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Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 2 > Small Animal > Flashcards

Small Animal Flashcards

1
Q

Which dog breeds are predisposed to development of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

German shepherd dog, rough coated collie, cavalier King Charles spaniel, chow chow

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2
Q

Which type of urolith is most likely to be found in a dog with a portosystemic shunt?

A

Ammonium urate urolith

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3
Q

In cryptorchid dogs or cats, which testicle is more likely to be retained?

A

Right (twice as likely to be retained as the left)

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4
Q

Other than idiopathic disease, what are the 2 major causes of non-traumatic chylothorax in the cat?

A

Neoplasia (mediastinal lymphoma), congestive heart failure

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5
Q

Which group of antimicrobials is recommended to treat feline hemotropic mycoplasmosis (Mycoplasma haemofelis infection; formerly hemobartonellosis)?

A

Tetracyclines. Doxycycline is preferred, with a recommended treatment duration of 3 weeks.

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6
Q

Name the hydrophilic bile acid commonly used in the treatment of hepatobiliary disease in the dog and cat. What is the main contraindication to its use?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid (also called ursodiol or decholate). Contraindicated with gallbladder obstruction because it induces gallbladder contraction.

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7
Q

What are the primary chronic, cumulative side effects of doxorubicin therapy in dogs and cats?

A

Cardiomyopathy mainly in dogs, nephrotoxicity in cats.

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8
Q

A pale, icteric dog has hemoglobinuria and hemoglobinemia. An echocardiogram reveals a mass of worms in the tricuspid valve. Which syndrome does this dog have?

A

Caval syndrome (Class 4 heartworm disease)

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9
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed neoplasm in the cat?

A

Lymphoma

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10
Q

This skin tumor, the most common cutaneous malignancy in the dog, cause gastric ulcers and Darier’s sign.

A

Mast cell tumor. Darier’s sign is the local erythema (due to mast cell degranulation) seen after physical manipulation of a mast cell tumor.

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of myocardial ischemia associated with gastric dilation/volvulus?

A

Distended stomach compresses caudal vena cava and portal vein - decreased venous return to heart - decreased cardiac output - decreased arterial blood pressure - myocardial ischemia

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12
Q

Which IV fluid would be most appropriate for resuscitation of a patient in an acute hypoadrenocortical (Addisonian) crisis?

A

0.9% sodium chloride to treat hyponatremia (no potassium, because hyperkalemia is usually present in crisis)

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13
Q

Which organ system is most commonly affected when lymphoma occurs in feline leukemia virus-negative cats?

A

Gastrointestinal tract (alimentary lymphoma)

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14
Q

An older Shetland sheepdog has had lethargy, anorexia and bone pain for a few weeks. Bone marrow plasmacytosis and osteolytic bone lesions are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Multiple myeloma

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15
Q

What is the protocol for leptospirosis vaccination for dogs living in endemic aread?

A

Initially during puppyhood: 3 vaccinations 3-4 weeks apart, then at least every 6 months. Leptospira titers are present for only 3 to 6 months.
* Careful, AAHA guidelines for this vaccine have been updated since the creation of these flashcards**

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16
Q

In growing dogs, the anconeal process should be fused to the olecranon within what time frame?

A

150 days (or approximately 5 months) of age

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17
Q

The Cavalier King Charles spaniel breed of dog is predisposed to which cardiac disease?

A

Chronic degenerative atrioventricular valve disease (also called endocardiosis or myxomatous valvular degeneration)

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18
Q

With splenectomy alone, expected median survival times for dogs with splenic hemangiosarcoma is:

A) 19-86 days
B) 103-155 days
C) 297-392 days

A

A) 19-86 days

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19
Q

Lung lobe torsion most commonly occurs in which lobe of large breed dogs?

A

Right middle lobe. Afghan hounds are overrepresented; many pugs have also been diagnosed with lung lobe torsion.

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20
Q

Which two therapeutic agents can be used for treating cats with clinical Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?

A

Fenbendazole and ivermctin

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21
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a Basenji dog with a history of polydipsia and polyuria, and glucosuria on urinalysis in the face of a normal blood glucose?

A

Fanconi syndrome, an inherited proximal tubular defect that most commonly occurs in this breed.

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22
Q

Which testicular tumor of dogs is known to produce estrogen?

A

Sertoli cell tumor (causing feminizing syndrome)

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23
Q

Why should a pregnant dog’s diet not be supplemented with calcium?

A

Excessive intake of calcium during pregnancy may predispose her to puerperal tetany (eclampsia) during lactation.

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24
Q

Although not pathognomonic, myoclonus is a movement disorder most commonly associated with specific central nervous system infection in dogs?

A

Canine distemper virus infection

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25
What are the four ''Ps'' that characterize the clinical signs seen in the distal extremities of cats with aortic thromboembolism?
1) Pain 2) Paralysis 3) Pulselessness 4) Pallor The footpads also are often cool to the touch.
26
What is the most common clinical feature of feline hyperthyroidism?
Weight loss (greater than 80% of cases). Newer case series report clinical signs that are less dramatic, possibly because of earlier detection or disease variation over time.
27
Which flea species is the most commonly associated with dogs and cats?
Ctenocephalides felis felis
28
What is the most commonly described paraneoplastic syndrome related to thymomas in dogs?
Myasthenia gravis (including megaesophagus)
29
Why may it be useful to distinguish between superficial and deep corneal vascularization?
Superficial suggests superficial corneal or external ocular disease; deep suggests corneal stromal or intraocular disease.
30
In gastric dilation/volvulus, which abnormality of serum potassium is often present?
Hypokalemia. Serum potassium may further decrease with correction of acidosis.
31
In dogs affected with Chagas' disease (American trypanosomiasis), which organ is characteristically the site of the most life-threatening lesions?
The heart. Initially, myocarditis can occur, but in most chronic cases, a dilated cardiomyopathy-like syndrome eventually emerges and it is often very difficult to treat.
32
What is the most common cause for hypercholesterolemia and no other complete blood count/serum biochemistry abnormalities in an adult, fasted dog?
Hypothyroidism
33
Which endocrine abnormality is known to cause cataract formation in the dog?
Diabetes mellitus
34
Which four pathological conditions are associated with canine elbow dysplasia?
1) FCP - Fragmented medial coronoid process 2) UAP - Ununited anconeal process 3) OCD - Osteochondrosis 4) Elbow incongruity
35
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in cats?
Idiopathic (unlike the dog, where malignancy-associated hypercalcemia is more common)
36
A middle-aged cat has upper respiratory tract infection, bilateral conjunctivitis, and a dendritic ulcer. This is most likely consistent with which infectious disease?
Feline herpesvirus 1 (FHV-1)
37
What is the most common cause of canine maternal origin dystocia and how is it treated?
Uterine inertia; Oxytocin, or if ineffective, caesarean section.
38
Which type of diet may aid in reducing insulin requirements and improve clinical diabetic control in cats?
Low simple-carbohydrate, high protein, high-fiber diet
39
Which sensory organ is most commonly affected by systemic hypertension in the dog and cat?
The eye (retinal hemorrhage, retinal detachment)
40
A dog with a head tilt to the left, vertical nystagmus, ataxia, absent facial sensation ipsilaterally, and poor proprioception of the left fore and hind-limbs has a neurological lesion of which specific anatomical location?
Left-sided central vestibular system (medulla, cerebellar peduncles, cerebellum, or a combination of these structures)
41
What is the most common cause of death in dogs with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?
Thromboembolism (*not* anemia)
42
Which vaccine adjuvant has been implicated in injection-site sarcomas of cats?
Aluminum hydroxide
43
Which nontraumatic disease is the most common cause for petechiae and ecchymoses in the adult dog?
Immune mediated thrombocytopenia (not anticoagulant toxicosis, which instead produces signs of factor deficiency: overt bleeding, bleeding into body cavities,...)
44
Surgical reduction of a pelvic fracture typically may no longer be possible after how many days: 2, 4, or 7?
7 days
45
How is feline leukemia virus primarily transmited?
Close contact, grooming, social behavior (saliva, secretions)
46
What is a common sequela of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy besides congestive heart failure?
Aortic thromboembolism; rarely syncope or sudden death.
47
Panosteitis is a disease of dogs of which age group? A) Neonatal B) Juvenile C) Middle-aged adult D) Geriatric E) No age predilection
B) Juvenile dogs
48
Which blood type is considered the universal canine donor?
Dog erythrocyte antigen (DEA) 1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5 and 7 negative. For practical purposes, DEA 1.1 negative is considered sufficient by some clinicians.
49
Which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication can be used for treating transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder in dogs?
Piroxicam (Brand name: Feldene)
50
What is the most common etiology of canine hypothyroidism?
Primary hypothyroidism (destruction of the thyroid gland itself) by lymphocytic thyroiditis or idiopathic thyroid atrophy. Secondary (pituitary lesion) and tertiary (hypothalamic lesion) are very rare.
51
What is the name of the most common thick-borne disease caused by a hemoprotozoan parasite that infects red blood cells of dogs?
Babesiosis
52
What is the infective larval stage of Dirofilaria immitis (heartworm)?
L3, which the mosquito deposits into the animal during a bloodmeal and which travels through the host's tissues for 70-120 days on its way to the venous circulation.
53
What are the 2 most common congenital heart defects in the dog?
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and subaortic stenosis (SAS)
54
What is the main physical examination finding in dogs with trigeminal neuritis?
Bilateral paralysis of the masticatory muscles (dropped jaw; inability to close the jaw).
55
Stomatitis in cats can be associated with which viruses?
Feline leukemia virus (FeLV), Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV), calici- and feline herpesvirus.
56
What is the most common brain tumor in cats and dogs?
Meningioma
57
An adult cat has anorexia and bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge. The owner has a flock of messenger pigeons. Which infection in dogs and cats is most likely responsible?
Cryptococcosis (Cryptococcus neoformans infection)
58
Dogs (and humans) mainly acquire blastomycosis via which route?
Inhalation of conidia from the environment
59
A 10 month-old mixed breed dog presents with exercise intolerance and differential cyanosis. What is your top differential diagnosis?
Reversed (right to left shunting) patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is the only malformation that produces cyanosis in the caudal half of the body with normal, pink mucous membranes of the head (aka differential cyanosis).
60
Ingestion of garlic or onions by dogs produces which hematologic disorder?
Heinz body hemolytic anemia. This is dose-dependent, and toxicity persists even if the onions/garlic are cooked or dried.
61
With which canine breed is malignant histiocytosis most commonly associated?
Bernese mountain dog
62
An older male, intact dog has incidentally-discovered symmetrical nonpainful prostatomegaly on rectal examination. What is the top differential diagnosis?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
63
Name 3 treatments for hyperthyroidism in cats.
1) Radioactive iodine therapy 2) Surgical removal of the gland 3) Anti-thyroid drugs (Methimazole, carbimazole, ipodate)
64
Acetaminophen hepatotoxicity in dogs results primarily from a low level of which enzyme?
Hepatic glutathione (hence the usefulness of s-adenosylmethionine during treatment)
65
What are the feline blood types?
Types A, B and AB
66
What is the mechanism of polyuria/polydipsia in the dog with pyometra?
E. coli endotoxin interferes with antidiuretic hormone in the renal tubule
67
Why is it useful to determine the immunophenotype (T cell or B cell) of canine lymphoma?
Because dogs with T cell (CD3 immunoreactive) lymphoma have been reported to have shorter remission and survival durations (memory aid: ''B is bad, T is terrible'').
68
Your patient is a 2 year-old male castrated German shepherd dog with a chief complaint of regurgitation; the acetylcholine receptor antibody test is strongly positive. What is the diagnosis?
Myasthenia gravis causing megaesophagus
69
Which type of tumor should be suspected in a dog with unilateral thoracic limb lameness and ipsilateral Horner's syndrome?
Nerve sheath tumor (T1 or T2 nerve roots are affected, deep palpation cranial to the first rib may elicit a pain response)
70
What is the most common hereditary feline coagulation factor deficiency?
Factor XII deficiency (Hageman trait)
71
What is the most common adverse effect of acetaminophen? Are dogs or cats more susceptible to an equivalent dose?
Methemoglobinemia causing life-threatening hemolytic anemia. Cats are much more susceptible to toxic effects (develop toxicosis at lower doses and have more severe signs at equivalent dose).
72
During which phase of the estrous cycle does pyometra usually occur in dogs?
Diestrus
73
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia of malignancy in the dog?
Lymphoma (most common anatomic site is cranial mediastinum)
74
Which 3 ingredients account for close to 90% of all adverse food reactions in cats?
Beef, dairy products and fish
75
While all mammals are susceptible, generally this toxicosis is seen in cats fed a diet high in raw liver. What is it?
Vitamin A toxicosis
76
What is the difference between Hansen type I and type II intervertebral disk disease?
Hansen type I: Acute extrusion of nucleus pulposus into vertebral canal Hansen type II: Slow chronic protrusion of annulus fibrosus into vertebral canal
77
A 40 kg dog is presented with a transverse, mildly comminuted fracture of the tibia. Which option for fracture fixation will LEAST likely provide adequate return of function? A) Cerclage wire B) External skeletal fixator C) Bone plate with screws
A) Cerclage wire
78
Name the respiratory deformity of older, small and miniature-breed dogs that is classically characterized by a ''goose-honk'' type cough.
Collapsing trachea
79
Which algae species found in soil, sewage, and tree slime flux causes large bowel diarrhea, CNS signs, and ocular manifestations in dogs?
Prototheca spp.
80
What is the name of a rare complication of hypothyroidism characterized by nonpitting thickening of the skin, especially of the eyelids, cheeks and forehead?
Myxedema
81
What is the most common cause of hypoglycemia in the adult dog?
Insulinoma (beta-islet cell tumor)
82
What is the major route of infection for Coccidioides immitis in dogs and what is the name of the infectious spore stage of the organism?
Airborne infection (inhalation of arthroconidia from dry desert topsoil)
83
In everyday practice, what is the treatment of choice for benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Castration; Estrogens, progestins, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (e.g. finasteride), and gonadotropin releasing hormone also may help reduce prostatic size.
84
Infection with which tick-borne parasite causes cyclic thrombocytopenia in dogs?
Anaplasma platys (Formerly Ehrlichia platys)
85
What is the typical signalment of dogs affected by fibrocartilaginous embolism (FCE)?
Adult, large and giant breed, non-chondrodystrophic breeds
86
Which type of heart disease is most common in the Doberman breed?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
87
Where are the most common sites for intussusception to occur in a small animal?
The most common forms of intussusception are ileocolic and jejunojejunal; however, they can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract.
88
During cranial cruciate ligament repair, the meniscal attachments often are deliberately transected. This procedure is known as?
Meniscal release. The purpose is to offer greater meniscal mobility to reduce the likelihood of meniscal injury.
89
Name 3 disorders that cause insulin resistance in the dog.
Hyperadrenocorticism, hypothyroidism, diestrus, glucagonoma, pancreatitis, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, congestive heart failure, and infection.
90
What is the most common etiology of hyperadrenocorticism in the dog?
Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism characterized by an overproduction of adrenocorticotropic hormone in the pituitary gland and secondary oversecretion of adrenocortical hormones.
91
A dog hit by a car has bilateral hindlimb paralysis and forelimb extensor hypertonia, with preserved voluntary movement and proprioception in the forelimbs. What is the term for this posture? Where is the lesion?
Schiff-Sherrington posture; Thoracic or cranial lumbar spinal cord
92
Feline infectious peritonitis is caused by a mutation in which virus?
Feline enteric coronavirus. Since it is an in vivo mutation, a positive serologic titer does not distinguish between coronaviral enteritis and FIP.
93
Which of the following is least likely to produce ventricular premature complexes in dogs or cats? A) Blunt chest trauma B) Hypercalcemia C) Splenic mass D) Hypokalemia
B) Hypercalcemia Which rises the threshold for depolarization (i.e. decreases arrhythmogenicity). The others are commonly associated with VPCs.
94
In dogs with traumatic coxofemoral luxation, what is the most common direction of displacement of the femoral head?
Craniodorsal displacement of the femoral head
95
What is the most common cause of constipation/obstipation in the cat?
Idiopathic megacolon
96
What are some emetics to consider for toxicological emergencies in dogs and cats?
Dogs: Apomorphine, hydrogen peroxide, syrup of ipecac Cats: Medetomidine, xylazine, hydrogen peroxide, syrup of ipecac. Salt is contraindicated due to risk of severe hypernatremia if emesis does not occur.
97
Which ornamental flower has been implicated in the greatest number of cases of acute renal failure in cats?
Lilium spp. (Lilies)
98
Which electrolyte disturbance is most common in cats with chronic kidney disease?
Hypokalemia (note: hyperphosphatemia is also common, but strictly speaking, phosphorus is a mineral, not an electrolyte)
99
What are two drugs that act on sodium channels and thus have been used in the therapy for canine distemper-induced myoclonus?
Lidocaine and procainamide. They are more commonly used for their cardiac antiarrhythmic effects, or local anesthetic effects (lidocaine).

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 2 (6 decks)

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