Small Parts 2 Flashcards

1
Q

At what fetal gestational age do the mammary glands begin to develop?

6 weeks
5 Weeks
4 weeks
7 weeks

A

6 weeks

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2
Q

The acini cells are the functional cells of the breast.

True
False

A

True

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3
Q

Breasts are normally asymmetric in size; which is normally larger?

Correct answer:

Left

Right

A
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4
Q

Nearly all breast pathology originates in the TDLU, most malignancies arise from the terminal duct near the junction of the intralobular and extralobular segments.

True

False

A

True

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5
Q

What is the name of the connective tissue that courses between the lobes of the breast from the chest wall/axilla toward the nipple to support the breast parenchyma?

Connor’s tendons
Brian’s ligaments
Cooper’s ligaments
bra straps

A

Cooper’s ligaments

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6
Q

Which is the correct terminology for directional plane when scanning a breast?

radial, anti-radial
transverse, long
radial, transverse
transverse, sagittal

A

radial, anti-radial

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7
Q

Normal ducts in a non-lactating female should measure ____________.

less than 4 mm
less than 2 mm
less than 5mm
less than 8mm

A

less than 2 mm

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8
Q

The premammary layer of the breast is also called what?

subcutaneous fat layer
muscle layer
glandular layer
parenchymal layer

A

subcutaneous fat layer

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9
Q

The amount of glandular tissue in a breast in the mammary layer is variable by the following factors except which one?

Post menopause
Age of menarche
Age
Weight

A

Age of menarche

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10
Q

Normal ducts in a lactating female should measure ___________ in diameter.

less than 2mm
less than 8mm
less than 9mm
less than 11mm

A

less than 8mm

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11
Q

The breast is located from the 1st and 2nd rib to what location?

9th rib
8th rib
7th rib
6th rib

A

7th rib

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12
Q

The breast is an exocrine gland and its main function is?

production and secretion of milk

provide balance

protect the anterior rib cage

A

production and secretion of milk

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13
Q

Which layer of the breast is the only layer that contains functional tissue?

skin layer

retromammary layer

mammary layer

premammary layer

A

mammary layer

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14
Q

Each breast is composed of approximately how many lobes of glandular tissue arranged in a radial fashion around the nipple?

4-6

14-16

10-12

15-20

A

15-20

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15
Q

How many days post-partum will milk production usually begin?

2-5
2-3

4-5
1-2

A

2-3

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16
Q

What gland on the surface of the areola secret’s a protective oily substance during lactation?

Nipple gland

Montgomery gland

Coopers gland

A

Montgomery gland

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17
Q

What congenital anomaly of the breast is the most common in both females and males?

athelia

polymastia

polythelia

polythelia

amastia

A

polythelia

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18
Q

The condition of breast enlargement, onset of menses, underarm/pubic hair, and acne that occurs before age 8 is most commonly caused by early release of what hormone?

testosterone

calcitonin

gonadotropin (LH and FSH)

A

gonadotropin (LH and FSH)

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19
Q

Breast tissue is not considered completely mature until?

Puberty

Pregnancy

Menopause

A

Pregnancy

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20
Q

What hormone is responsible for stimulating the TDLU to grow in the breast, resulting in ‘PMS’ breast symptoms?

progesterone

estrogen

A

progesterone

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21
Q

What hormone is responsible for the ductal contraction of lactation?

Prolactin

Oxytocin

Estrogen

Progesterone

22
Q

What hormone is responsible for the ductal contraction of lactation?

Estrogen

Oxytocin

Prolactin

Progesterone

23
Q

The fat layer is the layer of the breast where sebaceous cyst and lipomas occur.

False

True

24
Q

What is the term that refers to rapid breast tissue development at puberty, 8 to 13?

Thelarche

Menarche

Post menarche

Pre-mature thelarche

25
Q

When scanning a breast, what is the most common reference point for measuring the distance to a potential lesion?

1st rib

Nipple

Axilla

26
Q

How many bones are typically found in the human body?

208

204

206

20

27
Q

Which answer below is not one of the three different types of muscles?

skeletal

cardiac

smooth

rough

28
Q

At what age range should neonatal hips be scanned to exclude laxity in the hips postpartum due to maternal hormone levels?

4 to 6 weeks

4 to 6 months

3 to 5 months

1 to 2 weeks

A

4 to 6 weeks

29
Q

The Alpha angle of the fetal hip should be___________.

greater or equal to 40 degrees

greater or equal to 50 degrees

greater or equal to 80 degrees

greater or equal to 60 degrees

A

greater or equal to 60 degrees

30
Q

Is the appendix anterior or posterior in location to the iliac vessels and psoas muscle?

posterior

anterior

31
Q

The normal appendix is non-compressible.

True

False

32
Q

The bones in the human body have three functions, which of the below answers is not?

regulate temperature

protect internal organs

support weight of body

facilitate movement

A

regulate temperature

33
Q

Is pyloric stenosis more common in boys or girls?

girls

boys

34
Q

Seeing fluid or stomach contents pass through the pyloric sphincter is not a definitive observation that rules out pyloric stenosis.

True

False

35
Q

Pediatric sonographers knowledge of congenital anomalies is essential.

True

False

36
Q

The sacral spine and lumbar spine both typically have how many vertebrae?

6

5

7

5

4

37
Q

What is the function of the pylorus muscle?

prevents food from digesting early

causes the ‘hungry’ feeling

controls the flow of food

A

controls the flow of food

38
Q

Normal hip development in a child depends on the stability of what?

femoral length

femoral width

femoral neck

femoral head

A

femoral head

39
Q

A fetal hip ultrasound diagnostic quality is entirely dependent on the machine and not the skill of the sonographer.

True

False

40
Q

What is the term for increased blood flow in an area being examined?

hypothermia

hyperemia

hypercoagulating

hypoemia

41
Q

Which of the MSK answers listed is not an area that is commonly scanned?

carpal tunnel

shoulder

ear lobe

knee

Achilles tendo

42
Q

All of the following are reasons to use sonography for pediatric patients except?

ease of sound penetration

low radiation

cost-effective

A

low radiation

43
Q

Tendons and ligaments attach to a bones _______, it contains blood vessels and nerves.

diaphyseum

periosteum

bursa

endoneurium

periosteum

A

periosteum

44
Q

When scanning the pylorus, the channel length should be less than or equal to 17mm and the muscle thickness should be _______?

less than or equal to 3cm

less than 4mm

less than 4cm
less than or equal to 3mm

A

less than or equal to 3mm

45
Q

Of the answers below, select all that could be indications for a fetal spinal ultrasound exam.

RLQ pain

hip clicking

lipomas

dorsal dermal sinus

sacral dimple

spinal cord trauma

A

spinal cord trauma
sacral dimple
dorsal dermal sinus
lipomas

46
Q

What are two secondary, but important, sonographic signs of appendicitis?

nausea/vomiting

free fluid

echogenic mesenteric fat

RLQ pain

A

echogenic mesenteric fat
free fluid

47
Q

The ______ the Alpha angle is, the greater the degree of dislocation.

smaller

larger

48
Q

Ultrasound is the screening method of choice to evaluate any spinal deformities up to what age?

12-18months

6-8 months

2-3months

4-6 months

A

4-6 months

49
Q

What is the most common symptom of pyloric stenosis?

diarrhea

not hungry

projectile vomiting

A

projectile vomiting

50
Q

Synovial joints are the most common joints in the human body.

True

False

51
Q

Ultrasound is the gold standard for diagnosing pyloric stenosis and it is the most common abnormality requiring surgery in infants.

True

False

52
Q

When scanning a fetal spine where should the tip of the conus generally end on the spine?

L1-L2

L4-L5

L3-L2

T11-T12