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Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 2 > Large Animal > Flashcards

Large Animal Flashcards

1
Q

What causes transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) in pigs?

A

Coronavirus

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2
Q

Pigs in modern, intensive production units are weaned at approximately which age?
A) 3 weeks (range 3-4)
B) 4 weeks (range 4-5)
C) 5 weeks (range 5-6)
D) 6 weeks (range 6-7)

A

A) 3 weeks (range 3-4)

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3
Q

Ddx for vesicles on the lips, nostrils and coronary bands of pigs consist of which 4 diseases?

A

1) Foot and mouth disease
2) Swine vesicular disease
3) Vesicular exanthema
4) Vesicular stomatitis

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4
Q

Infection with Streptococcus equi equi can result in pharyngeal obstruction after abscessation of which lymph nodes?

A

Medial and lateral retropharyngeal lymph nodes

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5
Q

Match the species of Brucella to the principal host:
Abortus, melitensis, suis
Pig, cow, sheep.
Only one does NOT also infect bisons, which one?

A

B. abortus - Cow
B. melitensis - Sheep (does not infect bison)
B. suis - Pig

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6
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae infection in pigs?

A

Chronic, persistent, non-productive cough

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7
Q

What are the potential outcomes of toxoplasmosis in a pregnant ewe?

A

Embryonic death & resorption, fetal death & mummification, abortion, stillbirth, and neonatal death

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8
Q

What are the 2 known definitive hosts for Neospora Caninum? (Causes protozoal abortion in cattle)

A

Coyote and dog

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9
Q

In the mare, the embryo is mobile during early pregnancy. The embryo becomes fixed (implanted) by day:
A) 16-17
B) 12-14
C) 8-10
D) 5-7

A

A) 16-17

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10
Q

The expected rate of growth for an ovarian follicle in the mare is:
A) 11-12 mm/day
B) 8-9 mm/day
C) 6-8 mm/day
D) 3-5 mm/day

A

D) 3-5 mm/day

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11
Q

Which coccidian parasite is associated with post-weaning diarrhea in 5-6 week-old piglets?

A

Isospora suis

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12
Q

The most common testicular neoplasm in the aged stallion is:
A) Teratoma
B) Sertoli cell carcinoma
C) Seminoma
D) Interstitial cell carcinoma

A

C) Seminoma

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13
Q

What is the adverse effect associated with a cow’s consumption of Ponderosa pine tree needles in the last trimester of pregnancy?

A

Abortion

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14
Q

What is the name of the condition in which a calf has female external genitalia but male gonads and reproductive tract?

A

Male pseudohermaphrodism.
(A true hermaphrodite has BOTH male and female reproductive organs).

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15
Q

What is the common mineral composition of an equine enterolith?

A

Magnesium-ammonium-phosphate crystals (struvite)

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16
Q

What is the normal range of urine pH in ruminants?

A

6.0 to 9.0.
A pH above 8.0 can cause a false positive reading on protein dipstick squares, which should not be misinterpreted as indicating proteinuria.

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17
Q

Which disease in cattle is thought to be related to Crohn’s disease (a chronic enteropathy in humans)?

A

Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium paratuberculosis infection, which produces a granulomatous enteritis similar to Crohn’s disease)

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18
Q

Bovine ulcerative mammilitis is caused by which virus?

A

Bovine herpesvirus type 2

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19
Q

Which drug is commonly used for treating cows that have follicular cysts?

A

Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
which causes release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary.

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20
Q

Which parasite that causes diarrhea in 5 to 15 day-old calves is a potential zoonosis?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum
(Cryptosporidiosis is one of the most common causes of protozoal diarrhea in people)

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21
Q

Deficiency in which trace mineral is beat known for causing muscle weakness and dysphagia in crias? (Aka baby camelid such as llama, alpaca, …)

A

Selenium

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22
Q

What is the most common cause of viral diarrhea in foals?

A

Rotavirus

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23
Q

If trephination of the maxillary sinus in a horse exceeds the dorsal boundary for its procedure, which important structure can be lacerated?

A

The nasolacrimal duct

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24
Q

Is fremitus of the middle uterine artery in the bovine considered a cardinal sign of pregnancy? At which gestational age is it first detectable?

A

It is not considered a cardinal sign of pregnancy (too variable). But when it is present, it is first detectable from 100 to 150 days of gestation.

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25
Q

What is the etiologic agent of equine protozoal myelitis (EPM)?

A

Sarcocystis Neurona (+/- rarely Neospora hughesii)

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26
Q

Horses of which breed appear to be predisposed to congenital cardiac defects?

A

Arabian

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27
Q

Bog spavin is the common term for chronic distension of which joint?

A

Tibiotarsal (joint capsule of the hock) - Causing a swelling of the dorsomedial aspect of the hock joint

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28
Q

Which horse breed is best known for having a genetic defect leading to severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?

A

Arabian

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29
Q

What is the causative agent of equine strangles?

A

Streptococcus equi subspecies equi

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30
Q

Ingestion of which toxic plant can cause arthrogryposis in foals?

A

Locoweed (also possibly hybrid Sudan pasture)

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31
Q

What is the retinal pattern of the equine fundus?

A

Paurangiotic. That is, it has blood vessels that radiate only a short distance from the optic disk.

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32
Q

A newborn foal is considered premature is it is delivered prior to which gestational age?

A

320 days

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33
Q

Which statement is false regarding Brucella abortus infection?
A) Infected horses can develop fistulous withers
B) Uterine infection occurs during the second trimester
C) Bison and elk are considered a reservoir
D) It is highly prevalent in North American cattle

A

D) It is highly prevalent in North American cattle
(Bovine brucellosis has been nearly eradicated in N. Am.)

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34
Q

What are two common viral etiologies of respiratory disease in pigs?

A

Swine influenza and Porcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome (SRRP)

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35
Q

Name 3 systemic infectious diseases associated with ulcerative and/or erosive lesions in the GI tract of ruminants.

A

BVD (Bovine viral diarrhea virus); Rinderpest; Malignant catarrhal fever (AHv1/OvH2)

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36
Q

Within how many hours of birth should a neonatal foal be able to stand?

A

Within 2 hours.
(Maximum… its actually 1h to stand, 2h to nurse, 3h to pass placenta for mum) (aka the 1-2-3 rule!)

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37
Q

Atrophy of which laryngeal muscle leads to laryngeal hemiplegia in the horse?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis, innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve

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38
Q

Which additive in a cow’s diet alters rumen metabolism and improves feed efficiency, but can cause cardiotoxicosis in horses?

A

Ionophores (e.g. Monensin)

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39
Q

Pneumovagina in the mare is associated with chronic inflammation and infection of the reproductive tract. It is associated with:
A) The long vaginal tract in large mares
B) A wide pelvis
C) Excessive body condition
D) Poor perineal conformation

A

D) Poor perineal conformation

40
Q

Which of the following is a commercially available luteinizing hormone agonist that can be used for hastening ovulation in the mare?
A) Altrenogest (Regumate) (P4)
B) Epinephrine
C) Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

A

D) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

41
Q

A herd of pigs shows acute thirst, constipation, and sporadic seizures, characteristically beginning with a sitting position and progressing to opisthotonos. Histologically, there is cerebral polioencephalomalacia. What is the most likely cause?

A

'’Salt poisoning’’
(Actually, water deprivation causing hypernatremia; true ingestion of excessive salt causes vomiting and diarrhea)

42
Q

A viral disease of mice which can result in late gestation pregnancy loss and disease in nursing piglets in swine herds is:
A) Encephalomyocarditis virus
B) Japanese B encephalitis virus
C) Porcine parvovirus
D) Porcine rubulovirus

A

A) Encephalomyocarditis virus

43
Q

Bovine trichomoniasis is caused by which organism?

A

Tritrichomonas foetus

44
Q

What s the etiology of equine motor neuron disease?

A

Vitamin E deficiency

45
Q

Which drug can cause unwanted (and potentially long-lasting) penile prolapse in the horse? What is the synonym for penile prolapse?

A

Acepromazine. Paraphimosis.

46
Q

In layperson’s terms, congenital erythropoietic porphyria in calves is known as…? (The name is also helpful in making this diagnosis)

A

Pink tooth

47
Q

What is the causative agent of blackleg?

A

Clostridium chauvoei

48
Q

A pregnant cow’s calf is dead in utero and you are about to perform a fetotomy. Which additional piece of equipment do you need: Krey hook, Gigli saw/wire, wire introducer, wire handles, threader and brush, and disposables (gloves, lube, etc.).

A

You need a fetotome! Through which to run the saw wire safely inside the cow!

49
Q

At hobby farm, a cow and 2 sheep hace a 2-day history of severe pruritus and self-trauma. On exam: weakness, recumbency, hypersalivation. These animals have been exposed to feral pigs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Aujeszky’s disease (Pseudorabies)

50
Q

Normal foals consume approximately what percentage of their body weight in milk per day?

A

20-27%

51
Q

What is the minimal gestational age for viability in sheep?

A

138 days

52
Q

In horses, chronic lower respiratory disease characterized by periods of reversible airway obstruction and neutrophilic pulmonary inflammation is termed ____________.

A

Recurrent airway obstruction (RAO), formerly known as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and commonly referred to as ‘‘heaves’’. (Asthme équin)

53
Q

A 3-month old foal is presented in respiratory distress, with a WBC of 23500 cells/uL and a fibrinogen of 600 mg/dL (6g/L). What is the most likely etiology in this case?

A

Rhodococcus equi pneumonia

54
Q

Name the 3 sites for venipuncture in an awake pig.

A

1) Pinna (convex surface, near lateral border: lateral auricular vein)
2) Jugular groove (internal jugular, external jugular, and/or brachiocephalic veins)
3) Orbital venous sinus
… and don’t forget your earplugs…

55
Q

What is the most common skin tumor in horses?

A

Equine sarcoid

56
Q

Which disorder of sheep is commonly caused by Dichelobacter (formerly Bacterioides) nodosus and is treated topically with copper sulfate?

A

Footrot (pododermatitis) (Interdigital necrobacilosis)

57
Q

Name the causative agent of equine ehrlichosis.

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

58
Q

Which 2 coccidia species are responsible for hemorrhagic diarrhea in cattle?

A

Eimeria bovis and Eimeria zuernii

59
Q

You are presented with a depressed, 2-day-old colt; Bloodwork reveals profound azotemia, hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. What is the primary rule-out?

A

Uroperitoneum secondary to urinary bladder rupture! This can occur during parturition or as a result of excessive handling of the foal, especially if the foal is lifted from under the abdomen, which should be avoided!

60
Q

Which infectious disease of cattle typically can occur after contact with wildebeest or sheep? What is the causative agent?

A

Malignant catarrhal fever (MCF);
Alcelaphine herpesvirus type 1 (AIHV-1, African strain), ovine herpesvirus type 2 (OvHV-2, sheep isolate)

61
Q

In horses, laryngeal hemiplegia/roaring typically is an idiopathic condition affecting which nerve, on which side?

A

Left recurrent laryngeal nerve.
It is longer than the right, and thus thought to be more prone to damage.

62
Q

Which anatomical structure prevents urinary catheterization of bulls?

A

Urethral diverticulum

63
Q

You are living in the mid-Atlantic region of the U.S. and are presented with a six year old QH gelding with acute, severe, diarrhea, depression and high fever in August. What is the primary initial rule-out?

A

Neorickettsia risticii infection (Potomac horse fever)

64
Q

Which vesicular disease causes oral mucosal lesions in pigs, ruminants AND horses?

A

Vesicular stomatitis.
Foot and mouth disease is NOT infectious to horses.

65
Q

What is the most likely direction of a femoral head dislocation in a cow?

A

Cranial and dorsal.

66
Q

What is the treatment for ketosis in dairy cattle?

A

Parenteral glucose administration; oral propylene glycol; possibly insulin; possibly corticosteroids.

67
Q

What is the mean gestational length of the mare?

A

340-342 days (TBs) - Range 327 to 357 days

68
Q

Which parasite can cause respiratory distress in cattle, similar to bacterial infections such as those caused by Pasteurella multocida and Mannheimia haemolytica?

A

Dictiocaulus viviparus

69
Q

The most common ovarian neoplasm in the mare is:
A) Cystadenoma
B) Dysgerminoma
C) Granulosa thecal cell tumor
D) Teratoma

A

C) Granulosa thecal cell tumor

70
Q

Risk factors for enterolith formation in horses include decreased daily access to pasture grasses and a diet high in which type of hay?

A

Alfalfa (Cuz high protein content)

71
Q

What is meant by ‘‘drying off’’ a cow, and when is it done?

A

Cessation of milk production, at least several weeks before parturition. Thus milking cows typically are pregnant but not lactating for 2 months prepartum, lactating but not pregnant for 2 months post-partum and both pregnant and lactating for the rest of the year.

72
Q

Which telltale medication history often precedes the dx of right dorsal colitis in horses?

A

Treatment with NSAIDs, especially phenylbutazone (PBZ).

73
Q

Which body systems are affected in horses with white snakeroot poisining?

A

Mainly skeletal and cardiac muscle, which explains the muscle tremors, weakness, choke, and cardiac arrhythmias observed clinically.

74
Q

Which heritable muscle disease of QHs is characterized by episodes of muscular fasciculations and weakness?

A

Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)

75
Q

What is omphalophlebitis, and how is it best prevented in calves?

A

Infection of the umbilical veins (usually ascending).
Prevention mainly requires optimal hygiene and sanitation (e.g. clean bedding) at the time of birth; application of such antiseptics as chlorhexidine to the umbilicus may also be beneficial.

76
Q

Which 2 body systems are most commonly affected in the chronic form of infection with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae in pigs?

A

Musculoskeletal (arthritis) and cardiovascular (endocarditis)

77
Q

In horses, which body system is affected in cases of Arabian fading syndrome?

A

The integument.
It is an idiopathic, acquired loss of pigmentation of the skin, or vitiligo (the name refers to fading color, not loss of stamina).

78
Q

Lymphoma associated with bovine leukemia virus occurs most often in which one of the following age groups:
A) Less than 6 months
B) 1-2 years
C) More than 5 years

A

C) More than 5 years

79
Q

Bacterial pneumonia in adult horses is most commonly associated with which organism?

A

Streptococcus equi zooepidermicus

80
Q

What is the name of the nasal bot of sheep?

A

Oestrus ovis

81
Q

Name 2 species of mites that can infect horses.

A

Sarcoptes scabiei; Chorioptes equi; Psoroptes equi; Pyemotes tririci

82
Q

What is the cause of equine coital exanthema?

A

Equine herpesvirus 3

83
Q

Which immune-mediated ocular disease is one of the most common causes of blindness in horses?

A

Equine recurrent uveitis (ERU)(Moon blindness)

84
Q

Pasteurization requires heating milk to 161 degrees F (71.7 degrees C) to kill this ubiquitous zoonotic organism, which also causes neurologic disease when it infects cattle and sheep.

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

85
Q

What is the most common adnexal ocular tumor in the horse, typically seen in breeds like the Belgian, Clydesdale, Appaloosa and Paint?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (Occurs commonly on unpigmented/white skin)

86
Q

In a cow with mastitis, the mammary lymph nodes may be enlarged, Where are these nodes located?

A

Dorsal to the udder, between the medial and lateral laminae of the suspensory apparatus of the udder and cranial to the thick, fat-filled connective tissue in the perineum below the ischial arch.

87
Q

In horses, which endocrinopathy is associated with hirsutism due to failure of seasonal haircoat shedding?

A

Pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (e.g adenoma)

88
Q

What is the major route of transmission for Neospora caninum in cattle?

A

Transplacental (vertical) transmission

89
Q

This disease of sheep and goats is seen in Africa, India, and in the Middle East, Characteristic signs include purulent ocular discharge and erosive stomatitis.

A

Peste des petits ruminants

90
Q

Hematuria after exercise in the horse is most likely caused by:

A

Cystic calculi (urolithiasis)

91
Q

Which gross lesion is characteristic of Glasser’s disease in pigs?

A

Fibrinous polyserositis and meningitis (cause is Haemophilus parasuis infection)

92
Q

Insidious onset but progressive clinical signs of apprehensive behavior, aggressiveness, hyperesthesia, and incoordination, which are mainly seen in older dairy cows, are indicative of which infectious disease first reported in 1986?

A

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy. The most important ddx is rabies, due to its zoonotic potential.

93
Q

In a sheep with chronic copper toxicosis, massive release of copper from the liver can trigger which life-threatening event?

A

Severe, acute intravascular hemolysis

94
Q

What is a common cause of ataxia and proprioceptive deficits in horses that can be found worldwide?

A

Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy (Wobbler syndrome)

95
Q

Which tick-borne disease of cattle is associated with high fever, intravascular hemolysis , neurologic signs and death?

A

Babesiosis (also known as ‘‘Red water’’ or ‘‘Tick fever’’)

96
Q

Is stringhalt an excessive flexion or an excessive extension of the limbs in a horse? Forelimbs or hindlimbs?

A

Flexion, hindlimbs. The hallmark sign is spasmodic myoclonus, most pronounced when the horse is made to walk backwards.

97
Q

What is the most common cause of abomasal impaction?

A

Poor quality/coarse roughage as the sole feed (typically used in overwintering beef cows)

Veterinary Board Exam - Volume 2 (6 decks)

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