practices has been associated with tetanus outbreaks in cattle and sheep?
- Ear tagging
- Footrot vaccination
- Clostridium vaccination
- Elastration of tails
- Hoof trimming
Elastration of tails
What feedstuffs would be most likely to cause frothy bloat in a dairy cow?
clover, alfalfa, soybean
One of the main routes of transmission of bovine lymphosarcoma is now recognized as being:
- Direct contact between infected and non-infected cattle
- Calves ingesting infected colostrum
- Iatrogenic spread by rectal palpation
- Infected semen
- Aerosol transmission
Iatrogenic spread by rectal palpation
A twelve year old Brahma cow from Texas has been brought to you for diagnosis of brisket edema, diarrhea, weight loss, and proteinuria. Your differential diagnosis will include:
- Paratuberculosis and mucosal disease
- Renal amyloidosis and paratuberculosis
- Abomasal parasitism and tick fever
- Hypomagnesemia and hypokalemia
- Caudal venal caval thrombosis
Renal amyloidosis and paratuberculosis
What’s the “key” preventative measure for herds that have not yet had cows with hairy foot warts?
- Use footbaths every two months
- Maintain a closed herd
- Use the foot wart vaccine
Maintain a closed herd
Heel warts (verrucose dermatitis) are caused by Treponema and are very infectious/contagious. Once it is present on the farm, it tends to spread throughout the herd.
T/F: Bovine respiratory syncytial virus suppresses the immune system of cattle
False
The portal of entry for the organism causing pyelonephritis in cattle is the:
vulva
The main organism is Corynebacterium renale
This is a dry cow that was acutely diagnosed with mastitis in the left rear quarter. When do most new udder infections occur in dairy cows?
- About 4-6 weeks after calving
- During the latter part of lactation
- During peak lactation
- Just after calving
- During the dry period
During the dry period
A dairy cow with clinical signs of an arched back, shallow breathing, expiratory grunt, and dorsal subcutaneous emphysema accompanied by a neutrophilic leukocytosis would probably have:
- Grain overload
- Mastitis
- Left abomasal displacement
- Abomasal volvulus
- Clostridial disease
Clostridial disease
Assume that this picture was taken of a cow at a dairy in Indiana. Several other cattle were similarly affected. No swine or horses were on this property. What action would you take?
- Advise culling as soon as possible
- Treat with antibiotics
- Quarantine, treatment, and isolation of affected animals
- Herd quarantine and notification of state and federal officials
- Refer to a colleague with more knowledge
Herd quarantine and notification of state and federal officials
T/F: Vaccination of feedlot cattle against foot rot will also aid in the control of heel warts
False
There is a vaccination for foot rot, but it does not help with heel warts. There used to be a vaccination for heel warts, but it didn’t work very well.
This calf has colibacillosis. Which one of the following therapeutic regimens would be best for this calf?
- Withhold milk and feed oral electrolyte solution for 24 hours
- Administer flunixin meglumine and antibiotics
- Administer fluids with electrolytes subcutaneously
- Administer fluids with electrolytes intravenously along with other supportive care
- Administer oral bicarbonate solution and antibiotic
Withhold milk and feed oral electrolyte solution for 24 hours
A preventive measure for neonatal calf diarrhea in addition to vaccination of the dam during gestation would be:
- Isolation and feeding of milk replacer
- Oral vaccination of the calf at birth
- Isolation and feeding of pasteurized milk
- Oral dosing with probiotics at birth
- Parenteral administration of antibacterials
Oral vaccination of the calf at birth
What is the etiological agent associated with Bluetongue in cattle?
Orbivirus
- Bluetongue tends to affect sheep (80% morbidity) much more than cattle (20% morbidity). It is transmitted by Culicoides vectors and usually occurs near the end of the summer months.*
- This is possible to see in just one animal in the herd!*
T/F: To stop a horizontal crack, you should create a vertical groove at the ends of the crack
False
The risk of death prior to weaning is five times greater for beef calves with inadequate pssive transfer. The adequate level of passive transfer for calves is:
- 400 mg/dL
- 1000-1600 mg/dL
- 800 mg/dL
- Unaffected by vaccination of the damn 40 days precalving
- Unaffected by feeding thawed frozen colostrum to newborn calves
1000-1600 mg/dL
Assume that you find a high concentration of ketone bodies in the urine of an anorectic cow with no indication of a physical abnormality indicative of another disease. Which one of the following treatments would be most reasonable?
- Oral administration of one pound of glucose
- Oral administration of a pint of vinegar (acetic acid)
- A bolus injection of 250 grams of glucose intravenously
- A continuous intravenous drip of fructose solution
- Offering the cow a selection of different, highly palatable feeds
A bolus injection of 250 grams of glucose intravenously
T/F: In cattle, a slight bilateral mucoid nasal discharge is normal
True
In cattle, which heart valve is most often affected with valvular vegetative endocarditis lesions?
Tricuspid
T/F: The mitral valve is usually affected by vegetative valvular endocarditis in cattle
False
The tricuspid valve is usually affected by vegetative valvular endocarditis in cattle
T/F: Cows with bilateral obturator nerve paralysis may still be able to stand whereas cows with bilateral sciatic nerve paralysis can’t
True
This cow is being treated for a presumptive diagnosis of milk fever. What drug would you choose to treat this suspected milk fever?
IV calcium borogluconate
Pericardiostomy was performed on this cow. Which one of the following problems is usually related to pericarditis in cattle?
- Vagal indigestion
- Fat necrosis
- Lymphosarcoma
- Traumatic gastritis
- Vena caval thrombosis
Traumatic gastritis
This cow was found dead suddenly and had bloody discharges from the body orifices. Which one of the following diseases would be most likely
- Anaplasmosis
- Anthrax
- Vesicular stomatitis
- Malignant catarrhal fever
- Polioencephalomalacia
Anthrax
T/F: Endemic stability occurs when calves are exposed to anaplasmosis when maternal or age resistance is high
True
T/F: The transition period for dairy cows is the time comprising 3-4 weeks before to 2-4 weeks after calving.
True
T/F: When rolling a cow to correct left abomasal displacement, the cow should be put down on to the left side first
False
When rolling a cow to correct left abomasal displacement, the cow should be put down on to the right side first. The theory behind this is that gas rises and fluid and solid viscera falls
The risk of death prior to weaning is five times greater for beef calves with inadequate passive transfer. The adequate level of passive transfer for calves is:
1000-1600 mg/dL
This cow has a chronic bony condition, which so far has not severely affected production or health. What is your diagnosis?
Actinomycosis (Lumpy Jaw)
T/F: Regarding BVD in cattle, the non-cytopathic strain is the most common
True
Three very common sites of lymphosarcoma lesions in cattle, other than lymph nodes, are:
uterus, abomasum, heart
T/F: The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received
True
Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a vaccination failure?
- Vaccinating a beef calf at weaning
- Vaccinating a beef cow with a killed vaccine
- Vaccinating a dairy calf at weaning
- Vaccinating a dairy cow with a killed vaccine
Vaccinating a beef calf at weaning
Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection spread on the farm?
from front end loader used to mix & feed the ration
T/F: Elk, mule, deer, moose, bison, and white-tailed deer are naturally susceptible to Johne’s disease
True
What is the #1 treatment for acute/frothy bloat in cattle?
Poloxalene
Poloxalene is a surfactant to destabilize foam so animal can eructate
Why do we keep an animal in sternal recumbency while administering treatment for milk fever?
- Prevent muscle damage
- Improve respiratory function
- Improve cardiac function
- Prevent regurgitation and aspiration
- Encourage eructation
Prevent regurgitation and aspiration
The primary cause of ruminant ketosis is:
- Protein deficiency
- Oxaloacetate deficiency
- Vitamin B12 deficiency
- Niacin deficiency
- Glucocorticoid deficiency
Oxaloacetate deficiency
T/F: Hemoglobinuria is a commonly observed clinical sign of anaplasmosis in cattle
False
Hemoglobinuria is observed with babesiosis in cattle. This is important to distinguish between the two
What is the etiological agent associated with Lumpy Jaw in cattle?
Actinomyces bovis
Which of the following feedstuffs would be most likely to cause bloat in a dairy cow?
- Alfalfa, soybean, clover pasture
- Corn stover
- Orchard grass hay
- Bermuda grass hay
- Fescue/clover mixed hay
Alfalfa, soybean, clover pasture
What would be the most likely diagnosis for a dairy cow with the following clinical signs - arched back, slight expiratory grunt, selective appetite for roughage but not grain?
- Abomasal volvulus
- Traumatic gastritis
- Ketosis
- Left abomasal displacement
- Pericarditis
Left abomasal displacement
T/F: A cow with a septic coffin joint will usually be 3-legged lame
True
A cow had unilateral facial nerve paralysis and was circling in the stall. Which one of the following diseases would be the most likely diagnosis?
- Botulism
- Lead toxicosis
- Polioencephalomalacia
- Listeriosis
- Tetanus
Listeriosis
What is the primary route of infection for blackleg in cattle?
- Fomite
- Inhalation
- Vector borne
- Ingestion
- Direct contact
Ingestion
If a squamous cell carcinoma lesion extended down to bone, what therapy would you recommend?
- Alpha radiation
- Beta radiation
- Hyperthermia
- Surgical exoneration
- Gamma radiation
Gamma radiation
Which of the following is the most significant alteration in intestinal function caused by enterotoxic colibacillosis?
- Hypermotility
- Hypersecretion
- Increased permeability
- Malabsorption
- Maldigestion
Hypersecretion
Enterotoxic E. coli produce a severe watery diarrhea. It stimulates secretion of water and electrolytes - hypersecretion into the gut
What would be the significance of a low neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count within a normal range?
- Probably indicative of chronic infection
- Probably indicative of parasitism
- Probably indicative of bone marrow suppression
- Probably indicative of an acute overwhelming infection
- Possibly could be a normal hemogram
Probably indicative of an acute overwhelming infection
Which is true regarding vertical hoof cracks?
- They are more common in beef cattle than dairy cattle
- Most cracks are associated with lameness
- They usually occur in the dorsal axial wall
They are more common in beef cattle than dairy cattle
As a percentage of body weight, how much should you feed this animal on a daily basis using the product as shown?
10%
Most cattle vaccines cost ____ per head.
- <1 dollar
- 1-2 dollars
- <5 dollars
- 5-10 dollars
<5 dollars
T/F: Meningitis in neonatal food animals may often resemble hypocalcemia
False
Meningitis in neonatal food animals may often resemble hypo_glycemia_
This cow has a mass on her jaw which became ulcerated and was draining a purulent exudate. Which one of the following diagnoses would you find most plausible?
- Actinomycosis
- Actinobacillosis
- Iodine deficiency
- Cobalt deficiency
- Zinc deficiency
Actinomycosis
Lesions develop in the mandible or maxilla or soft tissues after entering through oral abrasions; Fistulous tracts may develop
Which one of the following statements is true concerning tuberculosis in cattle?
- The primary route of infection is transplacental
- The test used in the eradication program is an intradermal skin test
- The disease has been eradicated in the continental United States
- Coughing and chronic nasal discharge are the most obvious clinical signs in early cases
- Infection usually occurs after two years of age
The test used in the eradication program is an intradermal skin test
In the late summer this Colorado cow was examined for salivation and anorexia. You found ulcerative lesions in the oral cavity. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
- Bluetongue
- Vesicular stomatitis
- Actinobacillosis
- Actinomycosis
- Malignant catarrhal fever
Vesicular stomatitis
- Transmitted via direct contact (not airborne)
- Looks similar to FMD, but also infects horses
- Control is dependent on insect vector control
To protect food animals against most diseases, the immune response elicited by vaccination should:
- Result in the same response as a natural infection
- Result in a humoral response
- Result in a cell-mediated response
- Stimulate the non-specific immune system
- Bind to and neutralize toxins
Result in the same response as a natural infection
T/F: The Brown Swiss is the dairy breed with the highest risk for corkscrew claw syndrome
True
Which one of the following diseases is associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage and blood clots in cattle?
- Copper toxicosis
- Rota virus
- Fat necrosis
- Aresenic toxicosis
- Clostridium novyi
Aresenic toxicosis
- Unfortunately, cattle like the taste of arsenic (can be seen in old barns especially). Calves who are suckling will not get sick because the arsenic will bind with milk so it won’t be absorbed.*
- There is no definitive treatment; treatment is symptomatic*
How do outbreaks of Foot and Mouth Disease typically occur in countries where the disease is not endemic?
feeding uncooked garbage to swine
Pigs are very infective to other animals because they breathe out high concentrations of the virus
This Shorthorn dairy cow recently calved with a severe dystocia and had metritis. Now she is losing weight and has a selective appetite for roughage and not grain. What is your presumptive diagnosis?
- Abomasal volvulus
- Cecal dilatation
- Left abomasal displacement
- Fatty liver
- Hardware disease
Left abomasal displacement
What does the graph labeled “C” illustrate?
- Body condition
- Dry matter intake
- Lactation curve
- Butterfat percentage of milk
- Protein percentage of milk
Body condition
Which of the following drugs would possibly be most effective in the therapy of a suspected case of polioencephalomalacia in a cow?
- Thiamine
- Dexamthasone
- Calcium disodium EDTA
- Vitamin A
- Chloral hydrate
Thiamine
You are presented with this Holstein Dairy cow with chronic watery diarrhea, decreased milk production, and bottle jaw. No other cows in the herd are affected.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Paratuberculosis (Johne’s Disease)
Which one of the following is most correct with respect to laminitis in the cow?
- The role of rumen carbohydrate load in the pathogenesis of bovine laminitis is well understood
- P3 rotation is the major feature of chronic laminitis in the cow
- NDF levels of less than 28% of dry matter in the ration of milking cows is an acceptable level
- The sole of the foot is a more important bearing structure in the cow than in the horse
- Heel erosion is not considered part of the laminitis complex because the material of the heel is not horn
The sole of the foot is a more important bearing structure in the cow than in the horse
A cow was diagnosed with bovine lymphosarcoma. The best control for this disease seems to be:
- Isolation of calves from adults from the moment of birth
- Vaccination
- Care to prevent transmission of blood between animals
- Whole herd depopulation and repopulation from clean herds
- Testing and removal of positive animals
Testing and removal of positive animals
Why are dairy heifer replacement calves kept in individual pens as shown here?
- To prevent suckling on each other
- To prevent spread of cryptosporidiosis
- To prevent spread of Johne’s disease
- To make it easier to feed them
- To prevent viral enteritis
To prevent suckling on each other
Regarding rectal prolapse in cattle, it is usually:
- A primary disease
- Secondary to some other problem or condition
- A problem that requires amputation
- Accompanies abomasal displacement
- Self-correcting
Secondary to some other problem or condition
Which one of the following conditions is the most common cause of lameness in dairy herds in North America?
- Interdigital necrobacillosis (foot rot)
- Verrucous dermatitis (heel wart)
- Typical sole ulcer
- Interdigital fibroma (corn)
Verrucous dermatitis (heel wart)
T/F: Botulism is a disease that is characterized by progressive, spastic paralysis in all species of animals
False
flaccid paralysis
Which of the following is TRUE regarding peripheral nerve disorders?
- Animals treated with an anti-inflammatory drug immediately after nerve injury have nearly 100% recovery
- The prognosis for a full recovery is greater if the affected animal is young, relatively light weight and can still stand
- The prognosis for a cow with sciatic nerve paralysis is just as good as a cow with obturator nerve paralysis
The prognosis for a full recovery is greater if the affected animal is young, relatively light weight and can still stand
Which type of sound is consistent with atrial fibrillation on thoracic auscultation of a cow with dyspnea, distended jugular veins, and brisket edema?
- Splashing sounds
- Normal heart sounds of high amplitude projected over the entire thorax
- Systolic murmur of high intensity
- Diastolic murmur radiating from the base of the heart
- Irregular heart sounds with tachycardia
Irregular heart sounds with tachycardia
The normal white blood count of cattle usually ranges between:
4,000 - 12,000 cells/cmm
Which of the following drugs would possibly be most effective in the therapy of a suspected case of lead poisoning in a cow?
- Thiamine
- Dexamthasone
- Calcium disodium EDTA
- Vitamin A
- Pentobarbital
Calcium disodium EDTA
Approximately what percentage of cattle infected with bovine lymphosarcoma virus actually develop the clinical disease?
25%
In addition to magnesium, which other element is often deficient in the soil, thus predisposing to the development of hypomagnesemia (grass tetany) in cattle grazing such pastures?
Phosphorus
This is a photo of a calf with an umbilical infection. What disease problem is frequently associated with this condition?
- Meningitis
- Cryptosporidiosis
- Coccidiosis
- Salmonellosis
- Liver abscessation
Meningitis
T/F: The calves at highest risk of contracting neonatal disease are those from first calf heifers
True
Which one of the following organisms would be most likely associated with the condition shown here?
- Corynebacterium pyogenes
- Actinobacillus lignieresii
- Actinomyces bovis
- Aspergillus fumigatus
- Coccidioides immitis
Actinomyces bovis
What is the treatment of choice for cows that develop this condition after grazing on a clover pasture?
Poloxalene
a surfactant to destabilize foam so animal can eructate
What is the etiological agent associated with Lumpy Jaw in cattle?
Actinomyces bovis
The standard set of vaccines that should be a starting point for most cow-calf or dairy operations are:
- Brucella, 4-way respiratory/abortion, Mannheimia, and Lepto
- Lepto, 4-way respiratory/abortion, and 7-way clostridial
- Rabies, Brucella, 4-way respiratory/abortion, and 7-way clostridial
- Tetanus, 7-way clostridial, Lepto
Lepto, 4-way respiratory/abortion, and 7-way clostridial
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the yellow watery diarrhea in this three day old calf?
- Cryptosporidiosis
- Salmonellosis
- Coccidiosis
- Colibacillosis
- Bovine Virus Diarrhea
Colibacillosis
Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection introduced on the farm?
Purchased calves from a sale barn
What are the two most common organisms isolated from a septic calf with failure of passive transfer?
E. coli and Actinomyces
Thromboembolic-meningoencephalitis (TEME) results from septicemia associated with __________ infection
Histophilus somni
Most often seen in feedlot cattle. Outbreak of TEME is often preceded by a respiratory infection. The neurological disease is usually seen a few weeks later
Identify the condition shown here:
hairy heel wart
Antibiotic of choice: Oxytetracycline
Which of the following is TRUE with regard to the Live vs. Killed debate?
- A greater immune response is generated from killed vaccines
- Fewer doses are necessary with the killed vaccine
- The killed vaccine is more stable in storage
- The live vaccine will not result in clinical disease
The killed vaccine is more stable in storage
Rumen acidosis occurs as a result of:
- Too much rapidly digestible grain in the diet
- Not enough effective fiber
- Slug feeding of grain (e.g. feeding grain in the milking parlor)
- Heat stress (panting cows have less bicarbonate available for buffering the rumen)
- All of the above
All of the above
Common, early signs of LDA in cattle would include:
- Hypocalcemia, hypothermia, and cold tremors
- Increased pulse, kicking at the abdomen, and bloody feces
- Decreased milk flow, recurring ketosis, scant soft feces, and medial displacement of the rumen
- Bulging of the left paralumbar fossa, distended rumen, “ping” over the entire left abdominal wall
- “Pebble in the well” tinkling in the right paralumbar fossa
Decreased milk flow, recurring ketosis, scant soft feces, and medial displacement of the rumen
What organism is implicated in otitis media, septic arthritis and pneumonia in calves, and causes mastitis and pneumonias in adult cows?
- Mycobacterium bovis
- Mycoplasma bovis
- Mycoplasma mycoides var. mycoides
- Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
- Mycobacterium pseudotuberculosis
Mycoplasma bovis
If you see respiratory infection with an ear infection and/or bad mastitis, this should be one of your top differentials. Oxytetracycline is the treatment of choice.
T/F: Many cows with uncomplicated obturator paralysis can stand if there is good footing
True
Magnets given as a preventative for traumatic reticulitis in cattle should be given:
- To yearling cattle
- At time of first breeding
- At time of first parturition
- When total mixed rations are fed
- When wet brewers grains are included in the diet
At time of first breeding
Which one of the following enteric diseases of calves is NOT transmitted in utero?
- Salmonellosis
- Paratuberculosis
- Bovine lymphosarcoma
- Cryptosporidiosis
- Bovine virus diarrhea
Cryptosporidiosis
Transmitted fecal-oral
This cow is being treated for hypocalcemia. What is wrong with this picture?
- Improper head restraint
- Improper placement of intravenous administration
- Inadequate cardiac monitoring
- Improper drug administration (calcium borogluconate)
- Improper biosecurity measures
Inadequate cardiac monitoring
Calcium borogluconate is cardiotoxic, so when it is being administered, you must monitor the heart! You may note tachycardia and dropped beats… this means you are approaching cardiotoxicity
T/F: Concerning squamous cell carcinoma of the eye of cattle, tumor cells are more sensitive to heat than are normal cells
True
T/F: Vaccination of feedlot cattle against foot rot will also aid in the control of liver abscesses
True
T/F: In goats, the intersex condition is linked to the hornless gene
True
What is the approximate cost associated with a case of lameness in a dairy cow?
$300
T/F: This is the most common cause of lameness in dairy herds in North America
False
The image shows an interdigital fibroma (corn). The most common cause of lameness in dairy cattle is verrucose dermatitis (heel wart)
Approximately how old is this sheep?
<1 year
Note the size of the teeth - these are deciduous teeth
Approximately how old is this sheep?
~2 - 2.5 years
Identify this goat breed:
La Mancha
Identify this foot condition:
Corkscrew claw
Most commonly seen in Brown Swiss
Serum chloride value of 90-100mEq/l in cattle usually represents:
- Normal value
- Metabolic acidosis
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Poor prognosis
- Obstructed rumen outflow
Normal value
Infestations with this organism will predispose to which one of the following infections?
- Tetanus
- Blackleg
- Bacillary hemoglobinuria
- Pulpy kidney disease
- Malignant edema
Bacillary hemoglobinuria
T/F: Pupillary dilation is a clinical sign consistent with hypocalcemia in recumbent dairy cows
True
What structure is ruptured to allow this posture in the cow?
peroneus tertius
The cow in this picture has ________ nerve paralysis
tibial
Tibial nerve injury results in flexion of the hock and slight knuckling of the fetlock joint and typically involves both hind legs. Recovery takes 2-3 months. There is no effective treatment.
A Jersey cow is milking about 100 pounds per day while grazing and being supplemented with concentrated feed. What problem do we often associate with dairy cows fed high energy rations to support heavy lactation?
SARA
- Sub-acute rumen acidosis*
- High concentrate and low fiber result in atrophy of ruminal epithelium, gradual decrease in pH*
Total protein level is an unreliable indicator of dehydration in calves because:
- Hypoproteinemia does not occur in calves
- Hyperproteinemia does not occur in calves
- Colostrum deprived calved may have normal to low values when dehydrated
- The instrumentation necessary to measure it is too expensive
- Of the electrolyte pooling effect in calf serum
Colostrum deprived calved may have normal to low values when dehydrated
Which one of the following statements is true concerning .Johne’s disease eradication from a cattle herd?
- Current diagnostic methods allow identification of infected animals early in life
- A test and removal program for infected cows is the most profitable method
- Fecal-oral transmission is less important than transmission through milk
- Isolating calves from cows at birth is an effective control method
- Culling clinical cases reduces herd prevalence of infection
Isolating calves from cows at birth is an effective control method
Decreased reproductive performance in dairy cattle may result if hypocalcemia cannot be controlled in a dairy herd. Which one of the following approaches would be suitable for control of milk fever?
- Increasing calcium intake during the dry period
- Dietary acidification during the dry period
- Injection of cows at calving time with vitamin D
- Increasing vitamin E and selenium levels during the dry period
- Dietary alkalization during the dry period
Dietary acidification during the dry period
The sudden ingestion of a large quantity of barley by a bovine animal may result in:
- An elevation in the ph of the rumen contents
- A high concentration of lactic acid in the rumen, acidosis, and diarrhea
- Convulsions, metabolic alkalosis, hypochloremia and diarrhea
- An over production of ammonia in the rumen
- Acute bloat
A high concentration of lactic acid in the rumen, acidosis, and diarrhea
Which one of the following is a risk factor for urolithiasis in feedlot steers?
- Inadequate water consumption
- High salt intake
- High calcium intake
- Inadequate exercise
- Excessive vitamin A intake
Inadequate water consumption
Lameness scoring of cattle has become a useful tool to monitor hoof disease in a production unit. This is based upon:
- Stance while standing
- Moving appearance together with hoof lesions
- Gait while moving
- Evaluation of hoof lesions from all four feet
- A combination of observation of the animal’s stance while standing and gait while moving
A combination of observation of the animal’s stance while standing and gait while moving
You leave a 100 ml bottle of Procaine Penicillin G at your client’s farm with instructions to inject a calf with bacterial pneumonia intramuscularly once a day at a dose of 22,000 units/kg. The manufacturer’s label lists bacterial pneumonia (shipping fever) as an indication at a dose rate of 3,000 units/lb. Which one of the following is true?
- You cannot leave a drug to be injected by the farmer
- This is an over the counter (OTC) drug and does not require a veterinarian’s label
- This is an extra label use because of the dose given and requires an ELUD label
- This is a banned drug because penicillin residues cause allergic reactions in sensitive people
- You are not permitted to use Procaine Penicillin Gin this case because more effective drugs are available (e.g. florfenicol, tilmicosin etc.)
This is an extra label use because of the dose given and requires an ELUD label
Which one of the following bacteria is isolated most frequently from the lungs of calves with severe fibrinopurulent pneumonia?
- Hemophilus somnus
- Mannheimia haemolytica
- Salmonella typhimurium
- Pneumocystis carinii
- Mycoplasma mycoides
Mannheimia haemolytica
Sudden death with high morbidity in a group of non-vaccinated beef calves on pasture would be suggestive of:
- Polioencephalomalacia
- Clostridial disease
- Paratuberculosis
- Selenium toxicosis
- Dermatophilosis
Clostridial disease
Which one of the following elements should probably be added to the ration when there is an outbreak of urethral calculi in a cattle feedlot?
- Phosphorus
- Zinc
- Calcium
- Selenium
- Magnesium
Calcium
What is the common clinical manifestation of a degree of lameness affecting productivity in a dairy cow?
- Standing and walking with a level back
- Standing with a level back but walking with an arched back
- Standing and walking with an arched back
- Walking with an obvious gait abnormality
- Reluctance to rise
Standing with a level back but walking with an arched back
Concerning ovine progressive pneumonia:
- The causative agent is related to the virus causing equine infectious anemia
- Floppy lamb syndrome is a clinical sign of the disease
- Chronic hyperplastic synovitis is a common clinical sign
- The disease is zoonotic
- The disease only affects immunocompromised animals
The causative agent is related to the virus causing equine infectious anemia
Horizontal grooves observed on the digits of a cow would be indicative of:
- Previous change in management, nutrition, or disease
- Age, similar to ring growth on trees
- Mineral deficiency disease
- Biotin deficiency
- Rickets
Previous change in management, nutrition, or disease
Which one of the following is claimed to be a significant benefit of using either Draxxin or Excede for therapy of bovine respiratory disease despite the cost?
- Full course of therapy in a single dose
- No withdrawal time for slaughter
- Use in dairy as well as beef animals
- Efficacy against Histophilus somni
- Availability as an over-the-counter (OTC) remedy
Full course of therapy in a single dose
Which of the following statements is true concerning white muscle disease in cattle?
- The cardiac form is most commonly observed
- There is no recommended prevention for this problem
- Corticosteroids arc an important part of therapy
- Star gazing is an important clinical sign
- “Flying scapula syndrome” is a clinical sign
“Flying scapula syndrome” is a clinical sign
T/F: Alkalinizing agents used in the therapy of fermentative indigestion in cattle include magnesium carbonate and magnesium hydroxide
True
What degree of thermal burn is characterized by blister formation?
2nd degree
